Question 1
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Neuropathic pain is abnormal signal processes in the CNS and can be peripheral and [blank_start]central[blank_end]
Question 2
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Examples of peripheral neuropathic pain include (select all that apply):
Question 3
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A example of central neuropathic pain is fibromyalgia.
Question 4
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Opioid therapy is not a [blank_start]1st[blank_end] line treatment for neuropathic pain.
Question 5
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An example of nociceptive pain is tissue [blank_start]damage[blank_end].
Question 6
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There are two types of nociceptive pain, [blank_start]somatic[blank_end] which includes muscle, skin and bones and [blank_start]visceral[blank_end] which includes organs.
Question 7
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Acute pain is defined as (select all that apply):
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Sudden, usually an identifiable cause, less than 3 months in duration
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Usually a response to injury
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Usually nociceptive in nature
Question 8
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Chronic pain (select all that apply):
Question 9
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T or F. The WHO analgesic ladder recommends non-opioids in the treatment of mild pain.
Question 10
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The WHO analgesic ladder recommends the use of opioids along with non-opioid and adjuvant treatments in treating [blank_start]mild[blank_end] to [blank_start]moderate[blank_end] pain.
Question 11
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The 1st line treatment for mild to [blank_start]moderate[blank_end] pain is Acetaminophen and NSAIDS.
Question 12
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T or F. Use the max dose of acetiminophen or NSAIDS before proceeding to analgesics.
Question 13
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T or F. Acetaminophen generally has a favorable side effect profile.
Question 14
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Two considerations in using NSAIDS are patients with a history of CV disease and [blank_start]GI[blank_end] bleeding.
Question 15
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Acetaminophen is best for patients with non-inflammatory [blank_start]pain[blank_end] like Osteoarthritis and chronic low back pain.
Question 16
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T or F. Acetaminophen does not alter platelet functioning.
Question 17
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Acetaminophen is known to be hepatoxic and can impact [blank_start]liver[blank_end] function.
Question 18
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There is caution in using acetaminophen in patients with a history of ETOH abuse and hepatic dysfunction.
Question 19
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Acetaminophen interacts with warfarin/coumadin and prolongs [blank_start]INR[blank_end].
Question 20
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Acetaminophen is the drug of choice as an analgesic and antypyretic in (select all that apply):
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Pregnant women
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Lactating women
Question 21
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NSAIDS have [blank_start]anti-inflammatory[blank_end] and analgesic properties.
Question 22
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Prescription examples of NSAIDS like Naprosyn has a more [blank_start]rapid[blank_end] onset and Meloxicam has a [blank_start]longer[blank_end] duration of action.
Question 23
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T or F. NSAIDS are effective treatment for acute and chronic pain and inflammatory conditions.
Question 24
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GI concerns with the [blank_start]use[blank_end] of NSAIDS includes dyspepsia, ulceration and bleeding.
Question 25
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T or F. Selective COX 2 inhibitors have less GI Risk.
Question 26
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Safety concerns and considerations with NSAID with CV disease or thrombotic events include (select all that apply):
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Nonselective NSAIDs reversibly inhibit platelet function.
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NSAIDS interfere with the cardioprotective effect of aspirin
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Naproxen may have less CV toxicity than comparable doses of other NSAIDS.
Question 27
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In patients with or at risk for CV disease, NSAIDS should be [blank_start]avoided[blank_end], or, if benefits outweigh risks, use at the [blank_start]lowest[blank_end] effective dose, for the [blank_start]shortest[blank_end] duration necessary.
Question 28
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T or F. NSAIDS should be avoided in older adults and in pregnancy.
Question 29
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NSAIDS monitoring should include (select all that apply):
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Renal function
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Edema
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Blood pressure
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Hgb and Hct
Question 30
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In some psych patients, NSAIDS may [blank_start]increase[blank_end] lithium levels.
Question 31
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NSAIDS should also be avoided in patients with a history of (select all that apply):
Question 32
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T or F. NSAIDS may cause or worsen renal impairment.
Question 33
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Indomethacin (Indocin) is an NSAID that is used in the treatment of acute [blank_start]gout[blank_end] and specific types of headaches.
Question 34
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T or F. The MOA for Indomethacin is a potent inhibitory effect on renal prostaglandin synthesis.
Question 35
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Indomethacin has more frequent [blank_start]CNS[blank_end] side effects and has a higher risk of renal and CV toxicities.
