year 1 Infancy Pathology focus :)

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Plymouth Med
Quiz by Plymouth Med, updated more than 1 year ago
Plymouth Med
Created by Plymouth Med almost 7 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which of the following is not an example of a PAMP?
Answer
  • Lipopolysaccharide
  • Lipoteichoic acid
  • Viral Genome (dsRNA)
  • DAMPs
  • Complement

Question 2

Question
What do PRRs do?
Answer
  • receptors on leukocytes that recognize PAMPS
  • receptors on infected cells that can be activated for cell death
  • specified subclass of PAMPS
  • Special proteins displayed on bacterial surfaces

Question 3

Question
What are some physical barriers that are part of the innate system?
Answer
  • skin
  • mucosa
  • stomach pH
  • lysozomes
  • natural body flora
  • macrophages
  • body fat

Question 4

Question
Which cells are involved in innate immunity?
Answer
  • macrophage
  • neutrophil
  • natural killer cell
  • dendritic cell
  • B-cell lymphocytes
  • T-cell lymphocytes
  • bone marrow cells
  • mast cells
  • thymus cellls

Question 5

Question
Which of the following isnt a granulocyte?
Answer
  • basophils
  • neutrophils
  • mast cells
  • eosinophils

Question 6

Question
Macrophages in the blood are known as monocytes.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 7

Question
Macrophages in CNS are known as macroglia.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 8

Question
What regarding Major Histocompability Complexes is true?
Answer
  • MHCI, MHCII, and MHCIII all serve different purposes in cell communication
  • all nucleated cells display MHC I
  • cytotoxic T cells interact with both MHC I and MHC II
  • MHC I recognizes antigens from the inside of the cell
  • MHC II is on all nucleated cells
  • MHC III recognizes antigens on the outside of cell
  • Helper T cells interact with MHC II
  • some complement proteins, cytokines, and enzymes displa MHC III
  • MHC I, MHC II, and MHC III all refer to the same receptor at different stages which is why they have very similar functions

Question 9

Question
Which statements regarding innate immunity are false?
Answer
  • C3 convertase leads to C3 cleaving into C3a and C3b
  • C3b leads to C5 convertase activating and cleaving into C5a and C5b
  • C5b--C9 activates Membrane-Attacking Complex
  • C5a and C3a are anaphalotoxins
  • C3b is opsonin and coats bacteria as complement
  • anaphylatoxins activate mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine and bradykinin
  • histamine and bradykinin lead to increased vascular permability and vasodilation
  • Membrane-Attacking Complex includes perforin and granzyme
  • Mannose-Binding Lectin, Classical, and Alternative all lead to the intial step of C3 convertase
  • Mannose-Binding Lectin, Classical, and Alternative all lead to the initial step of C5 convertase

Question 10

Question
What are TCRs? TCRs, standing for [blank_start]T-cell receptors[blank_end], are on all T-cells and allow them to interact with other [blank_start]leukocytes[blank_end] or [blank_start]other cells[blank_end]. For example, the [blank_start]cytotoxic[blank_end] TCR interacts with a host cell's MHC [blank_start]I[blank_end] in order to kill it.
Answer
  • T-cell receptors
  • leukocytes
  • other cells
  • cytotoxic
  • I

