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Assessment 1.2 Practice

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phar530 assessment 1.2 practice
shadow_spiers
Quiz by shadow_spiers, updated more than 1 year ago
shadow_spiers
Created by shadow_spiers about 9 years ago
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Question 1

Question
Which of the following drug substance properties is important for capsule size selection?
Answer
  • Melting Point
  • Bulk density
  • Particle Size
  • Drug solubility

Question 2

Question
Which of the following is not part of Capsule Quality Control program
Answer
  • Drug Content
  • Friability Test
  • Dissolution test
  • Fill Weight
  • Disintegration Test

Question 3

Question
The stability dating requirements of USP 795 for the extemporaneous compounding of capsules are
Answer
  • 4 months if prepared from USP/NF ingredients or 25% of remaining expiration dating if prepared from commercial products
  • 6 months if prepared from USP/NF ingredients or 50% of remaining expiration dating if prepared from commercial products
  • 2 months if prepared from USP/NF ingredients or 25% of remaining expiration dating if prepared from commercial products
  • 6 months if prepared from USP/NF ingredients or 25% of remaining expiration dating if prepared from commercial products

Question 4

Question
For human use, eight capsule sizes are available ranging from:
Answer
  • the smallest No. 000 to the largest No.5.
  • the smallest No. 5 to the largest No. 000
  • the smallest No. 01 to the largest No. 08.
  • the smallest No. 1 to the largest No. 8

Question 5

Question
The coni-snap® hard gelatin capsules have a unique design that:
Answer
  • Enables the two halves of the capsule shell to fit like a lock and key.
  • Enables the two halves of the capsule shell to be fit together by strong compression forces.
  • Enables the two halves of the capsule shell to be positively joined through locking grooves in the shell walls.
  • Enables the two halves of the capsule shell to be sealed with strong polymer adhesive

Question 6

Question
The USP content uniformity test for capsules specifies that:
Answer
  • 9 out of 10 capsules are within 80% to 120% of labeled drug amount
  • 9 out of 10 capsules are within 85% to 115% of labeled drug amount
  • 9 out of 10 capsules are within 70% to 125% of labeled drug amount
  • 9 out of 10 capsules are within 75% to 125% of labeled drug amount

Question 7

Question
Substances that absorb moisture from the air to the extent that they liquefy are called
Answer
  • Deliquescent
  • Levigated
  • Efflorescent
  • Hygroscopic

Question 8

Question
The following property is especially important in dermatologicals
Answer
  • Rapid Disintegration
  • Content Uniformity
  • Nongrittiness of solid particles
  • Fast dissolution rate

Question 9

Question
Phenobartital divided powders have the advantage of
Answer
  • Being dispensed in sifter-top containers
  • Spreading uniformly, and clinging to the skin upon application
  • Allowing physicians to prescribe a precise amount of the drug
  • Having no irritant properties when applied externally

Question 10

Question
Which of the following is FALSE regarding a dusting powder?
Answer
  • Should flow easily, spread uniformly, and cling to the skin upon application
  • Would generally be dispensed in sifter-top containers
  • Must be able to have a systemic effect
  • Must be free from potential of causing local irritation

Question 11

Question
Which of the following is a natural emulsifying agent?
Answer
  • Acacia
  • Brij
  • Benzakonium Chloride
  • Myrj
  • Sodium lauryl sulfate

Question 12

Question
The following powders when mixed are an example of a eutectic mixture
Answer
  • Zinc oxide and glycerin
  • Phenol and talc powder
  • Camphor and menthol
  • Camphor and lactose

Question 13

Question
Metered inhalation aerosols containing micronized medicated powders typically have
Answer
  • A particle size in the range of 18-26μm
  • A particle size in the range of 1-6μm
  • A particle size in the range of 12-18μm
  • A particle size in the range of 6-12μm

Question 14

Question
Which of the following is not a component of the Lacrimal Apparatus?
Answer
  • Lacrimal Gland
  • Lacrimal Sac
  • Lacrimal Muscle
  • Lacrimal Ducts

Question 15

Question
Aqueous humor is produced by filtration of blood plasma in the region known as the:
Answer
  • Choroid
  • Lacrimal Caruncle
  • Conjunctiva
  • Ciliary Body

Question 16

Question
Which of the following statements regarding the ophthalmic insert “Ocusert” is NOT true?
Answer
  • Clinical acceptance of the device has been slow
  • It is a controlled delivery device for the drug pilocarpine
  • It is designed to dissolve completely in lacrimal fluids within a few days of insertion
  • It is more costly than traditional delivery systems such as solutions

Question 17

Question
Which layer(s) of the cornea offers the greatest barrier(s) to absorption into the eye for hydrophilic drugs?
Answer
  • Endothelial layer
  • Epithelial layer
  • Stroma
  • b and c only

Question 18

Question
Cataracts are caused by
Answer
  • clouding of the lens caused by clumping of crystallins.
  • loss of elasticity of the lens with age.
  • sloughing (peeling) of the posterior layers of the lens caused by various diseases
  • destruction of the cuboidal epithelial lining on the anterior surface of the lens.

