Copy and Edit

Childhood Year 1: Pathology focus :)

Description

Quiz on Childhood Year 1: Pathology focus :), created by Plymouth Med on 08/01/2018.
Plymouth Med
Quiz by Plymouth Med, updated more than 1 year ago
Plymouth Med
Created by Plymouth Med almost 7 years ago
6
0
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What is characteristic of the Paget's disease?
Answer
  • increased osteoblast and osteoclast activity
  • "bone pain" generally in one area, commonly pelvis and spine
  • structurally disorganized bone matrix with both excessive bone mass and bone resorption
  • increased osteoblast but decreased osteoclast activity
  • uniform concentric rings of organized bone matrix
  • "bone pain" spreading out to different areas of the body

Question 2

Question
Osteoblasts mature into these cells [blank_start]osteocytes[blank_end] once trapped in the bone matrix; they activate bone formation via [blank_start]altered signalling[blank_end] and apoptosis.
Answer
  • osteocytes
  • altered signalling

Question 3

Question
What do osteoblasts do?
Answer
  • synthesize new bone matrix
  • absorb and resorb more bone matrix
  • control bone metabolism

Question 4

Question
What is characteristic of osteoclasts?
Answer
  • from hematopoeitic stem cells
  • acts as macrophages
  • resorb bone
  • make more bone matrix
  • acts as fibroblasts
  • from mesenchymal stem cells

Question 5

Question
Where would you have the most interstitial growth?
Answer
  • epiphysis
  • metaphysis
  • diaphysis
  • epiphyseal growth plates
  • periosteum

Question 6

Question
[blank_start]Interstitial[blank_end] growth is [blank_start]lengthening[blank_end] growth. This is due to increased number of matrix-depositing cells. [blank_start]Appositional[blank_end] growth is [blank_start]widening[blank_end] growth. This is due to increased matrix deposition by the same number cells.
Answer
  • Interstitial
  • Appositional
  • widening
  • lengthening

Question 7

Question
In terms of calcium metabolism, the thyroid releases what hormone?
Answer
  • calcitonin
  • TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone)
  • T4
  • T3
  • PTH (parathyroid hormone)

Question 8

Question
Calcitonin causes increased calcium deposition in bone by inhibiting bone resorption.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 9

Question
What does parathyroid hormone do?
Answer
  • increase osteoclast activity
  • increase osteoblast activity
  • increase osteocyte activity
  • decrease osteoclast activity
  • decrease osteoblast activity
  • decrease osteocyte activity

Question 10

Question
Falling onto an outstretched hand/wrist causes what type of fracture most commonly?
Answer
  • scaphoid fracture
  • radial styloid fracture
  • humeral fracture
  • 3rd metacarpal fracture
  • ulnar styloid process
  • lunate fracture

Question 11

Question
What are bones of the hand?
Image:
Screen Shot 2018 01 08 At 9.20.06 Pm (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • scaphoid
  • lunate
  • triquetrum
  • pisiform
  • trapezium
  • trapezoid
  • capitate
  • hamate

Question 12

Question
What nerve would you damage if you were to break the shaft of the humerus?
Answer
  • radial
  • axillary
  • musculocutaneous
  • medial
  • ulnar

Question 13

Question
If the radial nerve is damaged, how might it present?
Answer
  • wrist drop even with fully extended forearm/arm
  • inability to abduct arm
  • inability to flex elbow
  • inability to flex shoulder
  • Benedict claw with fully extended forearm/arm

Question 14

Question
What does the musculocutaneous innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • flexor muscles of the arm
  • flexor muscles of the forearm
  • extensor muscles of the arm
  • extensor muscles of the forearm
  • 3.5 fingers of the hand

Question 15

Question
What does the axillary innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • deltoid, teres minor (shoulder muscles)
  • posterior arm flexor muscles
  • posterior forearm extensor muscles

Question 16

Question
What does the radial nerve NOT innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • posterior arm
  • posterior forearm
  • posterior medial 2 fingers of the hand