Question 11

Question
There are 2 parts to adaptive immunity. The [blank_start]cell-mediated response[blank_end] occurs when an [blank_start]antigen-presenting cell[blank_end] arrives at the lymphnode and presents the antigen to the [blank_start]CD4+ T cells[blank_end] via [blank_start]MHC II[blank_end]. Specifically, [blank_start]CD4+ TH1[blank_end] will interact with the antigen-presenting cell. This interaction will lead to the chemokines [blank_start]IL-2[blank_end] and [blank_start]INF-gamma[blank_end] being releases, which activate and bring over the [blank_start]CD8+ killer[blank_end] T cells. The CD8+ killer T cell will then go off and bind to infected host cells via [blank_start]MHC I[blank_end] and initiate cell death. It does this via 2 ways: activating [blank_start]FAS ligand-receptor[blank_end] and the cytotoxic granule containing [blank_start]granzyme[blank_end] (which destroys cell inner stuff) and [blank_start]perforin[blank_end] (which punches holes.)
Answer
  • cell-mediated response
  • humoral response
  • antigen-presenting cell
  • neutrophil
  • phagocytic cell
  • CD4+ T cells
  • THI cells
  • TH2 cells
  • CD8+ T cells
  • MHC II
  • MHC III
  • MHC I
  • CD4+ TH1
  • CD4+ TH2
  • IL-2
  • IL-3
  • IL-4
  • IL-5
  • IL-6
  • IL-10
  • INF-gamma
  • INF-alpha
  • INF-beta
  • INF-delta
  • Killer
  • TH II cells
  • TH I cells
  • mhc I
  • mhc II
  • FAS ligand-receptor
  • MAC
  • cell nephrosis
  • granzyme
  • lysozyme
  • enzymes
  • granulozome
  • perforin
  • puncturin
  • hydrogenase

Question 12

Question
The release of cytokines (in numerical order) [blank_start]IL-4[blank_end], [blank_start]IL-5[blank_end], and [blank_start]IL-10[blank_end] is part of the [blank_start]humoral[blank_end] response of adaptive immunity.
Answer
  • humoral
  • IL-4
  • IL-5
  • IL-10

Question 13

Question
Humoral Response cannot happen without Cell-mediated BUT cell-mediated can happen without humoral having to happen
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
Which of the following are part of the humoral response?
Answer
  • clonal activation
  • clonal selection
  • clonal distribution
  • clonal expansion
  • B plasma secretory cells
  • class switch
  • T memory cells
  • B memory cells
  • CD4+ TH I cells
  • CD4+ TH II cells

Question 15

Question
Which statements regarding rolling adhesion are correct?
Answer
  • selectins allow the phagocytic cell to roll across the epithelial walls
  • integrins allow the phagocytic cell to roll across the epithelial walls
  • integrins allow the phagocytic cell to stop at the right place in the epithelium
  • selectins allow the phagocytic cell to stop at the right place in the epithelium
  • 1L-8 enhances chemotaxis of phagocytic cells to site of injury/infection
  • diapedesis is transepithelial migration of the leukocyte

Question 16

Question
Which chemokines increase the adhesiveness of epithelial cells?
Answer
  • IL-1
  • IL-2
  • IL-3
  • IL-12
  • INF-GAMMA
  • INF-ALPHA
  • INF-BETA
  • TNF-ALPHA

Question 17

Question
Which blood results is O-?

Question 18

Question
Which is A-?

Question 19

Question
O- is universal donor for blood and universal recipient for plasma
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 20

Question
AB + is universal recipient for both plasma and blood
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 21

Question
Breast milk jaundice lasts [blank_start]longer[blank_end] than physiological jaundice. It is when certain compounds within the breast milk lead to higher [blank_start]bilirubin[blank_end] levels. It usually sorts itself out. Breast milk jaundice is quite rare.
Answer
  • longer
  • bilirubin

Question 22

Question
What are the types of jaundice?
Answer
  • Breastfeeding jaundice
  • Breastmilk jaundice
  • Physiological (Normal) Jaundice
  • Jaundice of Prematurity
  • Blood Group Incompatability
  • Hemolytic Disease of Newborn
  • Biliary Atresia
  • Jaundicemia

Question 23

Question
Physiological Jaundice occurs due to severe deficiency of erythrocyte decomposition and liver immaturity.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 24

Question
How would you treat a Rhesus negative woman about to be impregnated by a Rhesus positive man due to concerns of Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?
Answer
  • Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins now to prevent Rhesus' Disease
  • Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins once pregnant to prevent Rhesus' Disease
  • Take Anti-D immunoglobulins throughout first trimester to prevent Rhesus' Disease
  • Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins third trimester to prevent Rhesus' Disease

