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Childhood Year 1: Pathology focus :)

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Quiz on Childhood Year 1: Pathology focus :), created by Plymouth Med on 08/01/2018.
Plymouth Med
Quiz by Plymouth Med, updated more than 1 year ago
Plymouth Med
Created by Plymouth Med almost 7 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What is characteristic of the Paget's disease?
Answer
  • increased osteoblast and osteoclast activity
  • "bone pain" generally in one area, commonly pelvis and spine
  • structurally disorganized bone matrix with both excessive bone mass and bone resorption
  • increased osteoblast but decreased osteoclast activity
  • uniform concentric rings of organized bone matrix
  • "bone pain" spreading out to different areas of the body

Question 2

Question
Osteoblasts mature into these cells [blank_start]osteocytes[blank_end] once trapped in the bone matrix; they activate bone formation via [blank_start]altered signalling[blank_end] and apoptosis.
Answer
  • osteocytes
  • altered signalling

Question 3

Question
What do osteoblasts do?
Answer
  • synthesize new bone matrix
  • absorb and resorb more bone matrix
  • control bone metabolism

Question 4

Question
What is characteristic of osteoclasts?
Answer
  • from hematopoeitic stem cells
  • acts as macrophages
  • resorb bone
  • make more bone matrix
  • acts as fibroblasts
  • from mesenchymal stem cells

Question 5

Question
Where would you have the most interstitial growth?
Answer
  • epiphysis
  • metaphysis
  • diaphysis
  • epiphyseal growth plates
  • periosteum

Question 6

Question
[blank_start]Interstitial[blank_end] growth is [blank_start]lengthening[blank_end] growth. This is due to increased number of matrix-depositing cells. [blank_start]Appositional[blank_end] growth is [blank_start]widening[blank_end] growth. This is due to increased matrix deposition by the same number cells.
Answer
  • Interstitial
  • Appositional
  • widening
  • lengthening

Question 7

Question
In terms of calcium metabolism, the thyroid releases what hormone?
Answer
  • calcitonin
  • TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone)
  • T4
  • T3
  • PTH (parathyroid hormone)

Question 8

Question
Calcitonin causes increased calcium deposition in bone by inhibiting bone resorption.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 9

Question
What does parathyroid hormone do?
Answer
  • increase osteoclast activity
  • increase osteoblast activity
  • increase osteocyte activity
  • decrease osteoclast activity
  • decrease osteoblast activity
  • decrease osteocyte activity

Question 10

Question
Falling onto an outstretched hand/wrist causes what type of fracture most commonly?
Answer
  • scaphoid fracture
  • radial styloid fracture
  • humeral fracture
  • 3rd metacarpal fracture
  • ulnar styloid process
  • lunate fracture

Question 11

Question
What are bones of the hand?
Image:
Screen Shot 2018 01 08 At 9.20.06 Pm (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • scaphoid
  • lunate
  • triquetrum
  • pisiform
  • trapezium
  • trapezoid
  • capitate
  • hamate

Question 12

Question
What nerve would you damage if you were to break the shaft of the humerus?
Answer
  • radial
  • axillary
  • musculocutaneous
  • medial
  • ulnar

Question 13

Question
If the radial nerve is damaged, how might it present?
Answer
  • wrist drop even with fully extended forearm/arm
  • inability to abduct arm
  • inability to flex elbow
  • inability to flex shoulder
  • Benedict claw with fully extended forearm/arm

Question 14

Question
What does the musculocutaneous innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • flexor muscles of the arm
  • flexor muscles of the forearm
  • extensor muscles of the arm
  • extensor muscles of the forearm
  • 3.5 fingers of the hand

Question 15

Question
What does the axillary innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • deltoid, teres minor (shoulder muscles)
  • posterior arm flexor muscles
  • posterior forearm extensor muscles

Question 16

Question
What does the radial nerve NOT innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • posterior arm
  • posterior forearm
  • posterior medial 2 fingers of the hand