Question 17

Question
What does musculocutaneous innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • anterior forearm
  • anterior arm
  • anterior 3 medial fingers
  • posterior 3 medial fingers
  • posterior arm

Question 18

Question
What does ulnar nerve innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • posterior forearm muscles
  • posterior arm muscles
  • anterior forearm muscles
  • anterior arm muscles
  • anterior medial 2 fingers
  • posterior lateral 2 fingers

Question 19

Question
If there is loss of elbow flexion (can't flex biceps), there is damage to the [blank_start]musculocutaneous[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • musculocutaneous

Question 20

Question
if there is shoulder weakness or you're unable to abduct shoulder, then there is damage to the [blank_start]axillary[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • axillary

Question 21

Question
A hand of benediction is sign of damage to the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • median

Question 22

Question
Being unable to abduct or adduct the last 2 fingers is indicative of damage to the [blank_start]ulnar[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • ulnar

Question 23

Question
What does the ulnar provide sensory innervation to?
Answer
  • posterior and anterior 1.5 medial fingers
  • posterior and anterior lateral 2.5 fingers

Question 24

Question
What does the median provide sensory innervation to?
Answer
  • anterior 3.5 lateral fingers
  • posterior 3.5 lateral fingers
  • anterior 1.5 lateral fingers
  • posterior 1.5 lateral fingers

Question 25

Question
What does radial nerve provide sensory innervation to?
Answer
  • lateral arm
  • posterior forearm
  • posterior hand
  • anterior hand
  • anterior forearm
  • medial arm

Question 26

Question
The axillary nerve innervates the...in sensory wise
Answer
  • regimental badge area
  • anatomical snuffbox area
  • radial styloid badge area

Question 27

Question
Musculocutaneous provides sensory innervation to lateral forearm down to the thenar prominence (at the base of the thumb.)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 28

Question
Numbness at the back of the wrist and hand is due to damage to the sensory innervation by the [blank_start]radial[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • radial

Question 29

Question
Damage to the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve will lead to parethesia to the lateral 3 anterior fingers.
Answer
  • median

Question 30

Question
Loss of sensation in the median of the hand and the medial first 2 fingers is damage to the [blank_start]ulnar[blank_end] nerve.
Answer
  • ulnar

Question 31

Question
Damage to the radial nerve leads to wrist drop. What are some pathologies in which the radial nerve gets hurt?
Answer
  • Radial nerve palsy
  • Saturday night nerve palsy
  • Humerus shaft fracture
  • Erb's palsy
  • Bell's palsy
  • Klumpke's palsy

Question 32

Question
How might you injure the axillary nerve?
Answer
  • dislocation of the humeral head
  • surgical neck of the humerus fracture
  • dislocation of the clavicle
  • pulling the deltoid muscle

Question 33

Question
You might harm the musculocutaneous nerve via a medial epicondyle fracture.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 34

Question
A winged scapula is indicative of damage to the [blank_start]long thoracic nerve[blank_end] (spinal roots C5-C7.)
Answer
  • long thoracic nerve

Question 35

Question
The spinal roots of the musculocutaneous nerve are (in numerical order from least to greatest) are [blank_start]C5[blank_end], [blank_start]C6[blank_end], and [blank_start]C7[blank_end].
Answer
  • C5
  • C6
  • C7

Question 36

Question
The Axillary nerve is from the roots [blank_start]C5[blank_end] and [blank_start]C6[blank_end] (in numerical order.)
Answer
  • C5
  • C6

Question 37

Question
The radial nerve is from the spinal roots [blank_start]C5[blank_end] to [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
Answer
  • C5
  • T1

Question 38

Question
The ulnar nerve is from the spinal roots of [blank_start]C8[blank_end] and [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
Answer
  • C8
  • T1

Question 39

Question
The spinal roots of the median nerve is [blank_start]C5[blank_end] or [blank_start]C6[blank_end] to [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
Answer
  • C5
  • C6
  • T1

Question 40

Question
Which of these myotomes and action pairings are correct?
Answer
  • C4: shoulder elevation
  • C5: chicken abduction (wings)
  • C6: elbow flexion
  • C6: wrist extension
  • C7: elbow extension
  • C7: wrist flexion
  • C8: thumb extension (thumbs up)
  • T1: finger abduction (fanned fingers)
  • C6: wrist flexion
  • C6: elbow extension