Question 25

Question
Jaundice before 24 or 48 hours is [blank_start]abnormal[blank_end]. Jaundice between [blank_start]2-3 days[blank_end] to [blank_start]10-14 days[blank_end] is [blank_start]normal[blank_end]. Treatment isn't needed, but [blank_start]phototherapy[blank_end] (using UV light) can be helpful, especially for [blank_start]premature[blank_end] babies. Sometimes, a small amount of the [blank_start]matched blood[blank_end] is placed into the fetus to help speed up the process. Jaundice may last longer than that, which is [blank_start]abnormal[blank_end]. In which cases, [blank_start]surgical treatment[blank_end] and further investigation may be needed.
Answer
  • abnormal
  • normal
  • 2-3 days
  • 1 week
  • 10-14 days
  • 1 month
  • Normal
  • Abnormal
  • phototherapy
  • x-ray fluoroscopy
  • premature
  • late
  • matched blood
  • mother's blood
  • ab-normal
  • normaL
  • surgical treatment
  • wide spread antibiotics

Question 26

Question
What regarding hemolytic disease of the newborn is correct?
Answer
  • it is due to mixing of the fetus' blood and maternal blood during the first pregnancy
  • it is due to mixing of the fetus' blood and maternal blood during the second pregnancy
  • leads to hyperbilirubinemia
  • leads to anemia
  • if severe, can lead to multi-organ failure
  • if severe, can lead to hypoproteinemia
  • maternal antibodies will start attacking fetus' blood cells during first pregnancy
  • maternal antibodies will start attacking fetus' blood cells during second pregnancy

Question 27

Question
If Jaundice in the first 24 hours, why might it be due to?
Answer
  • Blood group incompability
  • Red cell defects
  • Rhesus disease
  • physiological
  • Breast milk jaundice
  • neonatal hepatitis

Question 28

Question
If jaundice after 14 days, what may be a cause?
Answer
  • Biliary atresia
  • neonatal hepatitis
  • breast milk jaundice
  • breast feeding jaundice
  • hypothyrodism
  • errors in new born's metabolism abilities
  • blood group incompatability
  • physiological
  • pre-eclampsia

Question 29

Question
In gram staining, what type of microorganism stains purple?
Answer
  • Gram + bacteria
  • Gram - bacteria
  • Gram + virus
  • Gram - virus
  • Gram + fungus
  • Gram - fungus

Question 30

Question
Gram negative bacteria have LPS, thin cell wall, and stain red
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 31

Question
A primary headache is a headache due to the condition itself and not another cause.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 32

Question
What is characteristic of a cluster headache?
Answer
  • unilateral
  • bilateral
  • unilateral or bilateral
  • extremely painful--feel like banging your head or tearing out your hair
  • periorbital pain
  • mild pain
  • medium pain

Question 33

Question
what is NOT characteristic of migraine?
Answer
  • bilateral or unilateral
  • pulsating or throbbing pain
  • medium pain
  • periorbital pain

Question 34

Question
What is characteristic of tension headache?
Answer
  • mild pain
  • tight band, non-tender kind of pain
  • broad generalized but tender pain
  • intense pain
  • medium pain
  • bilateral
  • bilateral or unilateral
  • unilateral

Question 35

Question
How might you treat tension headache?
Answer
  • Lifestyle changes EX: control sleep, diet, and exercise
  • Paracetamol
  • NSAIDs
  • Surgical means
  • corticosteroids

Question 36

Question
How might you treat and prevent migraines?
Answer
  • TRTMENT: NSAIDS
  • TRTMENT: paracetamol
  • TRTMENT: surgical intervention
  • TRTMENT: Triptans ex: sumitriptan
  • PRVNT: Beta-blockers
  • PRVNT: Amitriptyline (tricyclic antidepressant)
  • PRVNT: corticosteroids