Question 17

Question
What does musculocutaneous innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • anterior forearm
  • anterior arm
  • anterior 3 medial fingers
  • posterior 3 medial fingers
  • posterior arm

Question 18

Question
What does ulnar nerve innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • posterior forearm muscles
  • posterior arm muscles
  • anterior forearm muscles
  • anterior arm muscles
  • anterior medial 2 fingers
  • posterior lateral 2 fingers

Question 19

Question
If there is loss of elbow flexion (can't flex biceps), there is damage to the [blank_start]musculocutaneous[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • musculocutaneous

Question 20

Question
if there is shoulder weakness or you're unable to abduct shoulder, then there is damage to the [blank_start]axillary[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • axillary

Question 21

Question
A hand of benediction is sign of damage to the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • median

Question 22

Question
Being unable to abduct or adduct the last 2 fingers is indicative of damage to the [blank_start]ulnar[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • ulnar

Question 23

Question
What does the ulnar provide sensory innervation to?
Answer
  • posterior and anterior 1.5 medial fingers
  • posterior and anterior lateral 2.5 fingers

Question 24

Question
What does the median provide sensory innervation to?
Answer
  • anterior 3.5 lateral fingers
  • posterior 3.5 lateral fingers
  • anterior 1.5 lateral fingers
  • posterior 1.5 lateral fingers

Question 25

Question
What does radial nerve provide sensory innervation to?
Answer
  • lateral arm
  • posterior forearm
  • posterior hand
  • anterior hand
  • anterior forearm
  • medial arm

Question 26

Question
The axillary nerve innervates the...in sensory wise
Answer
  • regimental badge area
  • anatomical snuffbox area
  • radial styloid badge area

Question 27

Question
Musculocutaneous provides sensory innervation to lateral forearm down to the thenar prominence (at the base of the thumb.)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 28

Question
Numbness at the back of the wrist and hand is due to damage to the sensory innervation by the [blank_start]radial[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • radial

Question 29

Question
Damage to the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve will lead to parethesia to the lateral 3 anterior fingers.
Answer
  • median

Question 30

Question
Loss of sensation in the median of the hand and the medial first 2 fingers is damage to the [blank_start]ulnar[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • ulnar

Question 31

Question
Damage to the radial nerve leads to wrist drop. What are some pathologies in which the radial nerve gets hurt?
Answer
  • Radial nerve palsy
  • Saturday night nerve palsy
  • Humerus shaft fracture
  • Erb's palsy
  • Bell's palsy
  • Klumpke's palsy

Question 32

Question
How might you injure the axillary nerve?
Answer
  • dislocation of the humeral head
  • surgical neck of the humerus fracture
  • dislocation of the clavicle
  • pulling the deltoid muscle

Question 33

Question
You might harm the musculocutaneous nerve via a medial epicondyle fracture.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 34

Question
A winged scapula is indicative of damage to the [blank_start]long thoracic nerve[blank_end] (spinal roots C5-C7.)
Answer
  • long thoracic nerve

Question 35

Question
The spinal roots of the musculocutaneous nerve are (in numerical order from least to greatest) are [blank_start]C5[blank_end], [blank_start]C6[blank_end], and [blank_start]C7[blank_end].
Answer
  • C5
  • C6
  • C7

Question 36

Question
The Axillary nerve is from the roots [blank_start]C5[blank_end] and [blank_start]C6[blank_end] (in numerical order.)
Answer
  • C5
  • C6

Question 37

Question
The radial nerve is from the spinal roots [blank_start]C5[blank_end] to [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
Answer
  • C5
  • T1

Question 38

Question
The ulnar nerve is from the spinal roots of [blank_start]C8[blank_end] and [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
Answer
  • C8
  • T1

Question 39

Question
The spinal roots of the median nerve is [blank_start]C5[blank_end] or [blank_start]C6[blank_end] to [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
Answer
  • C5
  • C6
  • T1