Question 36
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T or F. Sulindac (Clinoril) is an NSAID which cause more frequent hepatic inflammation, can contribute to the formation of renal calculi and the prescribing of this drug should be limited to specialists.
Question 37
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Ketorolac is used for moderate pain, comes in tablets or injection and carries a BBW for short term use, less than [blank_start]five[blank_end] days in adults.
Question 38
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Contraindications and cautions in the use of Ketorolac include (select all that apply):
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GI
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CV
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Renal
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Bleeding
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Labor and Delivery
Question 39
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T or F. Oral Ketorolac is not indicated in pediatrics.
Question 40
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Topical NSAIDS have a [blank_start]lower[blank_end] risk for systemic effects.
Question 41
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T or F. Diclofenac (Voltaren) gel is helpful in the relief of OA pain.
Question 42
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Flector, an NSAID patch is helpful in [blank_start]acute[blank_end] pain due to minor strains, sprains and contusions.
Question 43
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The MOA of topical lidocaine for pain is blocking the initiation and conduction of [blank_start]nerve[blank_end] impulses.
Question 44
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T or F. Topical lidocaine is best for neuropathic, local and OA pain.
Question 45
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Adverse effects of topical lidocaine include local [blank_start]skin[blank_end] irritation.
Question 46
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T or F. There is a low risk for systemic side effects if topical lidocaine is used properly.
Question 47
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The following is true of steroid therapy for pain (select all that apply):
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Has anti-inflammatory properties
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Evidence shows little to no benefit
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Are not generally 1st line
-
Can be considered short term if refractory to NSAIDS.
Question 48
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A taper is required if steroids like Prednisone or Medrol dose pack are used for more than [blank_start]two[blank_end] weeks.
Question 49
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T or F. Cortisone can be given as an IM injection and has a short-acting duration of 2-3 days.
Question 50
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Triamcinolone(Kenalog) [blank_start]and[blank_end] Methylprednisolone (Depo-Medrol) have an intermediate potency and duration.
Question 51
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Dexamethasone/Decadron has a [blank_start]high[blank_end] potency and long-acting duration up to about [blank_start]ten[blank_end] days.
Question 52
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T or F. Steroid injections in joints for pain, must be done by a trained provider.
Question 53
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Major side effects associated with the use of systemic glucocorticoids is often [blank_start]dose[blank_end] -dependent and more likely to occur with [blank_start]long[blank_end]-term use.
Question 54
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Systemic glucocorticoids can cause elevated [blank_start]blood[blank_end] pressure, mood disorders, psychosis, insomnia, and impact blood sugar by causing hyerglycemia.
Question 55
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Additional major side effects associated with the use of systemic glucocorticoids includes (select all that apply):
Question 56
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Muscle relaxants used for pain are to be used short-term for less than [blank_start]two[blank_end] weeks, and should be avoided in patients older than [blank_start]65[blank_end] years.
Question 57
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The main adverse effect of muscle relaxants for pain is [blank_start]sedation[blank_end].
Question 58
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T or F. Antispasmodic skeletal muscle relaxants are indicated in the treatment of acute cervical or lumbar pain.
Question 59
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Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) is not [blank_start]controlled[blank_end] and can be dosed up to [blank_start]three[blank_end] times a day if needed.
Question 60
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T or F. Tizanidine (Zanaflex) is an Alpha 2 adrenergic agonist.
Question 61
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Carisoprodol (Soma) is a [blank_start]controlled[blank_end] substance that can cause respiratory [blank_start]depression[blank_end] and physical and psycholgic [blank_start]dependence[blank_end].
Answer
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controlled
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dependence
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depression
Question 62
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Treatment options for chronic pain include (select all that apply):
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Pharmacologic
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Physical medicine like PT and massage
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Behavioral medicine (CBT and biofeedback)
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Neuromodulation (TENS and spinal cord stimulation)
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Interventional (Percutaneous injections of glucocorticoid and/or local anesthetic
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Surgery (spinal fusion for example)
Question 63
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Treatment of chronic pain should be a multidisciplinary effort, using multiple approaches and collaborative care models to improve pain management and patient [blank_start]outcomes[blank_end].
Question 64
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[blank_start]Medication[blank_end] should not be the sole focus of treatment, but should be used when according to evidence-ased recommendations to meet treatment goals and in conjunction with other treatment modalities.
Question 65
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T or F. Adjuvants for chronic pain include anticonvulsants and antidepressants; they enhance analgesia and manage other symptoms associated with pain like depression and anxiety.
