Questão 1
Questão
What is the most commonly administered pre-operative sedative category?
Responda
-
Benzodiazepines
-
Opioids
-
Anticholinergics
-
Antisialogue
Questão 2
Questão
[blank_start]Midazolam[blank_end] is the most commonly administered benzo. Its therapeutic dose is [blank_start]1[blank_end] to [blank_start]2[blank_end] milligrams IV.
Questão 3
Questão
Which of the following is NOT one of the actions of a benzodiazepine?
Responda
-
Anxiety
-
Sedation
-
Amnesia
-
Analgesia
Questão 4
Questão
What category of medications produces analgesia during anesthesia?
Responda
-
Benzodiazepines
-
Opioids
-
Antislalogues
-
Anticholinergics
Questão 5
Questão
Which of the following is the typical analgesic of choice?
Responda
-
Fentanyl
-
Morphine
-
Dilaudid
-
Demerol
Questão 6
Questão
What is the pre-operative dose for Fentanyl?
Responda
-
25-100 mcg
-
25 to 50 mcg
-
5 to 15 mg
-
20 to 80 mcg
Questão 7
Questão
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of opioid administration?
Responda
-
Absence of direct myocardial depression
-
Less narcotic requirement postoperatively
-
Reduction of pain before placing lines pre-operatively
-
Depression of the medullary ventilatory center
Questão 8
Questão
Select all that you would be concerned about when administering an opioid for analgesia:
Responda
-
Decreased responsiveness to CO2
-
Relaxation of the peripheral vascular smooth muscle
-
Nausea and vomiting
-
Risk of gastric aspiration
-
Direct myocardial depression
-
Greater post-op requirements for pain medications
Questão 9
Questão
What is the recommended dose for morphine?
Responda
-
5 to 15 mg
-
2 to 10 mg
-
10 to 20 mg
-
5 to 15 mcg
Questão 10
Questão
[blank_start]Robinol[blank_end] is the typical anticholinergic given.
Questão 11
Questão
Select all of the known side effects of Robinol.
Questão 12
Questão
Select all of the side effects of scopolamine.
Responda
-
Antislalogue
-
Sedative and amnesic effects
-
Central nervous system toxicity
-
Relaxation of LES
-
Mydriasis and cycloplegia
Questão 13
Questão
[blank_start]Mydriasis[blank_end] is dilation of the pupil. [blank_start]Scopolamine[blank_end] can cause this.
Questão 14
Questão
Medications that have an antisialogogue effect are particularly effective for what procedure types?
Responda
-
Intraoral procedures
-
Bronchoscopy
-
Fiberoptic intubations
-
Supine cases
-
Lateral cases
Questão 15
Questão
What are the effects of atropine?
Questão 16
Questão
[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] are most commonly administered in pediatric patients due to their strong vagal reactions.
Questão 17
Questão
Which anticholinergic is most commonly associated with producing CNS toxicity?
Responda
-
Atropine
-
Scopolamine
-
Robinol
Questão 18
Questão
What is the dose for atropine?
Responda
-
0.3 to 0.6 mg
-
1 to 6 mg
-
0.3 to 0.6 mcg
-
1 to 6 mcg
Questão 19
Questão
The therapeutic dose for Robinol is [blank_start]0.1[blank_end] mg IV.
Questão 20
Questão
Anticholinergics don't have selective action to receptors. They can cause a blockade of [blank_start]muscarinic[blank_end] receptors in the CNS. As a result, you need to administer an anticholinergic along with a medication like [blank_start]neostigmine[blank_end].
Questão 21
Questão
What conditions should NOT give you pause in administering an anticholinergic?
Responda
-
CAD
-
Mitral/Aortic stenosis
-
Atrial fibrillation
-
Bradycardia
Questão 22
Questão
[blank_start]Proton pump inhibitors[blank_end] suppress acid secretion in response to all primary stimulants: histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine.
Questão 23
Questão
The three medications in the triple-threat aspiration prophylaxis are: [blank_start]Bicitra[blank_end], [blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end], and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end].
Questão 24
Questão
What is the dose for Bicitra?
Responda
-
15 to 30 ml
-
10 to 20 ml
-
1 to 3 ml
-
5 to 15 ml
Questão 25
Questão
What is the dose for Tagamet?
Responda
-
200 to 300 mg
-
100 to 150 mg
-
25 to 100 mg
-
250 to 350 mg
Questão 26
Questão
What is the dose for Zantac IV?
Questão 27
Questão
What is the dose for Pepcid?
Responda
-
200 to 300 mg
-
150 mg
-
20 to 40 mg
Questão 28
Questão
An [blank_start]H2 antagonist[blank_end] counters the ability of histamine to induce secretion of gastric fluid with a high concentration of H* ions.
