Question 1
Question
Involuntary, continuous tonic contraction resulting in increased tension in skeletal muscle after injury and inflammation;
generally, more orthopedic and localized in nature
Question 2
Question
UMN lesions interrupt control of stretch reflex, leading to a neurologically induced, velocity-dependent, exaggerated muscle stretch reflex
Question 3
Question
Which of the following drugs/drug types given for spasms, causes general sedation and muscle relaxation by potentiating the inhibitory effect of GABA?
Question 4
Question
As with the Centrally-Acting Anti-spasm Drugs, Diazepam should only be used to treat muscle spams in the short-term, due to a plethora of side effects, including sedation, decreased psychomotor ability, physical dependence, and, during sudden withdrawal, anxiety/seizures/death.
Question 5
Question
Which of the following anti-spasticity drugs would be the best choice for chronic pain or headaches?
Answer
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Tizanidine
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Baclofen
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Diazepam
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Botulinum Toxin
Question 6
Question
Which of the following are advantages of intrathecal administration of baclofen versus oral administration?
Question 7
Question
The effects of which of the following anti-spasticity drugs is limited to just one muscle and carries no generalized effects?
Answer
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Botulinum Toxin
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Diazepam
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Intrathecal Baclofen
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Dantrolene Sodium
Question 8
Question
Which of the following is the most likely reason that a patient is taking a mixed agonist-Antagonist analgesic rather than a full agonist (strong or mild)?
Answer
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Less risk of addiction and overdose
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Less expensive
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Mixed Agonist-Antagonists are more effective for some patients
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Mixing the agonist with an antagonist reduces the risk of potential side effects, like hallucinations
Question 9
Question
Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Strong Agonists?
Answer
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Morphine
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Fentanyl
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Methadone
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Codeine
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Naloxone
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Petnazocine
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Hydrocodone
Question 10
Question
Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Mild-Moderate Agonists?
Answer
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Codeine
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Hydrocodone
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Oxycodone
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Morphine
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Fentanyl
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Naloxone
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Methadone
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Pentazocine
Question 11
Question
Of the following opiod analgesics, which are Mixed Agonist-Antagonists?
Answer
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Pentazocine
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Morphine
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Fentanyl
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Methadone
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Codeine
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Naloxone
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OxyContin
Question 12
Question
Of the following, which are opiod analgesic antagonists?
Answer
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Naloxone
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Codeine
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Fentanyl
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Pentazocine
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OxyContin
Question 13
Question
Select the potential side effects of opiod analgesics.
Answer
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Sedation
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Dizziness
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Respiratory Depression
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GI Distress
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Agitation
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Exophthalmos
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Dry Skin
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Delusions of Grandeur
Question 14
Question
Inhibition of the Cox 1 enzymes causes which of the following side effects?
Question 15
Question
Inhibition of the Cox 2 enzymes causes which of the following adverse effects?
Question 16
Question
Which of the following are Non-Selective COX-Blockers?
Answer
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Aspirin
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Ibuprofen
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Celebrex
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Diclofenac
Question 17
Question
Which of the following are COX2-Blockers?
Answer
-
Diclofenac
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Celebrex
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Aspirin
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Ibuprofen
Question 18
Question
How does Tylenol differ from Aspirin?
Answer
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Tylenol is not associated wit GI Issues
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Tylenol treats pain and inflammation
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Tylenol is not an antiinflammatory or anticoagulant
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Tylenol can be safely used by children
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Tylenol is less effective at treating osteoarthritis
Question 19
Question
Combining Naloxone with an opiod in a patient controlled analgesic results in adequate analgesia with reduced side effects.
Question 20
Question
Combining Droperidol with an opiod in a patient controlled analgesic results in adequate analgesia with reduced side effects.
Question 21
Question
With PCEA, the analgesic is delivered directly to the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord at a specific level.
Question 22
Question
With PCEA, the analgesic is delivered directly to the epidural space of the spinal cord at a specific level.
Question 23
Question
[blank_start]Loading dose[blank_end] - A single large dose is given initially to establish analgesia.
