Question 1
Question
Which of the following is not an example of a PAMP?
Answer
-
Lipopolysaccharide
-
Lipoteichoic acid
-
Viral Genome (dsRNA)
-
DAMPs
-
Complement
Question 2
Question
What do PRRs do?
Answer
-
receptors on leukocytes that recognize PAMPS
-
receptors on infected cells that can be activated for cell death
-
specified subclass of PAMPS
-
Special proteins displayed on bacterial surfaces
Question 3
Question
What are some physical barriers that are part of the innate system?
Answer
-
skin
-
mucosa
-
stomach pH
-
lysozomes
-
natural body flora
-
macrophages
-
body fat
Question 4
Question
Which cells are involved in innate immunity?
Answer
-
macrophage
-
neutrophil
-
natural killer cell
-
dendritic cell
-
B-cell lymphocytes
-
T-cell lymphocytes
-
bone marrow cells
-
mast cells
-
thymus cellls
Question 5
Question
Which of the following isnt a granulocyte?
Answer
-
basophils
-
neutrophils
-
mast cells
-
eosinophils
Question 6
Question
Macrophages in the blood are known as monocytes.
Question 7
Question
Macrophages in CNS are known as macroglia.
Question 8
Question
What regarding Major Histocompability Complexes is true?
Answer
-
MHCI, MHCII, and MHCIII all serve different purposes in cell communication
-
all nucleated cells display MHC I
-
cytotoxic T cells interact with both MHC I and MHC II
-
MHC I recognizes antigens from the inside of the cell
-
MHC II is on all nucleated cells
-
MHC III recognizes antigens on the outside of cell
-
Helper T cells interact with MHC II
-
some complement proteins, cytokines, and enzymes displa MHC III
-
MHC I, MHC II, and MHC III all refer to the same receptor at different stages which is why they have very similar functions
Question 9
Question
Which statements regarding innate immunity are false?
Answer
-
C3 convertase leads to C3 cleaving into C3a and C3b
-
C3b leads to C5 convertase activating and cleaving into C5a and C5b
-
C5b--C9 activates Membrane-Attacking Complex
-
C5a and C3a are anaphalotoxins
-
C3b is opsonin and coats bacteria as complement
-
anaphylatoxins activate mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine and bradykinin
-
histamine and bradykinin lead to increased vascular permability and vasodilation
-
Membrane-Attacking Complex includes perforin and granzyme
-
Mannose-Binding Lectin, Classical, and Alternative all lead to the intial step of C3 convertase
-
Mannose-Binding Lectin, Classical, and Alternative all lead to the initial step of C5 convertase
Question 10
Question
What are TCRs?
TCRs, standing for [blank_start]T-cell receptors[blank_end], are on all T-cells and allow them to interact with other [blank_start]leukocytes[blank_end] or [blank_start]other cells[blank_end]. For example, the [blank_start]cytotoxic[blank_end] TCR interacts with a host cell's MHC [blank_start]I[blank_end] in order to kill it.
Answer
-
T-cell receptors
-
leukocytes
-
other cells
-
cytotoxic
-
I
Question 11
Question
There are 2 parts to adaptive immunity. The [blank_start]cell-mediated response[blank_end] occurs when an [blank_start]antigen-presenting cell[blank_end] arrives at the lymphnode and presents the antigen to the [blank_start]CD4+ T cells[blank_end] via [blank_start]MHC II[blank_end]. Specifically, [blank_start]CD4+ TH1[blank_end] will interact with the antigen-presenting cell. This interaction will lead to the chemokines [blank_start]IL-2[blank_end] and [blank_start]INF-gamma[blank_end] being releases, which activate and bring over the [blank_start]CD8+ killer[blank_end] T cells. The CD8+ killer T cell will then go off and bind to infected host cells via [blank_start]MHC I[blank_end] and initiate cell death. It does this via 2 ways: activating [blank_start]FAS ligand-receptor[blank_end] and the cytotoxic granule containing [blank_start]granzyme[blank_end] (which destroys cell inner stuff) and [blank_start]perforin[blank_end] (which punches holes.)