Question 37

Question
How might you treat and prevent a cluster headache?
Answer
  • TRTMENT: give oxygen for 15 minutes
  • TRTMENT: triptans
  • PRVNT: Surgical intervention--> Occipital nerve block
  • PRVNT: Verapamil (calcium channel blocker)
  • TRTMENT: Verapamil (calcium channel blocker)
  • TRTMENT: Surgical intervention--> Occipital nerve block
  • PRVNT: triptans
  • PRVNT: give oxygen for 15 minutes

Question 38

Question
Morbillivirus is a single-stranded RNA which infects lower respiratory tract and lungs and leads to measles.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 39

Question
What is the MMR vaccine?
Answer
  • measles
  • rubella
  • mumps
  • roseola
  • rubiola
  • meningitis

Question 40

Question
Which of the following is not part of the presentation of measles?
Answer
  • Fever paired with a cough and coryza
  • blotchy pink rash: beginning at the back of the ear
  • Koplik spots
  • swelling around eyes and conjunctivitis
  • vomiting

Question 41

Question
Measles is a notifiable disease.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 42

Question
There is no fixxerup for measles. You can provide support via rest, drinking [blank_start]fluids[blank_end], [blank_start]antipyretics[blank_end] (reducing fever) etc. Because measles is [blank_start]contagious[blank_end], the child must stay at home until resolved illness.
Answer
  • fluids
  • antipyretics
  • contagious

Question 43

Question
If an immunosuppressed or pregnant person came into contact with an infectious measles person in the past 48 hours, what would you give?
Answer
  • MMR vaccine (or just measles vaccine)
  • measles antibodies

Question 44

Question
This type of rash is characterisitic of....?
Answer
  • Measles
  • Mumps
  • Chicken Pox
  • Rubella
  • Roseola
  • Scarlet Fever

Question 45

Question
This severe edema of parotid glands is characteristic of what?
Answer
  • mumps
  • measles
  • chicken pox
  • roseola
  • rubella
  • scarlet fever

Question 46

Question
How might mumps present?
Answer
  • starts off generic: malaise, fever, headache
  • can lead to orchiditis
  • vomitting and cold sweats
  • Koplik spots

Question 47

Question
The only way to manage mumps is to keep the child out of school to avoid infectious spread.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 48

Question
Which immunoglobulin is involved in innate immunity, can act as BCR, can cross the placenta, is nonspecific and is a pentamer?
Answer
  • IgG
  • IgM
  • IgE
  • IgD
  • IgA

Question 49

Question
Which immunoglobulin is in breast milk and helps infants until their immune system is capable?
Answer
  • IgA
  • IgE
  • IgD
  • IgM
  • IgG

Question 50

Question
Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergy?
Answer
  • IgE
  • IgD
  • IgA
  • IgG
  • IgM

Question 51

Question
Which is the small Y-shaped specific immunoglobulin?
Answer
  • IgG
  • IgE
  • IgD
  • IgA
  • IgM

Question 52

Question
IgD is the only BCR of the five imunoglobulins.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 53

Question
How might Rubella present?
Answer
  • lymphadenopathy
  • initially very similar presentation to a normal cold EX: anorexia, malaise, eye irritation, minor fever
  • rash spreading from ears--> trunk/abdomen--> extremities
  • rash dissapears within 1-3 days

Question 54

Question
Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to what complication for the child later on?
Answer
  • Congenital rubella syndrome
  • Rubiolla
  • Anemia
  • Heart complications

Question 55

Question
Rubella is managed by keeping child home to avoid infectious spread, fluids, rest, and antipyretics.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 56