Questão 29
Questão
Which of the following is not a proton pump inhibitor?
Responda
-
Prilosec
-
Protonix
-
Nexium
-
Prevacid
-
Pepcid
Questão 30
Questão
[blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end] is the most common H2 antagonist. The typical dose is [blank_start]20[blank_end] to [blank_start]40[blank_end] mg PO.
Questão 31
Questão
[blank_start]Prokinetics[blank_end] are responsible for a decrease in gastric fluid volume.
Questão 32
Questão
What is the dose for Raglan?
Responda
-
5 mg IV
-
10 mg IV
-
15 mg IV
-
20 mg IV
Questão 33
Questão
[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end] can work against each other as one can relax the LES and the other can increase LES.
Questão 34
Questão
Prokinetics like Reglan alter gastric pH.
Questão 35
Questão
What is an example of an alpha 2 agonist?
Responda
-
Clonidine
-
Atropine
-
Decadron
-
Haldol
Questão 36
Questão
What is the dose for Clonidine?
Responda
-
0.1 to 0.3 mg
-
1 to 2 mg
-
20 to 40 mg
-
0.1 to 1 mg
Questão 37
Questão
Which of the following isn't an effect of clonidine?
Questão 38
Questão
[blank_start]Antihistamines[blank_end] are recommended for pre-medication in patients undergoing high-risk procedures, like radiography dye studies.
Questão 39
Questão
What is NOT an example of a case when you would administer a GI prophylaxis for N/V?
Questão 40
Questão
Which of the following is not an induction agent?
Responda
-
Succinylcholine
-
Propofol
-
Etomidate
-
Brevital
Questão 41
Questão
The [blank_start]reticular activating system[blank_end] is a polysynaptic pathway that travels from the brainstem to the cerebral cortex that is intimately concerned with the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.
Questão 42
Questão
It's likely most of the anesthetic agents exert depressant effects on the RAS.
Questão 43
Questão
What is the induction dose of thiopental?
Responda
-
1 to 5 mg/kg
-
3 to 6 mg/kg
-
5 to 10 mg/kg
-
10 to 15 mg/kg
Questão 44
Questão
What should you reconstitute thiopental with?
Responda
-
Isotonic sodium chloride
-
Lactated ringer's
-
Acidic solution
-
Vecuronium
Questão 45
Questão
Accidental intra-arterial injection is a serious concern for [blank_start]thiopental[blank_end].
Questão 46
Questão
[blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] works through the facilitation of inhibitory neurotransmission mediated by GABA receptor.
Questão 47
Questão
The induction dose for Propofol is:
Responda
-
1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
-
100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
-
25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
Questão 48
Questão
The maintenance infusion for general anesthesia for Propofol is:
Responda
-
1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
-
100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
-
25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
Questão 49
Questão
The maintenance infusion for sedation for Propofol is:
Responda
-
1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
-
100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
-
25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
Questão 50
Questão
A person with an egg allergy can't receive Propofol.
Questão 51
Questão
[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] works by binding to a subunit of the GABA type A receptor. This increases its affinity for GABA, which causes depression of the RAS.
Questão 52
Questão
What is the induction dosage for Etomidate?
Responda
-
0.2 to 0.3 mg/kg
-
1 to 3 mg/kg
-
20 to 40 mg/kg
-
0.1 to 0.5 mg/kg
Questão 53
Questão
Etomidate has minimal effects on the CV system.
Questão 54
Questão
Both [blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] and [blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] cause pain on injection. You can mix them with lidocaine.
Questão 55
Questão
[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] can cause myoclonus.
Questão 56
Questão
The induction dose for Brevital is:
Responda
-
1 - 3 mg/kg
-
2 - 4 mg/kg
-
5 to 10 mg/kg
-
10 to 15 mg/kg
Questão 57
Questão
Brevital is cleared by the liver at a [blank_start]faster[blank_end] rate than thiopental.
Questão 58
Questão
Sux increases the following:
1. [blank_start]Intraocular[blank_end] pressure
2. [blank_start]Intragastric[blank_end] pressure
3. [blank_start]Intracranial[blank_end] pressure
4. [blank_start]Serum potassium levels[blank_end]
Responda
-
Intraocular
-
Intragastric
-
Intracranial
-
Serum potassium levels
Questão 59
Questão
The dosage for succinylcholine is:
Responda
-
0.5 - 2 mg/kg
-
1 - 1.5 mg/kg
-
2 - 2.5 mg/kg
-
3 - 5 mg/kg
Questão 60
Questão
Succinylcholine is a [blank_start]depolarizing[blank_end] agent.
