Question 1
Question
Susan is a secondary school nurse. She has received a referral about Wendy from the guidance officer. Prior to meeting Wendy, Susan reads the school report and meets with Wendy's home room teacher. Susan is currently in what phase of the therapeutic relationship with Wendy?
Answer
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Pre-orientation
-
Orientation
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Termination
-
Working
Question 2
Question
A patient’s unresolved feelings related to loss would be MOST LIKELY observed during which phase of the therapeutic nurse-patient relationship?
Answer
-
Pre-orientation
-
Working
-
Orientation
-
Termination
Question 3
Question
During which phase of the nurse-patient relationship can the nurse anticipate that identified patient issues will be explored and resolved?
Answer
-
Preorientation
-
Orientation
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Working
-
Termination
Question 4
Question
At what point in the nurse-patient relationship should a nurse plan to first address termination?
Answer
-
During the orientation phase
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At the end of the working phase
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Near the beginning of the termination phase
-
When the patient initially brings up the topic
Question 5
Question
You are assessing Deepak and you ask him what he might do if he was in a shop and heard a fire alarm. You are assessing which of the following?
Answer
-
Perception
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Judgement
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Memory
-
Concentration
Question 6
Question
Which of the following cognitive tasks is NOT an assessment of short term or long term
memory?
Answer
-
Ask the patient to tell you his or her address and later, you check the answer with patient’s medical record.
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Ask the patient to name as many animals as possible that can be found in the Zoo.
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Ask the patient to name the current day/month/year.
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Inform the patient 3 objects (e.g. Apple, Newspaper and Train) and ask the patient to name the 3 objects immediately.
Question 7
Question
Which of the below are examples of questions to screen for perception abnormalities:
Answer
-
Do you ever see, hear, smell, feel, or taste things that are not really there?
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Did you think this was real at the time?
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Do you still believe it was real?
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All of the above.
Question 8
Question
Lisa is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. The nurse should advise Lisa`s family that Lisa`s fear of being overweight can be equated to her desire to?
Question 9
Question
Bulimia nervosa is characterised by recurrent binge eating and inappropriate use of compensatory behaviours. The most common example of a compensatory behaviour is:
Select the MOST CORRECT answer
Answer
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Self-induced vomiting.
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Use of laxatives.
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Excessive exercising.
-
All of the above.
Question 10
Question
In Schizophrenia, the term anhedonia refers to?
Answer
-
An inability to enjoy food
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An inability to express empathy
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An inability to react to enjoyable or pleasurable events
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An inability to react appropriately to social cues
Question 11
Question
What? occurs most commonly in schizophrenia, depression, and bipolar disorder?
Answer
-
Decreased need to sleep
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Paranoid delusions
-
Avolition
-
Low self esteem
Question 12
Question
Visual hallucinations are seen in:
Answer
-
Delirium tremens
-
Phobia
-
Depression
-
Mania
Question 13
Question
FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `F` in FRAMES acronym?
Answer
-
Fliight of ideas
-
Feedback
-
Flashback
-
Frotteurism
Question 14
Question
FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `R` in FRAMES acronym?
Answer
-
Reliability
-
Reinforcement
-
Responsibility
-
Resistance
Question 15
Question
FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `A` in FRAMES acronym?
Answer
-
Abulia
-
Affect
-
Analysis
-
Advice
Question 16
Question
FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `M` in FRAMES acronym?
Answer
-
Menu Options
-
Mania
-
Mood
-
Memory
Question 17
Question
FRAMES is a model for conducting brief interventions within substance use settings. Which of the following relates to `S` in FRAMES acronym?
Answer
-
Somatic hallucination
-
Somatic delusion
-
Self-Efficacy
-
Stupor
Question 18
Question
When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The S in STAMP stands for?
Answer
-
Staring and eye contact
-
Sign
-
Signal anxiety
-
Social adaptation
Question 19
Question
When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The T in STAMP stands for?
Answer
-
Thought broadcasting
-
Tone and volume of voice
-
Tolerance
-
Temperament
Question 20
Question
When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The M in STAMP stands for?
Answer
-
Mood
-
Mirroring
-
Mumbling
-
Memory
Question 21
Question
When considering a client's risk of violence, a nurse might use the acronym STAMP for their assessment. The P in STAMP stands for?