Question 66
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Gabapentin (Neurontin) and pregablin (Lyrica) have proven efficacy versus placebo in several neuropathic [blank_start]pain[blank_end] conditions.
Question 67
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Adverse effects of anticonvulsants like gabapentin and pregabalin for pain include [blank_start]dizziness[blank_end] and sedation.
Question 68
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T or F. When using anticonvulsants as an adjuvant in pain management, start it with a low dose with gradual increases until pain relief.
Question 69
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Pregabalin is controlled , reported to cause [blank_start]euphoria[blank_end] and is a Schedule [blank_start]V[blank_end].
Question 70
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T or F. There are some reports of misuse with gabapentin.
Question 71
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Venlafaxine (Effexor) and Duloxetine (Cymbalta) are [blank_start]SNRI's[blank_end] that may provide [blank_start]pain[blank_end] relief separate from their anti-depressant effect.
Question 72
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T or F. The analgesic effects of SNRI's appear to occure early and at lower doses.
Question 73
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SNRI's are helpful treating pain from [blank_start]diabetic[blank_end] neuropathy, fibromyalgia and chronic musculoskeletal pain.
Question 74
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T or F. SNRI's would have to be tapered gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms.
Question 75
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[blank_start]TCA's[blank_end] like amitriptyline (Elavil) are associated with multiple side-effects and do not carry a indication for [blank_start]pain[blank_end] management.
Question 76
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In patients with chronic kidney disease and the elderly avoid [blank_start]NSAIDS[blank_end] and COX 2 inhibitors like Celebrex.
Question 77
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T or F. Avoid NSAIDS with peptic ulcer disease and glucocorticoid use.
Question 78
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In patients with cardiovascular disease or risk, use the lowest effective dose of NSAIDS; in patients who require treatment consider [blank_start]naproxen[blank_end].
Question 79
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Opioids are indicated for moderate to [blank_start]severe[blank_end] pain, are controlled drugs and powerful analgesics.
Question 80
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T or F. When combined with acetaminophen and ibuprofen, opioids provide better pain control than if they are used alone.
Question 81
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Opioids are [blank_start]Mu[blank_end] receptor agonists.
Question 82
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Mu1 [blank_start]receptors[blank_end] correlate to supraspinal analgesia, bradycardia and sedation.
Question 83
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Mu2 [blank_start]receptors[blank_end] correlate to respiratory depression, euphoria and physical dependence
Question 84
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Delta [blank_start]receptors[blank_end] correlate to spinal analgesia and respiratory depression.
Question 85
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Kappa [blank_start]receptors[blank_end] correlate to spinal analgesia, respiratory depression and sedation.
Question 86
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Higher potency opioids like morphine, hydromorphone and fentanyl are reserved for [blank_start]severe[blank_end] pain.
Question 87
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Literature suggests opioids should only be used on a chronic basis in patients (select all that apply):
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Have persistent pain despite trials of non-opioid analgesics and other options
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Are at low risk for substance abuse
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Should be referred to a pain management specialist.
Question 88
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Tramadol (Ultram) is a centrally acting weak [blank_start]agonist[blank_end] of opioid receptors which also inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine and causes [blank_start]serotonin[blank_end] release.
Question 89
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T or F. Ultram is a Schedule IV controlled substance and has a higher risk for drug interaction due to hepatic metabolism due to CYP-450.
Question 90
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Adverse effects of tramadol (Ultram) include (select all that apply):
Question 91
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Tramadol (Ultram) should be avoided in patients with a history of [blank_start]addiction[blank_end] or substance abuse and is not FDA approved for [blank_start]pediatric[blank_end] use.
Question 92
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T or F. Tramadol (Ultram) would need to be tapered if discontinuing after prolonged use.
Question 93
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Current evidence supports the role of opioid therapy in more severe forms of [blank_start]acute[blank_end] pain and in [blank_start]cancer[blank_end] pain.
Question 94
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There is limited evidence for effectiveness of [blank_start]long[blank_end]-term opioid therapy for pain relief and improved functional outcomes.
Question 95
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T or F. Opioid administration in chronic non-cancer pain remains controversial.
Question 96
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Adverse effects of opioids include sedation and the highest risk for respiratory depression is in opioid [blank_start]naive[blank_end] patients.
Question 97
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There is a higher risk for [blank_start]respiratory[blank_end] depression in the elderly, COPD and severe asthma.