Question 40

Question
Which of these myotomes and action pairings are correct?
Answer
  • C4: shoulder elevation
  • C5: chicken abduction (wings)
  • C6: elbow flexion
  • C6: wrist extension
  • C7: elbow extension
  • C7: wrist flexion
  • C8: thumb extension (thumbs up)
  • T1: finger abduction (fanned fingers)
  • C6: wrist flexion
  • C6: elbow extension

Question 41

Question
What is true regarding Erb's palsy?
Answer
  • damage to the upper part of the brachial plexus (C5 and C6)
  • damage to the lower part of the brachial plexus (C7 C8 and T1)
  • motorbike accidents can cause this
  • improper birthing techniques (pull baby's head against pelvic bones while labor) can cause this
  • landing on an outstretched arm from a big height can cause this
  • results in a "waiter's tip"
  • results in a "clawed hand"
  • damage to the axillary nerve
  • damage to the suprascapular nerve
  • damage to the musculocutaneous nerve

Question 42

Question
What is the myasthenia gravis?
Answer
  • At the neuromuscular junction, the body produces antibodies against the acetylcholine receptors
  • Intense morning sickness that needs anti-emetics as treatment
  • the gradual degradation of muscle fibers, starting from top of the head to bottom of the feet
  • loss of sensation in some or all motor units of certain muscles

Question 43

Question
How might myasthenia gravis present?
Answer
  • ptosis
  • fluctuating fatiguability
  • dysphagia
  • limb weakness
  • fever
  • constant fatigue
  • slow reaction times

Question 44

Question
How would you manage myasthenia gravis?
Answer
  • acetylcholine esterase inhibitors
  • acetylcholine reuptake enhancers
  • acetylcholine esterase activators
  • acetylcholine agonists

Question 45

Question
The [blank_start]abdominal aorta[blank_end] bifurcates into the [blank_start]right common illiac[blank_end] and the [blank_start]left common illiac[blank_end]. The right illiac again bifurcates into the [blank_start]internal illiac[blank_end] and the [blank_start]external illiac[blank_end]. The external illiac becomes the [blank_start]right femoral[blank_end], which is the deep artery of the right thigh. In the popliteal fossa, the right femoral becomes the right [blank_start]popliteal[blank_end] artery. The right popliteal further bifurcates into the [blank_start]right anterior tibial[blank_end] and the [blank_start]right posterior tibial.[blank_end] The right posterior tibial, which is the pulse felt at the ankle, becomes the [blank_start]posterior right fibular.[blank_end] The right anterior tibial becomes the right [blank_start]dorsalis pedalis[blank_end].
Answer
  • abdominal aorta
  • common thoracic aorta
  • right common illiac
  • right mesenephric
  • left common illiac
  • left mesenephric
  • internal illiac
  • internal femoral
  • external illiac
  • external femoral
  • right femoral
  • right fibular
  • popliteal
  • tibial
  • right anterior tibial
  • right anterior popliteal
  • right posterior tibial.
  • right posterior popliteal
  • posterior right fibular.
  • anterior right fibular.
  • dorsalis pedalis
  • dorsis plantaris

Question 46

Question
Which of the following could cause carpal tunnel syndrome?
Answer
  • pregnancy
  • rheumatoid arthiritis
  • repetitive use of hands
  • septic arhritis
  • osteomalacia
  • osteoporosis

Question 47

Question
Compression of the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve as it travels through the [blank_start]carpal[blank_end] [blank_start]tunnel[blank_end] in the wrist is Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.
Answer
  • median
  • carpal
  • tunnel

Question 48

Question
How does Carpal Tunnel Syndrome present?
Answer
  • numbness
  • parasthesia/pain over median nerve area
  • thumb muscle atrophy
  • worse at ngiht
  • worse at day
  • redness
  • swelling

Question 49

Question
What are management options of the carpal tunnel syndrome?
Answer
  • local corticosteroids
  • night time splinting
  • day time splinting
  • anabolic steroids
  • always surgical decompression
  • if severe surgical decompression
  • avoid further injury via strain

