Copy and Edit

Micro

Description

Microbiology 240 Quiz on Micro, created by Katie L on 27/11/2017.
Katie L
Quiz by Katie L, updated more than 1 year ago
Katie L
Created by Katie L almost 7 years ago
18
1
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What is used for Oxacillin Screens?
Answer
  • MH + oxacillin
  • MH + 4% NaCl + oxacillin
  • MH with Sheep blood + 4% NaCl + oxacillin
  • MH with sheep blood + Oxacillin

Question 2

Question
What is used in a vancomycin screen?
Answer
  • BHI + vanc
  • BHI + vanc + 4% NaCl
  • MH + vanc + 4% NaCl
  • MH + vanc

Question 3

Question
If the MIC is 0.08ug/mL for a staphylococcus aureus organism, how should we report this?
Answer
  • report as resistant
  • report as susceptible
  • it is not relevant
  • confirm susceptibility with penicillin zone edge test

Question 4

Question
Which of these are associated with infection control significant VRE organisms?
Answer
  • vanC gene
  • vanA and VanB gene
  • yellow pigment of colonies
  • motility observed on wet prep

Question 5

Question
what should you expect to see on an MRSA select II agar?
Answer
  • magenta colonies
  • no growth
  • blue colonies
  • growth if it is MRSA
  • growth if it is MSSA

Question 6

Question
What additional testing should you do if you see growth on MRSA select II agar?
Answer
  • staphaurex
  • tube coagulase
  • PBP2' agglutination
  • oxacillin screen
  • vancomycin screen
  • oxidase

Question 7

Question
What are the next steps for growth on a brilliance VRE?
Answer
  • gram stain and catalase
  • gram stain
  • gram stain and oxidase

Question 8

Question
what do you expect to see with an VRE organism?
Answer
  • gram positive cocci in chains and pairs
  • catalase negative
  • PYR positive
  • DNase positive

Question 9

Question
What are the next steps after PYR is performed on a VRE suspect?
Answer
  • vitek GPI
  • vitek AST
  • vancomycin screen
  • oxacillin screen
  • penicillin screen

Question 10

Question
What will grow on a BEAA plate?
Answer
  • staphylococcus species
  • enterobacteriacaea species
  • haemophilus species
  • enterococcus species

Question 11

Question
A [blank_start]positive[blank_end] penicillin zone edge test will give a [blank_start]cliff[blank_end] edge.
Answer
  • positive
  • cliff

Question 12

Question
Penicillin zone edge test is more sensitive for [blank_start]beta lactamase[blank_end] detection.
Answer
  • beta lactamase

Question 13

Question
A negative penicillin zone edge test will have a beach edge.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
when do we call ICP (infection control practitioner)?
Answer
  • isolated a super bug i.e. MRSA
  • isolated GC
  • isolated S.pneumoniae

Question 15

Question
Methicillin [blank_start]resistant[blank_end] Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) isolated. Please follow [blank_start]infection control[blank_end] procedures. Further report to follow.
Answer
  • resistant
  • infection control

Question 16

Question
How do we differentiate between a class A ESBL and a class C ESBL?
Answer
  • Phenotypic confirmatory testing
  • PYR
  • Staphaurex
  • Bile Esculin hydrolysis

Question 17

Question
Class A ESBL organisms are inhibited by?
Answer
  • beta-lactamase inhibitors
  • clavulanic acid
  • penicillins
  • clindamycin

Question 18

Question
What classifies a class A ESBL?
Answer
  • potentiation when combined with clavulanic acid
  • susceptible to cefoxitin
  • resistance to cefoxitin
  • zone of >15mm on cefoxitin

Question 19

Question
class C ESBLs are resistant to 3rd generation cephalosporins, clavulanic acid and cephamycins such as cefoxitin.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 20

Question
SPICE group are intrinsically resistant to ampicillin, cephalosporins and cefoxitin.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 21

Question
What antibiotics are used in PCT?
Answer
  • cefotaxime
  • cefotaxime + clavulanic acid
  • ceftazidime
  • ceftazidime + clavulanic acid
  • cefoxitin
  • vancomycin + clavulanic acid
  • ampicillin + clavulanic acid
  • ampicillin
  • vancomycin

Question 22

Question
Escherichia coli class [blank_start]A[blank_end] ESBL. Please follow [blank_start]infection control[blank_end] procedures.
Answer
  • infection control
  • A

Question 23

Question
SPICE organisms are;
Answer
  • Serratia spp.
  • pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • indole positive proteus (morganella and providencia spp.)
  • citrobacter spp.
  • enterobacter spp.