Question 41

Question
What is true regarding Erb's palsy?
Answer
  • damage to the upper part of the brachial plexus (C5 and C6)
  • damage to the lower part of the brachial plexus (C7 C8 and T1)
  • motorbike accidents can cause this
  • improper birthing techniques (pull baby's head against pelvic bones while labor) can cause this
  • landing on an outstretched arm from a big height can cause this
  • results in a "waiter's tip"
  • results in a "clawed hand"
  • damage to the axillary nerve
  • damage to the suprascapular nerve
  • damage to the musculocutaneous nerve

Question 42

Question
What is the myasthenia gravis?
Answer
  • At the neuromuscular junction, the body produces antibodies against the acetylcholine receptors
  • Intense morning sickness that needs anti-emetics as treatment
  • the gradual degradation of muscle fibers, starting from top of the head to bottom of the feet
  • loss of sensation in some or all motor units of certain muscles

Question 43

Question
How might myasthenia gravis present?
Answer
  • ptosis
  • fluctuating fatiguability
  • dysphagia
  • limb weakness
  • fever
  • constant fatigue
  • slow reaction times

Question 44

Question
How would you manage myasthenia gravis?
Answer
  • acetylcholine esterase inhibitors
  • acetylcholine reuptake enhancers
  • acetylcholine esterase activators
  • acetylcholine agonists

Question 45

Question
The [blank_start]abdominal aorta[blank_end] bifurcates into the [blank_start]right common illiac[blank_end] and the [blank_start]left common illiac[blank_end]. The right illiac again bifurcates into the [blank_start]internal illiac[blank_end] and the [blank_start]external illiac[blank_end]. The external illiac becomes the [blank_start]right femoral[blank_end], which is the deep artery of the right thigh. In the popliteal fossa, the right femoral becomes the right [blank_start]popliteal[blank_end] artery. The right popliteal further bifurcates into the [blank_start]right anterior tibial[blank_end] and the [blank_start]right posterior tibial.[blank_end] The right posterior tibial, which is the pulse felt at the ankle, becomes the [blank_start]posterior right fibular.[blank_end] The right anterior tibial becomes the right [blank_start]dorsalis pedalis[blank_end].
Answer
  • abdominal aorta
  • common thoracic aorta
  • right common illiac
  • right mesenephric
  • left common illiac
  • left mesenephric
  • internal illiac
  • internal femoral
  • external illiac
  • external femoral
  • right femoral
  • right fibular
  • popliteal
  • tibial
  • right anterior tibial
  • right anterior popliteal
  • right posterior tibial.
  • right posterior popliteal
  • posterior right fibular.
  • anterior right fibular.
  • dorsalis pedalis
  • dorsis plantaris

Question 46

Question
Which of the following could cause carpal tunnel syndrome?
Answer
  • pregnancy
  • rheumatoid arthiritis
  • repetitive use of hands
  • septic arhritis
  • osteomalacia
  • osteoporosis

Question 47

Question
Compression of the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve as it travels through the [blank_start]carpal[blank_end] [blank_start]tunnel[blank_end] in the wrist is Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.
Answer
  • median
  • carpal
  • tunnel

Question 48

Question
How does Carpal Tunnel Syndrome present?
Answer
  • numbness
  • parasthesia/pain over median nerve area
  • thumb muscle atrophy
  • worse at ngiht
  • worse at day
  • redness
  • swelling

Question 49

Question
What are management options of the carpal tunnel syndrome?
Answer
  • local corticosteroids
  • night time splinting
  • day time splinting
  • anabolic steroids
  • always surgical decompression
  • if severe surgical decompression
  • avoid further injury via strain

Question 50

Question
What are the nerves of the lower limb?
Answer
  • Femoral
  • Sciatic
  • Obturator
  • Common fibular
  • common fibular deep branch
  • common fibular superficial branch
  • tibial
  • sural
  • fibial
  • common femoral