Question 50

Question
What are the nerves of the lower limb?
Answer
  • Femoral
  • Sciatic
  • Obturator
  • Common fibular
  • common fibular deep branch
  • common fibular superficial branch
  • tibial
  • sural
  • fibial
  • common femoral

Question 51

Question
The [blank_start]sural[blank_end] nerve only innervates sensory-wise. It innervates the skin of the [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]lateral[blank_end] foot.
Answer
  • sural
  • posterior
  • lateral

Question 52

Question
What does the sciatic innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • the posterior compartment of the thigh
  • the anterior compartment of the thigh
  • lateral compartment of the thigh
  • the medial compartment of the thigh

Question 53

Question
What does the femoral nerve innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • anterior thigh
  • posterior thigh
  • lateral thigh
  • medial thigh

Question 54

Question
What does the obturator nerve innervate muscle wise?
Answer
  • anterior thigh
  • posterior thigh
  • lateral thigh
  • medial thigh

Question 55

Question
What does the common fibular deep branch innervate muscle wise?
Answer
  • anterior leg
  • posterior leg
  • lateral leg
  • medial leg

Question 56

Question
What does the superficial branch of the common fibular innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • anterior leg
  • posterior leg
  • lateral leg
  • medial leg

Question 57

Question
What does the tibial nerve innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • posterior leg
  • anterior leg
  • medial leg
  • lateral leg
  • sole of the foot
  • top of the foot

Question 58

Question
The femoral nerve's sensory innervation includes the [blank_start]anterior[blank_end] thigh and [blank_start]medial[blank_end] leg.
Answer
  • anterior
  • medial

Question 59

Question
The obturator nerve's sensory innervation is the [blank_start]medial[blank_end] thigh.
Answer
  • medial

Question 60

Question
The [blank_start]deep[blank_end] branch of the common fibular's sensory innervation is the skin of the upper lateral leg.
Answer
  • superficial

Question 61

Question
The deep branch of the common fibular's sensory innervation is the [blank_start]lower[blank_end] [blank_start]lateral[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]dorsal[blank_end] foot.
Answer
  • dorsal
  • lower
  • lateral

Question 62

Question
Both the [blank_start]sciatic[blank_end] nerve (which bifurcates in the [blank_start]popliteal[blank_end] fossa into the [blank_start]tibial[blank_end] nerve and the common fibular nerve) and the [blank_start]tibial[blank_end] nerve innervate (sensory-wise) the [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] thigh and [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]plantar[blank_end] foot.
Answer
  • sciatic
  • popliteal
  • tibial
  • tibial
  • posterior
  • posterior
  • plantar

Question 63

Question
The sciatic nerve's spinal roots are [blank_start]L4-S3[blank_end].
Answer
  • L4-S3
  • L2-S3
  • L1-L2
  • L3-S2
  • L4-S2

Question 64

Question
Dorsiflexion is a sign of damage to what nerve?
Answer
  • tibial
  • deep branch of the common fibular
  • common fibular
  • femoral
  • sural

Question 65

Question
Inability to dorsiflex (so basically having a foot drop) is indicative of damage to what nerve?
Answer
  • common fibular
  • sciatic
  • femoral
  • sural
  • obturator
  • superficial branch of the common fibular

Question 66

Question
What movements does the femoral nerve allow?
Answer
  • flexion of hips
  • extension of the knee
  • extension of the hips
  • flexion of the knees
  • abduction of the leg
  • adduction of the leg

Question 67

Question
What innervates hip extension and knee flexion?
Answer
  • Inferior gluteal
  • sciatic nerve
  • superior gluteal
  • tibial
  • common fibular

Question 68

Question
The [blank_start]obturator[blank_end] nerve allows hip adduction. On the other hand, the [blank_start]superior[blank_end] [blank_start]gluteal[blank_end] nerve allows hip abduction.
Answer
  • obturator
  • superior
  • gluteal