[blank_start]Demand dose[blank_end] - The amount of drug that is self-administered by the patient each time he or she activates the PCA delivery mechanism.
[blank_start]Lockout interval[blank_end] - The minimum amount of time allowed between each demand dose.
[blank_start]Background infusion rate[blank_end] - In some patients, a small amount of the analgesic is infused continuously to maintain a low background level of analgesia.
Question 24
Question
When reviewing the chart of a new patient you notice that the number of total PCA demands is much higher than the number of successful demands. What does this most likely indicate?
Answer
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The PCA parameters are not effective in providing adequate analgesia
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The PCA pump is malfunctioning
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This is not possible, there is no difference between successful and total demands.
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The PCA pump is providing too much analgesia with each dose.
Question 25
Question
[blank_start]Antitussive[blank_end] - Cough Suppressant
[blank_start]Decongestant[blank_end] - Reduce Mucus Production by binding to Alpha-1 receptors
[blank_start]Antihistamine[blank_end] - Reduce allergic reactions by binding to H1 receptors
[blank_start]Mucolytics[blank_end] - Decrease Mucus Viscosity
[blank_start]Expectorants[blank_end] - Facilitate production and ejection of mucus
Answer
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Antitussive
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Decongestant
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Antihistamine
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Mucolytics
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Expectorants
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Anticoagulant
-
Anticholinergics
Question 26
Question
Guaifenesin belongs to which category of respiratory drugs?
Answer
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Antitussives
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Decongestant
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Antihistamines
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Mucolytics
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Expectorants
Question 27
Question
[blank_start]Beta-2 adrenergic agonists[blank_end] (-terol) – cause bronchodilation and relaxation of bronchiole smooth muscle
[blank_start]Glucocorticoids (corticosteroids)[blank_end] - control inflammation-mediated bronchospasm; Most effective treatment for Asthma
[blank_start]Leukotriene (LOX) inhibitors[blank_end] - mediate airway inflammation that underlies bronchoconstriction
[blank_start]Cromones[blank_end] - prevent bronchoconstriction by inhibiting the release of inflammatory mediators
Answer
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Beta-2 adrenergic agonists
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Glucocorticoids (corticosteroids)
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Leukotriene (LOX) inhibitors
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Cromones
-
Anticholinergics
Question 28
Question
Which of the following is/are most effective in promoting healing of ulcers?
Answer
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H2 receptor blockers
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Antacids
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Proton pump inhibitor
-
Cimedtidine
Question 29
Question
What is a potential problem with prolonged and excessive use of antacids?
Question 30
Question
Steroid hormones are derived from which of the following?
Question 31
Question
An individual with hypothyroidism will present with all of the following EXCEPT?
Answer
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Weight gain
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Bradycardia
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Lethargy
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Tachycardia
Question 32
Question
Hyperthyroidism symptoms can be suppressed by beta-adrenergic blockers.
Question 33
Question
Which of the following inhibits osteoclast activity?
Answer
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Calcitonin
-
Bisosphonates
-
Vitamin D
-
Teriparatide
Question 34
Question
A primary adverse effect of mineralcorticoid therapy?
Question 35
Question
Which patient would you be cautious with stretching?
Question 36
Question
Tetracyclines, sulonamindes, and fluoroquinolones will not cause increased skin sensitivity to UV light.
Question 37
Question
[blank_start]Insulin[blank_end] will reduce glucose levels
[blank_start]Glucagon[blank_end] will increase glucose levels
Generally speaking, Diabetes leads to an uncontrolled [blank_start]increase[blank_end] in glucose levels.
Answer
-
Insulin
-
Glucagon
-
increase
-
decrease
-
Glycogen
Question 38
Question
Prolonged use of cortisol can cause ______.
Answer
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HTN
-
Increased risk of bone fracture
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Decreased blood glucose and glycogen
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Decreased ability in body’s ability to handle stress
Question 39
Question
Just like the Irish girl in this photo, patients taking which of the following medication types are at increased risk of sunburn (aka photosensitivity)?
Answer
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Antitussives
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Decongestants
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Antibacterial
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Antirheumatics
-
NSAIDs