Question 24

Question
Which antibiotics are reported as resistant with a class A ESBL?
Answer
  • all beta-lactam drugs
  • carbapenems
  • cephamycin
  • beta-lactam inhibitor combinations

Question 25

Question
Which antibiotics are not reported as resistant for a class A ESBL?
Answer
  • carbapenems
  • cephamycins
  • penicillin
  • oxacillin

Question 26

Question
Bacterial meningitis in neonates can be caused by
Answer
  • Group B streptococcus
  • E.coli
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • Neisseria meningitidis

Question 27

Question
Bacterial meningitis in infants 6 months to 5 years old can be caused by?
Answer
  • Haemophilus influenza type b
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • E.coli

Question 28

Question
Bacterial meningitis in older children and adults can be caused by?
Answer
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Listeria monocytogenes
  • Group B Streptococcus

Question 29

Question
What is normal skin flora?
Answer
  • Bacillus spp
  • Corynebacterium spp. diphtheroids, urea negative
  • coagulase negative Staphylococcus species except for S. lugdunensis
  • Proprionibacterium spp
  • Alpha hemolytic streptococcus
  • Nonpathogenic Neisseria spp
  • Bacteroides spp
  • Enterobacteriaceae spp

Question 30

Question
For an aerotolerance test, what disks do you use for a GPC?
Answer
  • bile
  • SPS

Question 31

Question
For an aerotolerance test, what disks would you use for a GNB?
Answer
  • bile
  • SPS

Question 32

Question
You must report AST for superficial ear and eye isolates.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 33

Question
When do you use a NYC plate?
Answer
  • When GC is requested by doctor
  • When GC is seen on the direct gram stain on day 1
  • When the patient is under 2 weeks old
  • When GPDC is seen on the direct gram stain on day 1

Question 34

Question
Bodily fluids such as CSF or tympanocentesis fluid will contain some normal flora.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 35

Question
What organism is this? oxidase+, nitrate reduced to nitrite, GNDC, strict aerobic, on BA-sm, grey, NH, dry
Answer
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
  • Neisseria meningitis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 36

Question
What organism is this? sm GNB, facultative anaerobe, oxidase-, on BA - ppt, grey, and NH, need V factor
Answer
  • Haemophilus parainfluenza
  • Haemophilus influenzae

Question 37

Question
What organism is this? sm GNB, facultative anaerobe, oxidase+, on BA - ppt, grey, and NH, need X and V factor
Answer
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Haemophilus parainfluenzae

Question 38

Question
What organism is this? strict anaerobe, large GPB, double zone hemolysis, reverse camp+, catalase-
Answer
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • Clostridium spp
  • Bacillus spp

Question 39

Question
what organism is this? large GPB, large tan colonies, BH, motile at RT and 35 degrees
Answer
  • Bacillus spp
  • Clostridium perfringens
  • corynebacterium spp

Question 40

Question
What organism is this? sm GNB, on BA-med grey NH, catalase+, strict anaerobe
Answer
  • Bacteriodes spp
  • Enterobacteriacaea spp
  • Listeria monocytogenes

Question 41

Question
What organism is this? facultative, sm GPB, urea negative, on BA-sm white NH
Answer
  • Corynebacterium diphtheroid
  • Corynebacterium ulcerans
  • Listeria monocytogenes

Question 42

Question
What causes the Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease?
Answer
  • Enterovirus
  • Hentavirus
  • Parvovirus
  • Rubivirus