Answer
-
Panic attack
-
Paranoia
-
Phobia
-
Pacing
Question 22
Question
Which is not one of the five stages within the trans-theoretical (stages of change) model
Answer
-
Maintenance
-
Pre-contemplation
-
Behavioural engagement
-
Preparation
Question 23
Question
You smell something that no one else can and that has no physical source.
Question 24
Question
You have a taste in your mouth that has no source.
Question 25
Question
Delusion – a belief or impression maintained despite being contradicted by reality or rational argument, typically as a symptom of mental disorder.
Question 26
Question
A significant risk factor for the development of an eating disorder is which if the following?
Answer
-
Low self-esteem
-
A very thin parent
-
High self esteem
-
High personal regard
Question 27
Question
Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for anorexia nervosa in DSMV?
Answer
-
A refusal to maintain a minimal body weight
-
A pathological fear of gaining weight
-
A distorted body image in which, even when clearly emaciated, sufferers continue to insist they are overweight
-
All of the above
Question 28
Question
Steven would experience panic if he goes to a shopping centre. He finds crowded places are difficult to escape. Steve may have:
Answer
-
Antlophobia
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Agoraphobia
-
Chronophobia
-
Urophobia
Question 29
Question 30
Question
Which of the following is NOT true for someone experiencing a panic attack?
Answer
-
they should be considered to have a respiratory problem until this is ruled out
-
the first step to treatment is to slow down their breathing
-
they will respond better if you raise your voice when talking to them
-
they are likely to present to an Emergency Department
Question 31
Question
Jo is admitted to an acute adult mental health ward. Two days after her admission, Jo expresses suicidal ideation. Jo tells the nurse she feels at peace and is fine. Jo informs the nurse that she would like to be discharged. The nurse understands that:
Answer
-
Jo's condition is improving and therefore home leave or discharge would be helpful
-
Jo remains at risk of suicide and requires further assessment
-
Jo is ready for discharge as she now feels well again
-
Jo has resolved her negative affect and now feels hopeful for the future. Jo can be discharged
Question 32
Question
The term suicidal ideation is defined as which of the following?
Answer
-
The accidental act of taking one's own life
-
Thinking about and planning one's own death
-
An unintentional overdose
-
Planning another's death
Question 33
Question
Which of the following is not an antidepressant drug?
Answer
-
Tricyclic antidepressants.
-
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs).
-
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
-
Antinoamine tritase rehibitor (ATRs).
Question 34
Question
Anxiolytic drugs are used to treat:
Answer
-
The symptoms of depression and mood disorder.
-
The symptoms of anxiety and stress.
-
The symptoms of psychosis and schizophrenia.
-
Loss of sexual desire.
Question 35
Question
Antipsychotics do which of the following?
Answer
-
Alleviate Major positive symptoms (such as thought disorder and hallucinations).
-
Alleviate Major negative symptoms (such as social withdrawal).
-
Reducing the burden of institutional care.
-
Promote personal growth and productivity.
Question 36
Question
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are effective for the treatment of:
Question 37
Question
Jason tells you that he is being spied on by the Government and that as a result he needed to quit his job so that the spies could not find him. This is an example of which of the following?
Answer
-
Ideas of reference
-
Visual hallucination
-
Tangential thinking
-
Persecutory delusion
Question 38
Question
Generalised Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a pervasive condition in which the sufferer experiences:
Answer
-
Fear of fear.
-
Continual apprehension and anxiety about future events.
-
Continual flashbacks to past events.
-
A desire to check that the environment is safe.
Question 39
Question
Tim has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and whilst experiencing a psychotic episode is hospitalised. Which of the following are likely to be Tim's negative symptoms?
Answer
-
Absent, blunted or incongruous emotional responses.
-
Suicidal ideation, introversion, poor hygiene
-
Disorganised behaviours, pressure of speech, social isolation
-
Anhedonia, lethargy, social isolation
Question 40
Question
In relation to alcohol use all of the following are symptoms of delirium tremens EXCEPT?
Answer
-
Confusion
-
Visual hallucination
-
Disorientation
-
Insomnia
Question 41
Question
In Bipolar II Disorder, major depressive episodes alternate with periods of:
Answer
-
Hyperventilation.
-
Hypomania.
-
Hypothermia.
-
Hypoxia.