Answer
-
cell-mediated response
-
humoral response
-
antigen-presenting cell
-
neutrophil
-
phagocytic cell
-
CD4+ T cells
-
THI cells
-
TH2 cells
-
CD8+ T cells
-
MHC II
-
MHC III
-
MHC I
-
CD4+ TH1
-
CD4+ TH2
-
IL-2
-
IL-3
-
IL-4
-
IL-5
-
IL-6
-
IL-10
-
INF-gamma
-
INF-alpha
-
INF-beta
-
INF-delta
-
Killer
-
TH II cells
-
TH I cells
-
mhc I
-
mhc II
-
FAS ligand-receptor
-
MAC
-
cell nephrosis
-
granzyme
-
lysozyme
-
enzymes
-
granulozome
-
perforin
-
puncturin
-
hydrogenase
Question 12
Question
The release of cytokines (in numerical order) [blank_start]IL-4[blank_end], [blank_start]IL-5[blank_end], and [blank_start]IL-10[blank_end] is part of the [blank_start]humoral[blank_end] response of adaptive immunity.
Question 13
Question
Humoral Response cannot happen without Cell-mediated BUT cell-mediated can happen without humoral having to happen
Question 14
Question
Which of the following are part of the humoral response?
Answer
-
clonal activation
-
clonal selection
-
clonal distribution
-
clonal expansion
-
B plasma secretory cells
-
class switch
-
T memory cells
-
B memory cells
-
CD4+ TH I cells
-
CD4+ TH II cells
Question 15
Question
Which statements regarding rolling adhesion are correct?
Answer
-
selectins allow the phagocytic cell to roll across the epithelial walls
-
integrins allow the phagocytic cell to roll across the epithelial walls
-
integrins allow the phagocytic cell to stop at the right place in the epithelium
-
selectins allow the phagocytic cell to stop at the right place in the epithelium
-
1L-8 enhances chemotaxis of phagocytic cells to site of injury/infection
-
diapedesis is transepithelial migration of the leukocyte
Question 16
Question
Which chemokines increase the adhesiveness of epithelial cells?
Answer
-
IL-1
-
IL-2
-
IL-3
-
IL-12
-
INF-GAMMA
-
INF-ALPHA
-
INF-BETA
-
TNF-ALPHA
Question 17
Question
Which blood results is O-?
Question 18
Question 19
Question
O- is universal donor for blood and universal recipient for plasma
Question 20
Question
AB + is universal recipient for both plasma and blood
Question 21
Question
Breast milk jaundice lasts [blank_start]longer[blank_end] than physiological jaundice. It is when certain compounds within the breast milk lead to higher [blank_start]bilirubin[blank_end] levels. It usually sorts itself out. Breast milk jaundice is quite rare.
Question 22
Question
What are the types of jaundice?
Answer
-
Breastfeeding jaundice
-
Breastmilk jaundice
-
Physiological (Normal) Jaundice
-
Jaundice of Prematurity
-
Blood Group Incompatability
-
Hemolytic Disease of Newborn
-
Biliary Atresia
-
Jaundicemia
Question 23
Question
Physiological Jaundice occurs due to severe deficiency of erythrocyte decomposition and liver immaturity.
Question 24
Question
How would you treat a Rhesus negative woman about to be impregnated by a Rhesus positive man due to concerns of Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?
Answer
-
Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins now to prevent Rhesus' Disease
-
Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins once pregnant to prevent Rhesus' Disease
-
Take Anti-D immunoglobulins throughout first trimester to prevent Rhesus' Disease
-
Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins third trimester to prevent Rhesus' Disease
Question 25
Question
Jaundice before 24 or 48 hours is [blank_start]abnormal[blank_end]. Jaundice between [blank_start]2-3 days[blank_end] to [blank_start]10-14 days[blank_end] is [blank_start]normal[blank_end]. Treatment isn't needed, but [blank_start]phototherapy[blank_end] (using UV light) can be helpful, especially for [blank_start]premature[blank_end] babies. Sometimes, a small amount of the [blank_start]matched blood[blank_end] is placed into the fetus to help speed up the process. Jaundice may last longer than that, which is [blank_start]abnormal[blank_end]. In which cases, [blank_start]surgical treatment[blank_end] and further investigation may be needed.