Question 51

Question
The [blank_start]sural[blank_end] nerve only innervates sensory-wise. It innervates the skin of the [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]lateral[blank_end] foot.
Answer
  • sural
  • posterior
  • lateral

Question 52

Question
What does the sciatic innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • the posterior compartment of the thigh
  • the anterior compartment of the thigh
  • lateral compartment of the thigh
  • the medial compartment of the thigh

Question 53

Question
What does the femoral nerve innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • anterior thigh
  • posterior thigh
  • lateral thigh
  • medial thigh

Question 54

Question
What does the obturator nerve innervate muscle wise?
Answer
  • anterior thigh
  • posterior thigh
  • lateral thigh
  • medial thigh

Question 55

Question
What does the common fibular deep branch innervate muscle wise?
Answer
  • anterior leg
  • posterior leg
  • lateral leg
  • medial leg

Question 56

Question
What does the superficial branch of the common fibular innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • anterior leg
  • posterior leg
  • lateral leg
  • medial leg

Question 57

Question
What does the tibial nerve innervate muscle-wise?
Answer
  • posterior leg
  • anterior leg
  • medial leg
  • lateral leg
  • sole of the foot
  • top of the foot

Question 58

Question
The femoral nerve's sensory innervation includes the [blank_start]anterior[blank_end] thigh and [blank_start]medial[blank_end] leg.
Answer
  • anterior
  • medial

Question 59

Question
The obturator nerve's sensory innervation is the [blank_start]medial[blank_end] thigh.
Answer
  • medial

Question 60

Question
The [blank_start]deep[blank_end] branch of the common fibular's sensory innervation is the skin of the upper lateral leg.
Answer
  • superficial

Question 61

Question
The deep branch of the common fibular's sensory innervation is the [blank_start]lower[blank_end] [blank_start]lateral[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]dorsal[blank_end] foot.
Answer
  • dorsal
  • lower
  • lateral

Question 62

Question
Both the [blank_start]sciatic[blank_end] nerve (which bifurcates in the [blank_start]popliteal[blank_end] fossa into the [blank_start]tibial[blank_end] nerve and the common fibular nerve) and the [blank_start]tibial[blank_end] nerve innervate (sensory-wise) the [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] thigh and [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]plantar[blank_end] foot.
Answer
  • sciatic
  • popliteal
  • tibial
  • tibial
  • posterior
  • posterior
  • plantar

Question 63

Question
The sciatic nerve's spinal roots are [blank_start]L4-S3[blank_end].
Answer
  • L4-S3
  • L2-S3
  • L1-L2
  • L3-S2
  • L4-S2

Question 64

Question
Dorsiflexion is a sign of damage to what nerve?
Answer
  • tibial
  • deep branch of the common fibular
  • common fibular
  • femoral
  • sural

Question 65

Question
Inability to dorsiflex (so basically having a foot drop) is indicative of damage to what nerve?
Answer
  • common fibular
  • sciatic
  • femoral
  • sural
  • obturator
  • superficial branch of the common fibular

Question 66

Question
What movements does the femoral nerve allow?
Answer
  • flexion of hips
  • extension of the knee
  • extension of the hips
  • flexion of the knees
  • abduction of the leg
  • adduction of the leg

Question 67

Question
What innervates hip extension and knee flexion?
Answer
  • Inferior gluteal
  • sciatic nerve
  • superior gluteal
  • tibial
  • common fibular

Question 68

Question
The [blank_start]obturator[blank_end] nerve allows hip adduction. On the other hand, the [blank_start]superior[blank_end] [blank_start]gluteal[blank_end] nerve allows hip abduction.
Answer
  • obturator
  • superior
  • gluteal

Question 69

Question
What are the main types of arthritis?
Answer
  • osteoarthritis
  • inflammatory arthritis
  • septic arthritis
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • crystal-induced arthritis

Question 70

Question
[blank_start]Primary[blank_end] osteoarthritis and [blank_start]secondary[blank_end] osteoarthritis are the two types of osteoarthritis.
Answer
  • Primary
  • secondary