Question 42
Question
The nurse working with a client with an antisocial personality disorder would expect which of the following behaviours?
Answer
-
withdrawal from social activities
-
compliance with expectations and rules
-
utilisation of rituals to allay anxiety
-
exploitation of other clients
Question 43
Question
In Schizophrenia psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations delusions, disorganised speech and grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviours are known as:
Answer
-
Negative symptoms
-
Positive symptoms
-
Mediating symptoms
-
Catastrophic symptoms
Question 44
Question
Misinterpretation of perceptions or experiences in Schizophrenia are known as:
Answer
-
Hallucinations
-
Misperceptions
-
Delusions
-
Avolition
Question 45
Question
A normal or stable mental state is described as
Answer
-
Dysthymic
-
Euthymic
-
Euphoric
-
Dysphoric
Question 46
Question
A persistent mild depression is described as
Answer
-
Dysthymic
-
Euthymic
-
Euphoric
-
Dysphoric
Question 47
Question
A feeling of intense excitement and happiness is described as
Answer
-
Dysthymic
-
Euthymic
-
Euphoric
-
Dysphoric
Question 48
Question
A state of mental discomfort or suffering is described as
Answer
-
Dysthymic
-
Euphoric
-
Euthymic
-
Dysphoric
Question 49
Question
Which of the following is an important factor in substance abuse?
Answer
-
Whether the substances are regularly used by other family members
-
Whether the family environment is rural or urban
-
Whether you are a twin
-
Whether you are born in the winter
Question 50
Question
Alcohol Dependence is supported specifically by evidence of tolerance effects and withdrawal symptoms that develop within:
Answer
-
1-2 hours of restricted consumption
-
3-6 hours of restricted consumption
-
4-12 hours of restricted consumption
-
12-24 hours of restricted consumption
Question 51
Question
Which of the following is not a hallucinogenic?
Answer
-
Cannabis
-
MDMA
-
LSD
-
Antibiotics
Question 52
Question
Which of the following are the consequences of vitamin and mineral deficiencies which can lead to dementia and memory disorders in alcohol abuse?
Answer
-
Smirnoff's syndrome
-
Korsakoff's syndrome
-
Helmert syndrome
-
Huynh-Feldt syndrome
Question 53
Question
An outdoor education program for adolescents who have been identified as 'at risk' of mental health problems is considered:
Answer
-
Rehabilitation
-
Prevention
-
Treatment
-
Early intervention
Question 54
Question
Which of the following is a subtype of Dramatic/Emotional Personality Disorders (Cluster B)
Answer
-
Paranoid Personality Disorder
-
Schizotypical Personality Disorder
-
Histrionic Personality Disorder
-
Schizoid Personality Disorder
Question 55
Question
Which of the following is NOT considered to be a risk factors for personality disorders ?
Answer
-
living in inner cities
-
low socioeconomic class
-
gender
-
being a young adult
Question 56
Question
A sixty-year-old client visits the mental health outpatient clinic, and tells the nurse that she "worries all the time and sometimes life just seems hopeless". The nurse suspects that the client is most likely experiencing
Answer
-
obsessive-compulsive disorder
-
panic disorder without agoraphobia
-
generalised anxiety disorder
-
borderline personality disorder
Question 57
Question
Jason is in hospital having experienced delusions and acute psychosis. He is now prescribed antipsychotic medications. You notice that he is pacing the hospital corridor and is unable to stay still even when you are trying to engage him in conversation. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?
Answer
-
Oculogyric crisis
-
Akinesia
-
Akathisia
-
Dystonia
Question 58
Question
Jason is in hospital having experienced a state of abnormal muscle tone resulting in muscular spasm and abnormal posture, typically due to neurological disease or a side effect of drug therapy. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?
Answer
-
Oculogyric crisis
-
Akinesia
-
Akathisia
-
Dystonia
Question 59
Question
Jason is in hospital having experienced bilateral elevation of the visual gaze. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?
Answer
-
Oculogyric crisis
-
Dystonia
-
Akathisia
-
Akinesia
Question 60
Question
Jason is in hospital having experienced a loss or an impairment of the power of voluntary movement. You assess Jason as most likely to be experiencing which of the following?
Answer
-
Oculogyric crisis
-
Akinesia
-
Akathisia
-
Dystonia