Question 98
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Additional adverse effects of opioids includes (select all that apply):
Answer
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Euphoria/Dysphoria
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Dyspepsia
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Itching due to histamine release
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Urinary retention
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Constipation
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Hyperalgesia-nociceptive sensitization (increased pain)
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Decreased libido (increase prolactin, decreased cortisol, LH, FSH, estrogen and testosterone)
Question 99
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Opioid overdose [blank_start]risk[blank_end] increases with increased dosing.
Question 100
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The most common opioids involved in overdose deaths include (select all that appy):
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Hydrocodone (Vicodin)
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Oxycodone (Oxycontin)
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Oxymorphone (Opana)
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Methadone
Question 101
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Benzodiazepines and opioids should [blank_start]not[blank_end] be co-prescribed.
Question 102
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T or F. Between 1999-2003, adults ages 25-54 had the highest overdose rates.
Question 103
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Opioid naive patients have the [blank_start]highest[blank_end] risk for overdose death in the first two weeks of treatment and are defined as patients who have not received opioids for one week or longer at doses defined by the FDA for tolerance.
Question 104
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According to the FDA, patients who are opioid-tolerant have been taking opioids for a 1 [blank_start]week[blank_end] or longer in the following doses: at least 60mg of oral morphine QD, 25 mcg of transdermal fentanyl per hour, 30 mg oral oxycodone QD, 8 mg hydromorphone QD, 25 mg of oxymorphone QD or an equianalgesic dose of another opioid.
Question 105
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Equianlagesic dosing is defined as the dose in [blank_start]steady[blank_end] state providing the same analgesic response also know as morphine equivalent dosing.
Question 106
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T or F. Morphine is the gold standard for comparison of all pain relieving meds and serves as a reference point for analgesic potency.
Question 107
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T or F. Morphine 30mg PO is equivalent to hydromorphone 7.5 mg PO.
Question 108
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There is substantial interpatient variability in relative potency of different opioid [blank_start]drugs[blank_end].
Question 109
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When changing from one opioid to another, it is preferable to consider initially underestimating requirements and provide rescue medication as needed to [blank_start]avoid[blank_end] potentially fatal overdose.
Question 110
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T or F. The elderly are more susceptible to the adverse effects of opioids and the NP should consider starting at 1/2 the typical starting dose.
Question 111
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Opioids should not be prescribed in [blank_start]pregnancy[blank_end].
Question 112
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Neonatal abstinence syndrome presents as irritability, hyperactivity, abnormal sleep patterns, high pitched [blank_start]cry[blank_end], tremor, vomiting, diarrhea and failure to gain weight.
Question 113
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T or F. Pregnant women who are dependent on opioids should be referred to a specialist who will likely place them on methadone or buprenorphine.
Question 114
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Dependence is the emergence of withdrawal symptoms when the drug is abruptly discontinued or the dose is rapidly decreased, and usually occurs after taking the drug for [blank_start]one[blank_end] month or longer.
Question 115
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T or F. Dependence is a component of addiction, but not all patients with dependence are addicts.
Question 116
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Opioid withdrawal signs and symptoms include (select all that apply)
Answer
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Diaphoresis
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HTN
-
Tachycarida
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Lacrimation
-
Shivering
-
Piloerection
-
N/V/D
-
Rhinorrhea
-
Sleeplessness
-
Restlessness
Question 117
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T or F. Additional symptoms of opioid withdrawal include tremors, dysphoria, anxiety, mood volatility, abdominal cramping, bone pains and diffuse muscle aches, as well as strong drug cravings.
Question 118
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Tolerance is defined as increasing amounts of opioid [blank_start]are[blank_end] required to produce an equivalent level of efficacy.
Question 119
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T or F. Tolerance typically does not develop in patient with cancer who are treated for pain.
Question 120
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Addiction is characterized as a psychological and behavioral syndrome, with extreme behavior patterns that are associated with procuring and consuming the [blank_start]drug[blank_end].
Question 121
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Features of opioid addiction include (select all that apply):
Question 122
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Maladaptive behavior associated with addiction include (select all that apply):
Answer
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Adverse consequences due to drug use
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Loss of control over drug use
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Preoccupation with obtaining opioids
Question 123
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Prescription drug [blank_start]misuse[blank_end] is using the prescribed drug outside of the intent for which it was prescribed and includes using to "get high". having multiple prescribers or non-prescribed sources for the medication, and concurrent use of alcohol, illicit substances or non-prescribed opioid controlled medications.