Question 71

Question
The three types of inflammatory arthritis: rheumatoid, [blank_start]crystal-induced,[blank_end] and [blank_start]psoriatic[blank_end].
Answer
  • crystal-induced,
  • psoriatic

Question 72

Question
What are the two types of crystal-induced arthritis?
Answer
  • gout
  • pseudogout
  • rheumatoid
  • psoriatic
  • none of the above

Question 73

Question
What is a degenerative disease that affects the joints, often due to wear and tear of articular cartilage?
Answer
  • osteoarthritis
  • synovitis
  • crepitus
  • joint stiffness
  • subarticular sclerosis

Question 74

Question
How might osteoarthritis present?
Answer
  • joint stiffness in the evening/morning
  • generally worse after walking
  • palpable bony swelling on the hands' interphalangeal joints
  • reduced range of motion
  • crepitus in the joints
  • insomnia
  • generalized swelling around major joints
  • locked joints
  • synovitis

Question 75

Question
An X-ray investigation of osteoarthritis will show...
Answer
  • reduced joint space
  • subarticular sclerosis
  • osteophytes
  • bony cysts
  • glued up joint space
  • cartilage cysts
  • osteocytes

Question 76

Question
For osteoarthritis, the only management is supportive/palliative.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 77

Question
What is an autoimmune disease that also ends in joint destruction?
Answer
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • septic arthritis
  • osteoarthritis
  • gout

Question 78

Question
What is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?
Answer
  • specific joint pain in the morning
  • specific joint pain in the evening
  • joints affected symetrically
  • joint inflammation
  • joints affected asymetrically

Question 79

Question
All of these are part of the management of rheumatoid arthritis BUT
Answer
  • NSAIDs
  • physiotherapy
  • Methtrexate
  • DMARDs
  • Antibiotics followed by corticosteroids

Question 80

Question
Which of the following regarding the investigation of rheumatoid arthritis is true?
Answer
  • will find rheumatoid factor in serum
  • x-ray will reveal bone erosion
  • x-ray will reveal reduced joint space
  • periarticular osteopenia
  • visible deformity
  • x-ray will reveal
  • excessive bone growth

Question 81

Question
The deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints is a type of arthritis called [blank_start]gout[blank_end]. This usually happens if there are high levels of [blank_start]uric[blank_end] acid in the blood. The risk factors are [blank_start]obesity[blank_end] and [blank_start]purine[blank_end] (one of the building blocks of DNA) rich food. The most common occurence is at the big [blank_start]toe[blank_end] joint. Symptoms include [blank_start]synovitis[blank_end] (swelling of the joint), [blank_start]malaise[blank_end] (general ill-feeling), and [blank_start]tophi[blank_end] [blank_start]lumps[blank_end] (crystals.) These crystals are visible under polarized light microscopy. The primary way to test for this is to take [blank_start]aspirate[blank_end] fluid in the joint, gram stain it to rule out septic arthritis, and test the fluid for levels of uric acid.
Answer
  • gout
  • uric
  • purine
  • obesity
  • toe
  • synovitis
  • malaise
  • tophi
  • lumps
  • aspirate

Question 82

Question
The treatment plan is for what? 1. NSAIDs 2. Colchicine 3. Corticosteroids
Answer
  • chronic gout
  • acute gout
  • goutisis
  • pseudogout

Question 83

Question
Other than lifestyle changes to reduce urate levels, we give those with [blank_start]chronic[blank_end] [blank_start]gout[blank_end] the drug allopurinol.
Answer
  • gout
  • chronic

Question 84

Question
Accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate crystals in joints causes pseudogut as well.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 85

Question
What is of clinical importance regarding septic arthritis?
Answer
  • medical emergency
  • take the aspirate fluid in join and gram stain it
  • take a blood culture (full blood count) and see if there's a high amount of leukocytes
  • take a blood culture (full blood count) and see if there's a high amount of c-reactive protein
  • x-ray will show increased joint space
  • x-ray will show decreased joint space
  • chronic/gradual development
  • to manage, should drain aspirate fluid
  • to manage, should give antibiotics
  • presents like an infection plus reduced joint functionality and synovitis