Answer
-
abnormal
-
normal
-
2-3 days
-
1 week
-
10-14 days
-
1 month
-
Normal
-
Abnormal
-
phototherapy
-
x-ray fluoroscopy
-
premature
-
late
-
matched blood
-
mother's blood
-
ab-normal
-
normaL
-
surgical treatment
-
wide spread antibiotics
Question 26
Question
What regarding hemolytic disease of the newborn is correct?
Answer
-
it is due to mixing of the fetus' blood and maternal blood during the first pregnancy
-
it is due to mixing of the fetus' blood and maternal blood during the second pregnancy
-
leads to hyperbilirubinemia
-
leads to anemia
-
if severe, can lead to multi-organ failure
-
if severe, can lead to hypoproteinemia
-
maternal antibodies will start attacking fetus' blood cells during first pregnancy
-
maternal antibodies will start attacking fetus' blood cells during second pregnancy
Question 27
Question
If Jaundice in the first 24 hours, why might it be due to?
Question 28
Question
If jaundice after 14 days, what may be a cause?
Question 29
Question
In gram staining, what type of microorganism stains purple?
Answer
-
Gram + bacteria
-
Gram - bacteria
-
Gram + virus
-
Gram - virus
-
Gram + fungus
-
Gram - fungus
Question 30
Question
Gram negative bacteria have LPS, thin cell wall, and stain red
Question 31
Question
A primary headache is a headache due to the condition itself and not another cause.
Question 32
Question
What is characteristic of a cluster headache?
Question 33
Question
what is NOT characteristic of migraine?
Question 34
Question
What is characteristic of tension headache?
Question 35
Question
How might you treat tension headache?
Question 36
Question
How might you treat and prevent migraines?
Answer
-
TRTMENT: NSAIDS
-
TRTMENT: paracetamol
-
TRTMENT: surgical intervention
-
TRTMENT: Triptans
ex: sumitriptan
-
PRVNT: Beta-blockers
-
PRVNT: Amitriptyline
(tricyclic antidepressant)
-
PRVNT: corticosteroids
Question 37
Question
How might you treat and prevent a cluster headache?
Answer
-
TRTMENT: give oxygen for 15 minutes
-
TRTMENT: triptans
-
PRVNT: Surgical intervention--> Occipital nerve block
-
PRVNT: Verapamil (calcium channel blocker)
-
TRTMENT: Verapamil (calcium channel blocker)
-
TRTMENT: Surgical intervention--> Occipital nerve block
-
PRVNT: triptans
-
PRVNT: give oxygen for 15 minutes
Question 38
Question
Morbillivirus is a single-stranded RNA which infects lower respiratory tract and lungs and leads to measles.
Question 39
Question
What is the MMR vaccine?
Answer
-
measles
-
rubella
-
mumps
-
roseola
-
rubiola
-
meningitis
Question 40
Question
Which of the following is not part of the presentation of measles?
Answer
-
Fever paired with a cough and coryza
-
blotchy pink rash: beginning at the back of the ear
-
Koplik spots
-
swelling around eyes and conjunctivitis
-
vomiting
Question 41
Question
Measles is a notifiable disease.
Question 42
Question
There is no fixxerup for measles. You can provide support via rest, drinking [blank_start]fluids[blank_end], [blank_start]antipyretics[blank_end] (reducing fever) etc. Because measles is [blank_start]contagious[blank_end], the child must stay at home until resolved illness.
Answer
-
fluids
-
antipyretics
-
contagious
Question 43
Question
If an immunosuppressed or pregnant person came into contact with an infectious measles person in the past 48 hours, what would you give?
Question 44
Question
This type of rash is characterisitic of....?
Answer
-
Measles
-
Mumps
-
Chicken Pox
-
Rubella
-
Roseola
-
Scarlet Fever
Question 45
Question
This severe edema of parotid glands is characteristic of what?