Question 43

Question
What is the role of micro RNA?
Answer
  • keeps latent virus-infected cells alive
  • it is a part of prions
  • RNA codes for micro proteins

Question 44

Question
A 55-year old make just returned from a trip from Saudi Arabia. He was rushed to the ER with symptoms of acute respiratory illness. His condition rapidly progressed to pneumonitis and multi-organ failure. This patient has:
Answer
  • Tularemia
  • Cat Scratch disease
  • Rat bite fever
  • MERS
  • Rocky Mountain spotted fever

Question 45

Question
What animals have been found to be carriers of MERS?
Answer
  • Bat
  • Rabbit
  • Camel
  • All of the above
  • Camel and Bats

Question 46

Question
Which of these viruses causes MERS?
Answer
  • Hantavirus
  • Coronavirus
  • Lentivirus
  • Enterovirus

Question 47

Question
What is the gold standard for laboratory diagnosis of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Answer
  • Culture
  • Clinical presentation
  • Immunofluorescence
  • PCR

Question 48

Question
A 22-year old female was hiking in the Rocky Mountains. A few days later she had a headache, fever and flat pink macules on her trunk and ankles. The lab found Rickettsii rickettsia. What is the vector of this infection?
Answer
  • Mosquito
  • Tick
  • Black fly
  • Rat

Question 49

Question
What is the Gram stain and motility of the Rickettsii rickettsia infection?
Answer
  • GPB, motile
  • GPB, non-motile
  • GNB, motile
  • GNB, non-motile

Question 50

Question
What is the atmospheric preference of Brucella?
Answer
  • facultative anaerobe
  • strict anaerobe
  • strict aerobe
  • capnophile
  • strict aerobe and capnophile

Question 51

Question
Which of the following is NOT ta type of Brucella species?
Answer
  • Brucella suis
  • Brucella canis
  • Brucella abortus
  • Brucella melitensis
  • Brucella tigris

Question 52

Question
What clinical manifestation of Brucellosis?
Answer
  • arthritis
  • valve endocarditis
  • malta fever
  • Bieber fever
  • arthritis and malta fever

Question 53

Question
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for leptospirosis?
Answer
  • microscopic agglutination test (MAT)
  • MALDI
  • Latex agglutination
  • PCR

Question 54

Question
What does leptospirosis look like under dark-field microscopy?
Answer
  • tumbling motility
  • long bacilli
  • question mark/interrogation points
  • branching bacilli

Question 55

Question
A patient presents with meningoencephalitis with multi system involvement (jaundice, kidney failure). Chemistry results reveal elevated kidney and liver enzymes. Culturing the organism proved to be difficult. What bacterial disease is suspected?
Answer
  • Brucellosis
  • Leptospirosis
  • MERS
  • Plague

Question 56

Question
Which organism causes the plague?
Answer
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Leptospira interrogans
  • Yersinia pestis
  • Bartonella henselae

Question 57

Question
What is the main reservoir for the organism responsible for the plague?
Answer
  • birds
  • deer ticks
  • fleas of rats
  • cats

Question 58

Question
Which of the following correctly describes the Gram stain of the organism responsible for the plague?
Answer
  • GNB with 'safety pin' appearance
  • GPC pairs
  • Filamentous GPB
  • large GPB with subterminal spores

Question 59

Question
What organism causes Rat Bite Fever?
Answer
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Capnocytophaga canimorsus
  • Streptobacillus moniliformis
  • Pasteurella multocida

Question 60

Question
What is the virulence factor of Streptobacillus moniliformis?
Answer
  • inhibits phagocytosis
  • convert to D form allowing it to survive in the host
  • convert to L form allowing it to survive in the host
  • secretes pyogenic toxin
  • none of the above

Question 61

Question
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Streptocbacillus moniformis?
Answer
  • molar tooth
  • fried egg
  • dry, hockey puck
  • medusa head
  • no distinct characteristic