Questão 61
Questão
Name the four M's of succinylcholine:
1. [blank_start]Malignant hyperthermia[blank_end]
2. [blank_start]Myalgias[blank_end]
3. [blank_start]Myocardium[blank_end]
4. [blank_start]Myopathies[blank_end]
Responda
-
Malignant hyperthermia
-
Myalgias
-
Myocardium
-
Myopathies
Questão 62
Questão
Medications like vecuronium, rocuronium, pancuronium, and cistracurium are [blank_start]nondepolarizing[blank_end] blocking drugs.
Questão 63
Questão
What is the incubation dose for vecuronium?
Responda
-
0.08 to 0.1 mg/kg
-
1 to 8 mg/kg
-
5 to 15 mg/kg
Questão 64
Questão
How long does an intubating dose of vecuronium last?
Responda
-
5 minutes
-
10 minutes
-
20 minutes
-
one hour
Questão 65
Questão
What type of patient wouldn't be a good candidate for vecuronium?
Responda
-
Cardiac dysfunction
-
Liver/Kidney dysfunction
-
Diabetes
-
Lung disease
Questão 66
Questão
What is the intubation dose for Rocuronium?
Responda
-
0.1 mg/kg
-
1 mg/kg
-
2 mg/kg
-
5 mg/kg
Questão 67
Questão
Rocuronium has a longer duration of intubating dose than vecuronium.
Questão 68
Questão
Intubating dose for Atracurium is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.5[blank_end] mg/kg.
Questão 69
Questão
The intubation dose for Cisatracurium (Nimbex) is:
Responda
-
0.2 mg/kg
-
1 mg/kg
-
5 mg/kg
-
10 mg/kg
Questão 70
Questão
Cisatracurium is less potent than atracurium.
Questão 71
Questão
Which two neuromuscular agents are those that are eliminated via Hoffman elimination:
Responda
-
Atracurium and Cisatracurium
-
Vecuronium and Rocuronium
-
Atracurium and Rocuronium
-
Cisatracurium and Rocuronium
Questão 72
Questão
Which of the following is NOT an action of inhaled anesthetics?
Responda
-
Immobility
-
Amnesia
-
CNS Depression
-
Analgesia
-
Muscle relaxation
Questão 73
Questão
MAC stands for [blank_start]minimum alveolar concentration[blank_end].
Questão 74
Questão
The MAC of nitrous oxide is [blank_start]105[blank_end] percent.
Questão 75
Questão
Nitrous oxide shouldn't be avoided in patients with the following:
Responda
-
At-risk for nausea and vomiting
-
In pregnancy
-
With suspected bowel blockage
-
At-risk for diffusion into air-containing cavities
Questão 76
Questão
Nitrous oxide is more soluble than nitrogen in the blood.
Questão 77
Questão
The MAC of isoflurane (Forane) is [blank_start]1.2[blank_end] percent.
Questão 78
Questão
Non depolarizing NMBAs are potentiated by [blank_start]isoflurane[blank_end].
Questão 79
Questão
The MAC of desflurane is [blank_start]6[blank_end] percent.
Questão 80
Questão
The only difference between isoflurane and desflurane is the substitution of a [blank_start]fluorine[blank_end] atom for isoflurane's [blank_start]chlorine[blank_end] atom.
Questão 81
Questão
Which anesthetic gas requires a special, electrically heated vaporizer?
Responda
-
Desflurane
-
Isoflurane
-
Sevoflurane
-
Nitrous oxide
Questão 82
Questão
Wakeup times for [blank_start]desflurane[blank_end] are 50 percent less than those observed following isoflurane.
Questão 83
Questão
The MAC of sevoflurane is [blank_start]2[blank_end] percent.
Questão 84
Questão
[blank_start]Sevoflurane[blank_end] is an excellent induction agent for pediatric patients because it is non-pungent.
Questão 85
Questão
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of sevoflurane?
Responda
-
Production of compound A
-
Shouldn't be used in longer cases
-
Higher fresh gas flows of at least 2 liters
-
Is degraded by desiccated CO2 absorbent into potentially clinically significant levels of carbon monoxide
Questão 86
Questão
[blank_start]Non depolarizing[blank_end] muscle relaxants act by competing with ACh for nicotinic cholinergic receptors for binding sites, which results in a blockade of neuromuscular transmission.
Responda
-
Non depolarizing
-
Depolarizing
Questão 87
Questão
Neostigmine is an [blank_start]anticholinesterase[blank_end]. It works by inhibiting the amount of acetylcholine available to compete with nondepolarizing agents.
Questão 88
Questão
The dosage for neostigmine is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.8[blank_end] mg/kg.
Questão 89
Questão
Neostigmine's duration is [blank_start]one hour[blank_end], give or take.
Questão 90
Questão
Sugammadex (Bridion) is FDA-approved to reverse [blank_start]rocuronium[blank_end] and [blank_start]vecuronium[blank_end].