Question
Chickenpox is caused by [blank_start]varicella zoster[blank_end]. It is most infectious 1-2 days [blank_start]before[blank_end] the rash appears and then stays contagious until after the rash disappears. It is a [blank_start]very itchy vesicle[blank_end] kind of rash that accompanies malaise, headache, and [blank_start]abdominal pain[blank_end]. There is no cure, but healthy individuals can be given a [blank_start]Calamine[blank_end] lotion for the itchiness. If a pregnant or immunodeficient person isn't vaccinated against chicken pox, give her the [blank_start]antibodies[blank_end]. If a pregnant or immunodeficient person develops the chickenpox rash, give them [blank_start]Aciclovir[blank_end].
Answer
  • varicella zoster
  • herpes zoster
  • before
  • after
  • very itchy vesicle
  • widespread but merely discomforting
  • blistering, pus-filled boils
  • abdominal pain
  • widespread pain
  • pain in lymph node areas
  • Calamine
  • Silver Sulfadiazine
  • topical Hydrocortisone
  • antibodies
  • vaccination
  • Aciclovir
  • more antibodies
  • vaccination booster

Question 57

Question
Shingles, most common in elderly with [blank_start]weakened[blank_end] immunity, is like the adult version of chicken pox (although adults can still also get chicken pox.) It's caused by the [blank_start]herpes[blank_end] zoster. Its characteristic difference is that the rash does not pass the [blank_start]midline[blank_end] and is limited to one [blank_start]dermatome[blank_end] (region of sensory innervation.) The patient may report [blank_start]pain[blank_end] in the area before the rash appears. Management is mainly supportive: analgesic, rest, fluids, etc. If highly severe, [blank_start]aciclovar[blank_end] is given. Not having chicken pox in childhood or getting the vaccination places you at a [blank_start]greater[blank_end] risk of getting shingles later on.
Answer
  • weakened
  • herpes
  • midline
  • dermatome
  • pain
  • aciclovar
  • greater

Question 58

Question
What bacteria causes scarlet fever?
Answer
  • streptococcus pyogens
  • diptheria bacillus
  • clostridium difficile
  • pasteurella multocida

Question 59

Question
Scarlet fever is not a notifiable disease
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 60

Question
How might scarlet fever present?
Answer
  • myalgia
  • tachycardia
  • fever
  • sandpapery and strawberry tongue and rash
  • addominal pain
  • throat edema
  • ear infection
  • cold sweats

Question 61

Question
Investigation of scarlet fever is done via [blank_start]throat swab[blank_end] and culture. Management is [blank_start]penicillin[blank_end] for [blank_start]10[blank_end] days. If allergic to penicillin, [blank_start]azithromycin[blank_end] is the alternative. Management should also include symtomatic treatment: ex: [blank_start]paracetamol[blank_end]. As scarlet fever is highly contagious, person must stay home until illness resolves.
Answer
  • throat swab
  • blood works
  • urine test
  • general physical analysis
  • penicillin
  • warfarin
  • rhogam
  • corticosteroids
  • 10
  • 7
  • 14
  • 30
  • azithromycin
  • oral metronidazole
  • oral vancomycin
  • paracetamol
  • ibuprofen
  • aspirin

Question 62

Question
Which bacteria are always gram +?
Answer
  • staphylococcus
  • streptococcus​
  • bacillus
  • diplococci
  • Spiral spirochetes

Question 63

Question
What regarding clostridium difficile is correct?
Answer
  • opportunic pathogen
  • gram + bacteria
  • gram - bacteria
  • usually due to broad spectrum antibiotic usage
  • presents as abdominal pain and diaarea
  • management: 1. oral metronidazole for 10-14 days 2. if not responding efficiently enough, oral vancomycin
  • management: 1. oral vancomycin for 10-14 days 2. if not responding efficiently enough, oral metronidazole
  • presents as abdominal pain and diarrhoea and abdominal edema

Question 64

Question
What regarding glandular fever is correct?
Answer
  • Epstein-barr virus found in the saliva of infected people
  • presentation includes Lymphadenopathy
  • presentation includes sore throat and enlarged tonsils
  • only supportive management possible
  • investigation: an unusual increased amount of lymphocytes
  • antiviral treatment and supportive management possible
  • antipyretics given
  • presentation includes rash covering neck and abdomen