Question 62

Question
Laboratory diagnosis of hantavirus includes the following techniques except?
Answer
  • IgM antibody detection
  • PCR
  • Viral culture
  • Rising IgG antibody titre
  • Immunohistochemistry

Question 63

Question
Which zoonotic microorganism is associated with potentially fatal pulmonary symptoms which have been described as a sensation of ‘tight band around chest’ or ‘pillow over the face’?
Answer
  • Zika virus
  • Francisella tularensis
  • Bartonella henselae
  • Hantavirus

Question 64

Question
What is the primary strategy for preventing hantavirus infection?
Answer
  • Usage of insect repellent
  • Avoidance of contact with feral cats
  • Improved water quality and sanitation
  • Avoidance of pigeon droppings
  • Rodent control in and around the home

Question 65

Question
Which of the following causes microcephaly in infants?
Answer
  • Zika Virus
  • Cytomegalovirus
  • Rubella
  • All of the above
  • None of the above

Question 66

Question
Which of the following is not a mode of transmission for Zika virus?
Answer
  • Mosquito bite
  • Airborne
  • Sexual contact
  • Infected mother to child
  • Blood transfusion

Question 67

Question
What condition can be associated with Zika virus?
Answer
  • Malaria
  • West Nile Fever
  • Yellow Fever
  • Guillain-Barre Syndrome
  • Chikungunya

Question 68

Question
Bartonella henselae is the specific cause of:
Answer
  • Rat bite fever
  • Beaver fever
  • Cat Scratch Disease
  • Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
  • Zika

Question 69

Question
A patient presents lack of appetite, wounds with lesions and has a history of working at an animal shelter. Biopsy of the lesion shows GNB but no growth or cultures was seen after 24 hours. What is the best reason for this?
Answer
  • Organism is an anaerobe
  • Organism is a slow grower
  • Organism requires special media
  • Organism is a capnophile

Question 70

Question
What is not a symptom of Cat Scratch Disease?
Answer
  • Papule or Pustule at bite on scratch site
  • Lymphadenpathy
  • Anorexia for 1-3 weeks
  • Tissue necrosis at wound area

Question 71

Question
Which form of oropharyngeal tularemia causes photophobia?
Answer
  • Pneumonic form
  • Oculoglandular form
  • Systemic typhoidal form
  • Exudative form

Question 72

Question
A patient at a clinic showed fevers, chills and headache. A swab of the lesions was sent for culture and sensitivity. After questioning, it was determined the patient was an avid rabbit hunter. The Gram showed GNB organism intracellularly in reticuloendothelial cells. It grew only aerobically and grew on special media containing iron and cysteine. What probable disease could have caused the infection?
Answer
  • Cat Scratch Disease
  • Tularemia
  • Zika virus
  • Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

Question 73

Question
What organism causes Tularemia?
Answer
  • Neisseria species
  • Legionella
  • Francisella
  • Salmonella

Question 74

Question
Scabies
Answer
  • itching
  • rash
  • Sarcoptes scabiei

Question 75

Question
Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
Answer
  • self limiting
  • sandfly

Question 76

Question
Herpes
Answer
  • latent, lifelong infection
  • neuronal ganglia
  • Type 1 - cold sores
  • Type 2 - sexually transmitted infections

Question 77

Question
Varicella zoster
Answer
  • chicken pox
  • shingles
  • highly contagious, rash, red spots

Question 78

Question
Fifth Disease
Answer
  • Parvovirus B19
  • slapped cheek

Question 79

Question
Actinomyces
Answer
  • sulphur granules
  • anaerobe
  • acid fast negative
  • chronic, granulomatous infectious disease

Question 80

Question
Nocardia
Answer
  • ubiquitous in nature
  • aerobic
  • acid fast negative
  • GPB, branching
  • modified acid fast positive
  • BA- white, chalky, dry, smooth

Question 81

Question
Madura Foot
Answer
  • Nocardia and S.aureus
  • Madurella mycetomi, Actinomadura, others
  • outdoor labourers
  • no person to person transmission
  • All of them