Answer
-
mumps
-
measles
-
chicken pox
-
roseola
-
rubella
-
scarlet fever
Question 46
Question
How might mumps present?
Answer
-
starts off generic: malaise, fever, headache
-
can lead to orchiditis
-
vomitting and cold sweats
-
Koplik spots
Question 47
Question
The only way to manage mumps is to keep the child out of school to avoid infectious spread.
Question 48
Question
Which immunoglobulin is involved in innate immunity, can act as BCR, can cross the placenta, is nonspecific and is a pentamer?
Question 49
Question
Which immunoglobulin is in breast milk and helps infants until their immune system is capable?
Question 50
Question
Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergy?
Question 51
Question
Which is the small Y-shaped specific immunoglobulin?
Question 52
Question
IgD is the only BCR of the five imunoglobulins.
Question 53
Question
How might Rubella present?
Answer
-
lymphadenopathy
-
initially very similar presentation to a normal cold
EX: anorexia, malaise, eye irritation, minor fever
-
rash spreading from ears--> trunk/abdomen--> extremities
-
rash dissapears within 1-3 days
Question 54
Question
Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to what complication for the child later on?
Question 55
Question
Rubella is managed by keeping child home to avoid infectious spread, fluids, rest, and antipyretics.
Question 56
Question
Chickenpox is caused by [blank_start]varicella zoster[blank_end]. It is most infectious 1-2 days [blank_start]before[blank_end] the rash appears and then stays contagious until after the rash disappears. It is a [blank_start]very itchy vesicle[blank_end] kind of rash that accompanies malaise, headache, and [blank_start]abdominal pain[blank_end]. There is no cure, but healthy individuals can be given a [blank_start]Calamine[blank_end] lotion for the itchiness. If a pregnant or immunodeficient person isn't vaccinated against chicken pox, give her the [blank_start]antibodies[blank_end]. If a pregnant or immunodeficient person develops the chickenpox rash, give them [blank_start]Aciclovir[blank_end].
Question 57
Question
Shingles, most common in elderly with [blank_start]weakened[blank_end] immunity, is like the adult version of chicken pox (although adults can still also get chicken pox.) It's caused by the [blank_start]herpes[blank_end] zoster. Its characteristic difference is that the rash does not pass the [blank_start]midline[blank_end] and is limited to one [blank_start]dermatome[blank_end] (region of sensory innervation.) The patient may report [blank_start]pain[blank_end] in the area before the rash appears. Management is mainly supportive: analgesic, rest, fluids, etc. If highly severe, [blank_start]aciclovar[blank_end] is given. Not having chicken pox in childhood or getting the vaccination places you at a [blank_start]greater[blank_end] risk of getting shingles later on.
Answer
-
weakened
-
herpes
-
midline
-
dermatome
-
pain
-
aciclovar
-
greater
Question 58
Question
What bacteria causes scarlet fever?
Answer
-
streptococcus pyogens
-
diptheria bacillus
-
clostridium difficile
-
pasteurella multocida
Question 59
Question
Scarlet fever is not a notifiable disease
Question 60
Question
How might scarlet fever present?
Question 61
Question
Investigation of scarlet fever is done via [blank_start]throat swab[blank_end] and culture. Management is [blank_start]penicillin[blank_end] for [blank_start]10[blank_end] days. If allergic to penicillin, [blank_start]azithromycin[blank_end] is the alternative. Management should also include symtomatic treatment: ex: [blank_start]paracetamol[blank_end]. As scarlet fever is highly contagious, person must stay home until illness resolves.
Question 62
Question
Which bacteria are always gram +?
Answer
-
staphylococcus
-
streptococcus
-
bacillus
-
diplococci
-
Spiral spirochetes
Question 63
Question
What regarding clostridium difficile is correct?
Answer
-
opportunic pathogen
-
gram + bacteria
-
gram - bacteria
-
usually due to broad spectrum antibiotic usage
-
presents as abdominal pain and diaarea
-
management:
1. oral metronidazole for 10-14 days
2. if not responding efficiently enough, oral vancomycin
-
management:
1. oral vancomycin for 10-14 days
2. if not responding efficiently enough, oral metronidazole
-
presents as abdominal pain and diarrhoea and abdominal edema
Question 64
Question
What regarding glandular fever is correct?