Question 65

Question
What is true regarding Lyme disease?
Answer
  • It is due to a parasite and bacterial infection
  • it is due to a bacterial infection
  • it is due to a parasite
  • has no characteristic rash
  • has characteristic "bull's eye" rash
  • will present as fever, lethargy, and myalgia
  • disease can lead to joint pathology, heart and neuro pathology
  • the disease can lead to respiratory failure, lower intestines pathology, and appendicitis
  • will present as fever, vomittting, and diarrhea

Question 66

Question
What is meningitis?
Answer
  • inflammation of the meninges
  • infection of the cerebrospinal fluid
  • inflammation of the blood-brain barriers
  • autoimmune reaction against neurons of the central nervous system

Question 67

Question
Which of these causes meningitis?
Answer
  • streptococcus pneumonia
  • neisseria meningitidis

Question 68

Question
How does meningitis present?
Answer
  • headache
  • neck stiffness
  • a fever
  • non-blanching rash when glass test is done
  • blanching rash when glass test is done
  • vomitting
  • myalgia
  • diarrheoa
  • seizures

Question 69

Question
Doxycycline, an antibiotic, is given as management for [blank_start]Lyme's disease[blank_end].
Answer
  • Lyme's disease
  • Meningitis
  • Chicken pox
  • Glandular Fever

Question 70

Question
Doxycycline, an antibiotic, is given as management for [blank_start]Lyme's disease[blank_end].
Answer
  • Lyme's disease
  • Meningitis
  • Chicken pox
  • Glandular Fever

Question 71

Question
Intravenous ceftriaxone is given as management for [blank_start]meningitis[blank_end].
Answer
  • meningitis
  • scarlet fever
  • glandular fever
  • Lyme's disease

Question 72

Question
Benzylpenicillin is given intramuscularly if there is a community danger of meningitis break out.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 73

Question
How might the CSF appear normally?
Answer
  • clear and colorless
  • murky and yellowish
  • .2-.4 protein concentration
  • <.2 protein concentration
  • 60-80% plasma glucose
  • 50-75% plasma glucose
  • no organisms
  • natural microflora present
  • high amount of lymphocytes
  • few amount of lymphocytes

Question 74

Question
If the CSF has cloudy murky appearance with increased protein concentration, high amount of neutrophils, plenty of organisms, reduced glucose, and high pressure, is it a bacterial, viral, or TB infection[blank_start]?[blank_end]
Answer
  • bacterial

Question 75

Question
What does viral infected CSF appear like?
Answer
  • increased protein concentration
  • clear and colorless look
  • normal glucose
  • higher opening pressure
  • lesser glucose
  • decreased protein concentration
  • high amount of lymphocytes
  • high amount of neutrophils
  • many organisms
  • no organisms

Question 76

Question
What is true regarding management of meningitis?
Answer
  • medical emergency: do ABCD survey
  • Lumbar puncture at L3/L4
  • Lumbar Puncture at L1/L2/L3/L4
  • Ceftriaxone 4mg intravenously
  • Blood culture if not spinal tap
  • Blood culture and spinal tap
  • Ceftriaxone 4mg orally

Question 77

Question
A [blank_start]contraindication[blank_end] is when a type of treatment backfires and ends up harming the person.
Answer
  • contraindication

Question 78

Question
Which of the following is NOT an example of contraindications to lumbar puncture?
Answer
  • shock
  • convulsions
  • coagulation abnormalities
  • infection over site of puncture
  • decreased intracranial pressure
  • extensive purpura

Question 79

Question
Sides of the tongue drain to the submandibular nodes?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 80

Question
where does back of the tongue and middle strip drain to lymph wise?
Answer
  • deep cervical
  • submandibular
  • submental
  • retropharyngeal

Question 81

Question
Tip of the tongue does NOT drain to submental.
Answer
  • True
  • False
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