Question 69

Question
What are the main types of arthritis?
Answer
  • osteoarthritis
  • inflammatory arthritis
  • septic arthritis
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • crystal-induced arthritis

Question 70

Question
[blank_start]Primary[blank_end] osteoarthritis and [blank_start]secondary[blank_end] osteoarthritis are the two types of osteoarthritis.
Answer
  • Primary
  • secondary

Question 71

Question
The three types of inflammatory arthritis: rheumatoid, [blank_start]crystal-induced,[blank_end] and [blank_start]psoriatic[blank_end].
Answer
  • crystal-induced,
  • psoriatic

Question 72

Question
What are the two types of crystal-induced arthritis?
Answer
  • gout
  • pseudogout
  • rheumatoid
  • psoriatic
  • none of the above

Question 73

Question
What is a degenerative disease that affects the joints, often due to wear and tear of articular cartilage?
Answer
  • osteoarthritis
  • synovitis
  • crepitus
  • joint stiffness
  • subarticular sclerosis

Question 74

Question
How might osteoarthritis present?
Answer
  • joint stiffness in the evening/morning
  • generally worse after walking
  • palpable bony swelling on the hands' interphalangeal joints
  • reduced range of motion
  • crepitus in the joints
  • insomnia
  • generalized swelling around major joints
  • locked joints
  • synovitis

Question 75

Question
An X-ray investigation of osteoarthritis will show...
Answer
  • reduced joint space
  • subarticular sclerosis
  • osteophytes
  • bony cysts
  • glued up joint space
  • cartilage cysts
  • osteocytes

Question 76

Question
For osteoarthritis, the only management is supportive/palliative.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 77

Question
What is an autoimmune disease that also ends in joint destruction?
Answer
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • septic arthritis
  • osteoarthritis
  • gout

Question 78

Question
What is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?
Answer
  • specific joint pain in the morning
  • specific joint pain in the evening
  • joints affected symetrically
  • joint inflammation
  • joints affected asymetrically

Question 79

Question
All of these are part of the management of rheumatoid arthritis BUT
Answer
  • NSAIDs
  • physiotherapy
  • Methtrexate
  • DMARDs
  • Antibiotics followed by corticosteroids

Question 80

Question
Which of the following regarding the investigation of rheumatoid arthritis is true?
Answer
  • will find rheumatoid factor in serum
  • x-ray will reveal bone erosion
  • x-ray will reveal reduced joint space
  • periarticular osteopenia
  • visible deformity
  • x-ray will reveal
  • excessive bone growth

Question 81

Question
The deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints is a type of arthritis called [blank_start]gout[blank_end]. This usually happens if there are high levels of [blank_start]uric[blank_end] acid in the blood. The risk factors are [blank_start]obesity[blank_end] and [blank_start]purine[blank_end] (one of the building blocks of DNA) rich food. The most common occurence is at the big [blank_start]toe[blank_end] joint. Symptoms include [blank_start]synovitis[blank_end] (swelling of the joint), [blank_start]malaise[blank_end] (general ill-feeling), and [blank_start]tophi[blank_end] [blank_start]lumps[blank_end] (crystals.) These crystals are visible under polarized light microscopy. The primary way to test for this is to take [blank_start]aspirate[blank_end] fluid in the joint, gram stain it to rule out septic arthritis, and test the fluid for levels of uric acid.
Answer
  • gout
  • uric
  • purine
  • obesity
  • toe
  • synovitis
  • malaise
  • tophi
  • lumps
  • aspirate

Question 82

Question
The treatment plan is for what? 1. NSAIDs 2. Colchicine 3. Corticosteroids
Answer
  • chronic gout
  • acute gout
  • goutisis
  • pseudogout

Question 83

Question
Other than lifestyle changes to reduce urate levels, we give those with [blank_start]chronic[blank_end] [blank_start]gout[blank_end] the drug allopurinol.
Answer
  • gout
  • chronic

Question 84

Question
Accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate crystals in joints causes pseudogut as well.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 85