Question 124
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Risk factors associated with increased risk for opioid misuse include (select all that apply):
Answer
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Personal or family history of substance use disorder
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Mental health disorder, to include depression or PTSD
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History of legal problems or incarceration
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Age less than 40-45 years old
Question 125
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Aberrant behaviors associated with addiction include (select all that apply):
Question 126
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The DSM-5 definition of Opioid Use Disorder is a problematic pattern of opioid use leading to clinically significant impairment of distress, as manifested by at least [blank_start]2[blank_end] specific behaviors in a [blank_start]12[blank_end] month period: larger amounts/longer period; persistent desire for opioid; spending excessive time to obtain, use or recover from the effects of opioids.
Question 127
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[blank_start]Medication[blank_end] Assisted Treatment or MAT, may be used to treat opioid use disorder and includes naltrexone (mild d./o). buprenorphine and methadone (moderate to severe) and naloxone (mild, moderate, severe)
Question 128
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Indications for tapering in chronic opioid therapy include (select all that apply):
Answer
-
Violation of pain contract/abberant drug related behaviors
-
Lack of progress toward therapeutic goals
-
Intolerable adverse effects
Question 129
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When tapering opioids, it is recommended to reduce the dose by [blank_start]10[blank_end]% each week.
Question 130
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T or F. Clonidine can be used to treat the diarrhea and muscle pain associated with opiate withdrawal and Zolpidem or Doxepin for sleep issues.
Question 131
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Methadone is a long-acting synthetic opioid [blank_start]agonist[blank_end] with dual-mechanism on the Mu and NMDA receptor, and is a Schedule [blank_start]II[blank_end] controlled substance.
Question 132
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The following is true of methadone (select all that apply):
Answer
-
Is reserved as an advanced therapy for severe pain when other conventional therapies fail
-
Is highly regulated and only available at specialized clinics
-
Is difficult to dose, potenitally lethal in overdose
-
Has many drug interactions and adverse reactions
Question 133
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Buprenorphine is a [blank_start]synthetic[blank_end] opioid, used for severe pain (just an FYI, our doctors at my hospital say it is illegal to prescribe it for pain) and opioid dependence and is considered a partial Mu-opioid [blank_start]agonist[blank_end] and is a Schedule [blank_start]III[blank_end] controlled substance.
Question 134
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T or F. Buprenorphine can only be prescribed by specially trained MD's and NP.
Question 135
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T or F. Buprenorphine combined with the antagonist naloxone is called Suboxone.
Question 136
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T or F. There are critical opioid interactions with CNS depressants and alcohol.
Question 137
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T or F. Many drugs can inhibit or induce the metabolism of opioids and raise or lower serum opioid levels, leading to increase risk for respiratory depression or sedation, or cause the development of withdrawal symptoms.
Question 138
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The following drugs may induce the metabolism of opioids (select all that apply)
Answer
-
St. John's Wort
-
Phenobarbital
-
Phenytonin
-
Rifampin
Question 139
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T or F. Naloxone (Narcan) competitively binds to opioid receptors without producing analgesic response.
Question 140
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Pain medications that are scheduled include (select all that apply):
Answer
-
Opioids
-
Lyrica (Pregabaliin)
-
Soma (Carisoprodol)
-
Fioricet with codiene
Question 141
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Schedule [blank_start]I[blank_end] drugs have no currently accepted medical use in the US and have a high potential for abuse.
Question 142
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Schedule [blank_start]II[blank_end] drugs have a high potential for abuse, which may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, can only be prescribed with a max [blank_start]30[blank_end] day quantity, no refills, no [blank_start]verbal[blank_end] orders (hard copy of the Rx required).
Question 143
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Schedule [blank_start]III[blank_end] drugs have a potential for abuse less than substances in Schedules I/II, and abuse may lead to moderate or low physical depedence or high psychological dependene, can prescibe a max [blank_start]6[blank_end] month supply and verbal orders are allowed.
Question 144
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Schedule [blank_start]IV[blank_end] drugs have a low potential for abuse relative to the substances in Schedule III, can have a max 6 month supply, verbal orders are [blank_start]allowed[blank_end] and includes several benzodiazipines like Xanax, Kolnopin and Valium.
Question 145
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Schedule [blank_start]V[blank_end] drugs have a low potential for abuse relative to substances listed in Schedule IV and consist primarily of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics, like cough preparations with codeine.
Question 146
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The five A' s framework for follow-up of patients prescribed chronic opioids includes (select all that apply):
Question 147
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T or F. Urine Drug Testing can be used to determine if the patient is taking the controlled substance as prescribed and/or if the patient is taking other drugs that may interfere with safe prescribing of controlled drugs.