Question 86

Question
Prostacyclin is prostaglandin [blank_start]12[blank_end], which is produced by the [blank_start]epithelium[blank_end]. Prostacyclin prevents excess [blank_start]platelet[blank_end] [blank_start]aggregation[blank_end] during the platelet plug.
Answer
  • 12
  • epithelium
  • platelet
  • aggregation

Question 87

Question
[blank_start]Thrombocytoplenia[blank_end] is when there are too few platelets in the body. It can be treated with [blank_start]thrombopoietin[blank_end], which will increase the platelet number. It takes [blank_start]6[blank_end] days for progress to be apparent though.
Answer
  • Thrombocytoplenia
  • thrombopoietin
  • 6

Question 88

Question
Platelets only adhere to smooth epithelial surfaces.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 89

Question
[blank_start]Von[blank_end] [blank_start]Willebrand[blank_end] Disease is when a person is missing vWF and therefore have difficulty with [blank_start]hemostasis[blank_end] (the stopping of bloodloss.)
Answer
  • Willebrand
  • Von
  • hemostasis

Question 90

Question
If there is a suspicion of liver disease, one should check if [blank_start]coagulation[blank_end] is affected because it very well could be.
Answer
  • coagulation

Question 91

Question
Coagulation can be affected in: diseases affecting [blank_start]protein[blank_end] [blank_start]formation[blank_end] [blank_start]genetic[blank_end] diseases of the clotting [blank_start]factors[blank_end]
Answer
  • protein
  • formation
  • genetic
  • factors

Question 92

Question
There are 2 coagulation pathways: they meet up at factor [blank_start]10[blank_end]. The intrinsic pathway begins with factor [blank_start]12[blank_end]. This is when the [blank_start]inside[blank_end] of the blood vessel gets damage without any necessary external damage. Ex: [blank_start]hypertension[blank_end] (erodes.) The extrinsic pathways begin with factor [blank_start]3[blank_end]. Damage from [blank_start]outside[blank_end] to the blood vessel. Usually accompanies tissue damage.
Answer
  • 10
  • 12
  • 3
  • hypertension
  • inside
  • outside

Question 93

Question
The outside aspect of a scab is called an [blank_start]eschar[blank_end].
Answer
  • eschar

Question 94

Question
What is true regarding vitamin K?
Answer
  • produces anticoagulant protein c
  • produces coagulant protein z
  • produces anticoagulant protein s
  • produces factor 7
  • produces factor 9
  • produces prothrombin
  • produces factor 10
  • produces fibrinogen
  • produces factor 5

Question 95

Question
Vitamin K helps with bone metabolism by increasing calcification.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 96

Question
Vitamin K is from kale and kiwi.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 97

Question
Vitamin K is stored in muscle
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 98

Question
The "tea and toast" diet is associated with vitamin [blank_start]B[blank_end][blank_start]12[blank_end] deficiency. Patients can present as [blank_start]weakness[blank_end], paresthesia (tingliness), and [blank_start]irritability[blank_end]. Vegetarians and [blank_start]vegans[blank_end] often have this. B12 helps make the [blank_start]myelin[blank_end] [blank_start]sheath[blank_end] in neurons.
Answer
  • B
  • 12
  • weakness
  • irritability
  • myelin
  • sheath
  • vegans

Question 99

Question
[blank_start]Allodynia[blank_end] is when the patient complains that "everything" is painful, even stimuli that are not usually painful.
Answer
  • Allodynia

Question 100

Question
[blank_start]Hyperalgesia[blank_end] is when you have an increased pain response to painful stimulus.
Answer
  • Hyperalgesia

Question 101

Question
Primary healing is when you actively bring together both edges of the wound to stimulate heealing.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 102

Question
Secondary healing is when you leave the wound alone to heal
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 103

Question
Warfarin is given following
Answer
  • a prothrombin time test
  • a K reductase time test
  • a Synacthen test
  • a plasmin time test
  • a water deprifation test

Question 104

Question
Warfarin is an anticoagulant.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 105