Question
What is of clinical importance regarding septic arthritis?
Answer
  • medical emergency
  • take the aspirate fluid in join and gram stain it
  • take a blood culture (full blood count) and see if there's a high amount of leukocytes
  • take a blood culture (full blood count) and see if there's a high amount of c-reactive protein
  • x-ray will show increased joint space
  • x-ray will show decreased joint space
  • chronic/gradual development
  • to manage, should drain aspirate fluid
  • to manage, should give antibiotics
  • presents like an infection plus reduced joint functionality and synovitis

Question 86

Question
Prostacyclin is prostaglandin [blank_start]12[blank_end], which is produced by the [blank_start]epithelium[blank_end]. Prostacyclin prevents excess [blank_start]platelet[blank_end] [blank_start]aggregation[blank_end] during the platelet plug.
Answer
  • 12
  • epithelium
  • platelet
  • aggregation

Question 87

Question
[blank_start]Thrombocytoplenia[blank_end] is when there are too few platelets in the body. It can be treated with [blank_start]thrombopoietin[blank_end], which will increase the platelet number. It takes [blank_start]6[blank_end] days for progress to be apparent though.
Answer
  • Thrombocytoplenia
  • thrombopoietin
  • 6

Question 88

Question
Platelets only adhere to smooth epithelial surfaces.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 89

Question
[blank_start]Von[blank_end] [blank_start]Willebrand[blank_end] Disease is when a person is missing vWF and therefore have difficulty with [blank_start]hemostasis[blank_end] (the stopping of bloodloss.)
Answer
  • Willebrand
  • Von
  • hemostasis

Question 90

Question
If there is a suspicion of liver disease, one should check if [blank_start]coagulation[blank_end] is affected because it very well could be.
Answer
  • coagulation

Question 91

Question
Coagulation can be affected in: diseases affecting [blank_start]protein[blank_end] [blank_start]formation[blank_end] [blank_start]genetic[blank_end] diseases of the clotting [blank_start]factors[blank_end]
Answer
  • protein
  • formation
  • genetic
  • factors

Question 92

Question
There are 2 coagulation pathways: they meet up at factor [blank_start]10[blank_end]. The intrinsic pathway begins with factor [blank_start]12[blank_end]. This is when the [blank_start]inside[blank_end] of the blood vessel gets damage without any necessary external damage. Ex: [blank_start]hypertension[blank_end] (erodes.) The extrinsic pathways begin with factor [blank_start]3[blank_end]. Damage from [blank_start]outside[blank_end] to the blood vessel. Usually accompanies tissue damage.
Answer
  • 10
  • 12
  • 3
  • hypertension
  • inside
  • outside

Question 93

Question
The outside aspect of a scab is called an [blank_start]eschar[blank_end].
Answer
  • eschar

Question 94

Question
What is true regarding vitamin K?
Answer
  • produces anticoagulant protein c
  • produces coagulant protein z
  • produces anticoagulant protein s
  • produces factor 7
  • produces factor 9
  • produces prothrombin
  • produces factor 10
  • produces fibrinogen
  • produces factor 5

Question 95

Question
Vitamin K helps with bone metabolism by increasing calcification.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 96

Question
Vitamin K is from kale and kiwi.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 97

Question
Vitamin K is stored in muscle
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 98

Question
The "tea and toast" diet is associated with vitamin [blank_start]B[blank_end][blank_start]12[blank_end] deficiency. Patients can present as [blank_start]weakness[blank_end], paresthesia (tingliness), and [blank_start]irritability[blank_end]. Vegetarians and [blank_start]vegans[blank_end] often have this. B12 helps make the [blank_start]myelin[blank_end] [blank_start]sheath[blank_end] in neurons.
Answer
  • B
  • 12
  • weakness
  • irritability
  • myelin
  • sheath
  • vegans

Question 99

Question
[blank_start]Allodynia[blank_end] is when the patient complains that "everything" is painful, even stimuli that are not usually painful.
Answer
  • Allodynia