Answer
-
Epstein-barr virus found in the saliva of infected people
-
presentation includes Lymphadenopathy
-
presentation includes sore throat and enlarged tonsils
-
only supportive management possible
-
investigation: an unusual increased amount of lymphocytes
-
antiviral treatment and supportive management possible
-
antipyretics given
-
presentation includes rash covering neck and abdomen
Question 65
Question
What is true regarding Lyme disease?
Answer
-
It is due to a parasite and bacterial infection
-
it is due to a bacterial infection
-
it is due to a parasite
-
has no characteristic rash
-
has characteristic "bull's eye" rash
-
will present as fever, lethargy, and myalgia
-
disease can lead to joint pathology, heart and neuro pathology
-
the disease can lead to respiratory failure, lower intestines pathology, and appendicitis
-
will present as fever, vomittting, and diarrhea
Question 66
Question
What is meningitis?
Answer
-
inflammation of the meninges
-
infection of the cerebrospinal fluid
-
inflammation of the blood-brain barriers
-
autoimmune reaction against neurons of the central nervous system
Question 67
Question
Which of these causes meningitis?
Answer
-
streptococcus pneumonia
-
neisseria meningitidis
Question 68
Question
How does meningitis present?
Question 69
Question
Doxycycline, an antibiotic, is given as management for [blank_start]Lyme's disease[blank_end].
Answer
-
Lyme's disease
-
Meningitis
-
Chicken pox
-
Glandular Fever
Question 70
Question
Doxycycline, an antibiotic, is given as management for [blank_start]Lyme's disease[blank_end].
Answer
-
Lyme's disease
-
Meningitis
-
Chicken pox
-
Glandular Fever
Question 71
Question
Intravenous ceftriaxone is given as management for [blank_start]meningitis[blank_end].
Answer
-
meningitis
-
scarlet fever
-
glandular fever
-
Lyme's disease
Question 72
Question
Benzylpenicillin is given intramuscularly if there is a community danger of meningitis break out.
Question 73
Question
How might the CSF appear normally?
Answer
-
clear and colorless
-
murky and yellowish
-
.2-.4 protein concentration
-
<.2 protein concentration
-
60-80% plasma glucose
-
50-75% plasma glucose
-
no organisms
-
natural microflora present
-
high amount of lymphocytes
-
few amount of lymphocytes
Question 74
Question
If the CSF has cloudy murky appearance with increased protein concentration, high amount of neutrophils, plenty of organisms, reduced glucose, and high pressure, is it a bacterial, viral, or TB infection[blank_start]?[blank_end]
Question 75
Question
What does viral infected CSF appear like?
Answer
-
increased protein concentration
-
clear and colorless look
-
normal glucose
-
higher opening pressure
-
lesser glucose
-
decreased protein concentration
-
high amount of lymphocytes
-
high amount of neutrophils
-
many organisms
-
no organisms
Question 76
Question
What is true regarding management of meningitis?
Answer
-
medical emergency: do ABCD survey
-
Lumbar puncture at L3/L4
-
Lumbar Puncture at L1/L2/L3/L4
-
Ceftriaxone 4mg intravenously
-
Blood culture if not spinal tap
-
Blood culture and spinal tap
-
Ceftriaxone 4mg orally
Question 77
Question
A [blank_start]contraindication[blank_end] is when a type of treatment backfires and ends up harming the person.
Question 78
Question
Which of the following is NOT an example of contraindications to lumbar puncture?
Answer
-
shock
-
convulsions
-
coagulation abnormalities
-
infection over site of puncture
-
decreased intracranial pressure
-
extensive purpura
Question 79
Question
Sides of the tongue drain to the submandibular nodes?
Question 80
Question
where does back of the tongue and middle strip drain to lymph wise?
Answer
-
deep cervical
-
submandibular
-
submental
-
retropharyngeal
Question 81
Question
Tip of the tongue does NOT drain to submental.