Question
Warfarin works essentially by blocking the enzyme [blank_start]vitamin[blank_end] [blank_start]K[blank_end] [blank_start]reductase[blank_end], and thus blocks all the stuff said vitamin makes. It is prescribed for heart conditions--such as [blank_start]atrial[blank_end] [blank_start]fibrillation[blank_end]--and for thrombotic conditions--[blank_start]deep[blank_end] [blank_start]vein[blank_end] thrombosis and [blank_start]pulmonary[blank_end] embolisms are the classics. Also, it is given post [blank_start]orthopedic[blank_end] surgery.
Answer
  • vitamin
  • K
  • reductase
  • atrial
  • fibrillation
  • deep
  • vein
  • pulmonary
  • orthopedic

Question 106

Question
Vitamin K enhances the functionality of Warfarin.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 107

Question
Antithrombin III deficiency is a hereditary, relatively harmless, and common condition.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 108

Question
DVT and pulmonary embolisms are both complications of Antithrombin III deficiency.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 109

Question
Warfarin acts on the thrombus by dissolving it.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 110

Question
TPA ([blank_start]tissue[blank_end] [blank_start]plasminogen[blank_end] [blank_start]activator[blank_end]) is used in drugs dealing with thrombotic problems. It [blank_start]dissolves[blank_end] the clot.
Answer
  • tissue
  • plasminogen
  • activator
  • dissolves

Question 111

Question
What causes Hemophilia A?
Answer
  • Factor 8 deficiency
  • Factor 9 deficiency
  • Factor 12 deficiency
  • Factor 5 deficiency

Question 112

Question
What is Hemophilia B due to?
Answer
  • Factor 7 deficiency
  • Factor 5 deficiency
  • Factor 9 deficiency
  • Factor 11 deficiency

Question 113

Question
[blank_start]Vasculogenesis[blank_end] is the formation of new blood vessels completely from scratch from [blank_start]endothelial[blank_end] precursor cells.
Answer
  • Vasculogenesis
  • endothelial

Question 114

Question
Myofibroblasts need a lot of extracellular matrix.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 115

Question
Mature tissue contains [blank_start]dense[blank_end] collagen (collagen [blank_start]I[blank_end]) and blood channels. It is [blank_start]acellular[blank_end] connective tissue.
Answer
  • dense
  • I
  • acellular

Question 116

Question
What is true regarding Hypertrophic scars?
Answer
  • following physical injury
  • can be itchy
  • slightly raised
  • limit ability to move
  • appear shiny

Question 117

Question
What is true regarding contracture scars?
Answer
  • extremely tight skin
  • can limit ability to move
  • common with burns
  • shiny
  • very fine white line

Question 118

Question
What is true regarding keloid scars?
Answer
  • really noticeable
  • raised
  • shiny
  • usually after minor skin damage
  • not raised
  • fine white line
  • itchy

Question 119

Question
Sunken scars have a [blank_start]pitted[blank_end] kind of appearance. An example: [blank_start]chickenpox[blank_end] scars.
Answer
  • pitted
  • chickenpox

Question 120

Question
Scar treatment is often unecessary.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 121

Question
Which of these are ways to treat scars?
Answer
  • topical silicone gel
  • pressure dressings
  • steroids
  • make- up
  • cosmetic surgery
  • plastic surgery
  • flucloxacillin
  • acupuncture
Show full summary Hide full summary

Want to create your own Quizzes for free with GoConqr? Learn more.

Similar

Plano de Revisão Geral
miminoma
AQA GCSE Biology genetic variation
Olivia Phillips
enzymes and the organ system
Nour
Kwasi Enin - College Application Essay
philip.ellis
GCSE Biology, Module B4
jessmitchell
Biology -B2
HeidiCrosbie
Of Mice and Men Quotes
_Jess_
GCSE AQA Biology 1 Nerves & Hormones
Lilac Potato
Psychology subject map
Jake Pickup
Test your English grammar skills
Brad Hegarty
General Pathoanatomy Final MCQs (201-300)- 3rd Year- PMU
Med Student
Browse Library