Question 100

Question
[blank_start]Hyperalgesia[blank_end] is when you have an increased pain response to painful stimulus.
Answer
  • Hyperalgesia

Question 101

Question
Primary healing is when you actively bring together both edges of the wound to stimulate heealing.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 102

Question
Secondary healing is when you leave the wound alone to heal
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 103

Question
Warfarin is given following
Answer
  • a prothrombin time test
  • a K reductase time test
  • a Synacthen test
  • a plasmin time test
  • a water deprifation test

Question 104

Question
Warfarin is an anticoagulant.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 105

Question
Warfarin works essentially by blocking the enzyme [blank_start]vitamin[blank_end] [blank_start]K[blank_end] [blank_start]reductase[blank_end], and thus blocks all the stuff said vitamin makes. It is prescribed for heart conditions--such as [blank_start]atrial[blank_end] [blank_start]fibrillation[blank_end]--and for thrombotic conditions--[blank_start]deep[blank_end] [blank_start]vein[blank_end] thrombosis and [blank_start]pulmonary[blank_end] embolisms are the classics. Also, it is given post [blank_start]orthopedic[blank_end] surgery.
Answer
  • vitamin
  • K
  • reductase
  • atrial
  • fibrillation
  • deep
  • vein
  • pulmonary
  • orthopedic

Question 106

Question
Vitamin K enhances the functionality of Warfarin.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 107

Question
Antithrombin III deficiency is a hereditary, relatively harmless, and common condition.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 108

Question
DVT and pulmonary embolisms are both complications of Antithrombin III deficiency.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 109

Question
Warfarin acts on the thrombus by dissolving it.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 110

Question
TPA ([blank_start]tissue[blank_end] [blank_start]plasminogen[blank_end] [blank_start]activator[blank_end]) is used in drugs dealing with thrombotic problems. It [blank_start]dissolves[blank_end] the clot.
Answer
  • tissue
  • plasminogen
  • activator
  • dissolves

Question 111

Question
What causes Hemophilia A?
Answer
  • Factor 8 deficiency
  • Factor 9 deficiency
  • Factor 12 deficiency
  • Factor 5 deficiency

Question 112

Question
What is Hemophilia B due to?
Answer
  • Factor 7 deficiency
  • Factor 5 deficiency
  • Factor 9 deficiency
  • Factor 11 deficiency

Question 113

Question
[blank_start]Vasculogenesis[blank_end] is the formation of new blood vessels completely from scratch from [blank_start]endothelial[blank_end] precursor cells.
Answer
  • Vasculogenesis
  • endothelial

Question 114

Question
Myofibroblasts need a lot of extracellular matrix.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 115

Question
Mature tissue contains [blank_start]dense[blank_end] collagen (collagen [blank_start]I[blank_end]) and blood channels. It is [blank_start]acellular[blank_end] connective tissue.
Answer
  • dense
  • I
  • acellular

Question 116

Question
What is true regarding Hypertrophic scars?
Answer
  • following physical injury
  • can be itchy
  • slightly raised
  • limit ability to move
  • appear shiny

Question 117

Question
What is true regarding contracture scars?
Answer
  • extremely tight skin
  • can limit ability to move
  • common with burns
  • shiny
  • very fine white line

Question 118

Question
What is true regarding keloid scars?
Answer
  • really noticeable
  • raised
  • shiny
  • usually after minor skin damage
  • not raised
  • fine white line
  • itchy

Question 119

Question
Sunken scars have a [blank_start]pitted[blank_end] kind of appearance. An example: [blank_start]chickenpox[blank_end] scars.
Answer
  • pitted
  • chickenpox

Question 120

Question
Scar treatment is often unecessary.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 121

Question
Which of these are ways to treat scars?
Answer
  • topical silicone gel
  • pressure dressings
  • steroids
  • make- up
  • cosmetic surgery
  • plastic surgery
  • flucloxacillin
  • acupuncture
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