Question 82

Question
Tinea versicolor
Answer
  • Malassezia furfur
  • superficial skin infection
  • lipid loving fungus
  • spaghetti and meatballs under the microscope
  • All of the above

Question 83

Question
Bacillus anthracis
Answer
  • dormant spore form can survive for long periods of time and in harsh conditions
  • highly lethal
  • transmitted by inhalation, ingesting and contact with skin lesions
  • glutamic acid capsule - evades phagocytosis
  • lethal factor + edema factor + protective factor = becomes active
  • eschar - black ulcerative skin lesion
  • GPB with subterminal spores, aerobic, non-motile, NH, Cat+

Question 84

Question
Mycobacteria
Answer
  • thin bacilli, non-motile, aerobe
  • N-glucolymuramic acid and mycolic acids in cell wall
  • acid fast positive
  • All of the above

Question 85

Question
Mycobacterium leprae
Answer
  • mainly affects skin and nerves
  • claw hand and drop foot
  • Tuberculoid and Lepromatous form
  • not highly contagious
  • all of the above

Question 86

Question
what is rhabdomyolysis?
Answer
  • breakdown of skeletal muscle
  • overproduction of collagen
  • inflammation or swelling of muscles

Question 87

Question
how are diabetic patients affected in muscle disorders?
Answer
  • vascular insufficiency
  • poor blood supply
  • antibiotic ineffectiveness
  • insulin deficiency
  • increased in glucose makes them more prone

Question 88

Question
Osteomyelitis:
Answer
  • pyogenic organisms
  • occurs rapidly in children
  • occurs rapidly in adults
  • S.aureus is the most common cause
  • in children under 2, spreads into the diaphysis

Question 89

Question
Capnocytophaga canimorsus:
Answer
  • GNB
  • zoonotic
  • treat with cephalosporins
  • common in asplenic patients
  • all except for 'treat with cephalosporin'

Question 90

Question
Pasteurella multocida:
Answer
  • dog bites
  • can cause osteomyelitis or endocarditis
  • GPB
  • spot indole +

Question 91

Question
septic arthritis:
Answer
  • inflammation of synovial membrane
  • damage to cartilage
  • examining the joint fluid is diagnostic
  • this is not real
  • mild and preventable

Question 92

Question
what can cause septic arthritis?
Answer
  • S.aureus
  • Peptostreptococcus
  • Brucella
  • Mycobacteria

Question 93

Question
Reactive arthritis:
Answer
  • non-infectious inflammatory joint disease
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • GAS
  • GBS

Question 94

Question
what do we make note of when inspecting synovial fluid?
Answer
  • volume
  • color
  • odor
  • turbidity
  • protein content
  • glucose content
  • WBC

Question 95

Question
Osteoarthritis:
Answer
  • the most common form of arthritis
  • thinning of cartilage
  • synovial hypertrophy
  • in both male and females
  • all of the options

Question 96

Question
Artificial arthritis:
Answer
  • biofilm formation
  • difficult to treat
  • normal skin flora is agent
  • cannot treat, will result in amputation

Question 97

Question
what can cause bacterial conjunctivitis?
Answer
  • Neisseria spp
  • S. pneumoniae
  • S. aureus
  • Candida spp
  • anaerobes

Question 98

Question
cause of viral conjunctivitis?
Answer
  • herpes simplex type 1 and 2
  • adenovirus
  • HIV
  • hentavirus
Show full summary Hide full summary

Want to create your own Quizzes for free with GoConqr? Learn more.

Similar

Micro Final Practice (Exam 3 Questions)
tran.melissa2015
Nutrients
Katherine Fink
practical micro
atbaa 2020
Monopoly
Harry Rock4590
Behavioural Economics
Tara Pugal
How markets work defenitions
Jesse McNab
Transition Block - Microbiology
Matthew Coulson
microprocesadores
karito rojas
MIKROÖKONOMIE
Olivier DV
Micro Quiz
jrabinovich
Microeconomics Quiz
mateogalvis97
Browse Library