Question 19

Question
To prevent possible corneal damage, ophthalmic formulations should be buffered in the pH range of:
Answer
  • 4.5 to 10.5
  • 6.5 to 8.5
  • 3.5 to 11.5
  • 5.5 to 9.5

Question 20

Question
Which of the following is NOT an antioxidant that has been found appropriate for use in ophthalmic formulations?
Answer
  • Sodium metabisulfite
  • Sodium Bisulfite
  • Thimerosal
  • Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid

Question 21

Question
Particle size can influence:
Answer
  • Penetrability of particles for inhalation (dry powder inhaler) for deposition deep in the respiratory tract.
  • Dissolution rate
  • Suspendability of suspensions
  • Uniformity of mixtures in powder dosage forms to ensure dose to dose content uniformity
  • All of the above

Question 22

Question
Below what pH will free phenobarbital begin to separate from a solution having an initial concentration of 2 g of sodium phenobarbital per 200 ml at 25 0C? The saturation solubility of phenobarbital is 0.005 M and the pKa =7.41 at 25 0C. Molecular weight of phenobarbital is 232 and sodium phenobarbital is 254.
Answer
  • 8.45
  • 8.25
  • 8.35
  • 8.55
  • 8.65

Question 23

Question
The process of comminution by utilizing a SOLVENT that can be easily removed is termed:
Answer
  • Geometric Dilution
  • Pulverization by intervention
  • Levigation
  • micronization

Question 24

Question
Which of the following is NOT an accurate characteristic of the rectum
Answer
  • It is nonmotile in the resting state
  • It is approximately 15 to 20 cm in length
  • The mucosal lining contains Goblet cells which release collagen into the lumen.
  • When void of fecal matter it has a fluid content of 2 to 3 ml

Question 25

Question
Of the veins that drain the blood from the rectal area, which one(s) bypass the liver and deliver blood directly to the systemic circulation?
Answer
  • The inferior and middle rectal veins
  • The inferior, middle and superior rectal veins
  • The inferior and superior rectal veins
  • The middle and superior rectal veins

Question 26

Question
The names of four drugs are given blow along with their corresponding density factors for cocoa butter. A. Aminophylline (1.1) B. Bismuth subnitrate (6.0) C. Menthol (0.7) D. Iodoform (4.0) For which drug would the greatest weight be required in order to displace 1 gram of coca butter from a formulation?
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D

Question 27

Question
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of drug dosing via the rectal route?
Answer
  • Drugs are not exposed to GI membrane enzymatic activity
  • It can be used for unconscious or debilitated patients
  • Absorption from the rectal area is more rapid and predictable than from other regions of the GI tract
  • Hepatic first-pass metabolism may be avoided partially or completely

Question 28

Question
The maximum amount of solid that can normally be incorporated into a suppository is ______ of the blank weight.
Answer
  • 50%
  • 40%
  • 30%
  • 10%

Question 29

Question
You desire to administer a drug rectally in order to obtain a rapid onset of action. Which of the following suppositories would you use?
Answer
  • An oleaginous base containing the unionized form of the drug
  • An oleaginous base containing a salt form of the drug
  • A water miscible base containing the unionized form of the drug
  • A water miscible base containing a salt form of the drug

Question 30

Question
You are preparing a cocoa butter suppository and have added ingredients that have lowered the melting point below that of room temperature. In order to elevate the melting point of the mixture you will add:
Answer
  • Beeswax
  • Chloral hydrate
  • Menthol
  • Camphor

Question 31

Question
The physical characteristics of Polyethylene glycol (PEG) polymers change with size. At what molecular weight do these polymers change from liquid to solid?
Answer
  • 100
  • 1000
  • 10000
  • 500

Question 32

Question
You prepared and recorded the disintegration time for salicylic acid capsules in different pH media. Which statement is TRUE?
Answer
  • The disintegration time of salicylic acid capsules was shortest in pH 7.4 buffer
  • The disintegration time of salicylic acid capsules was shortest in water
  • The disintegration time of salicylic acid capsules is longest in pH 1.2 buffer
  • The disintegration time of salicylic acid capsules was shortest in pH 1.2 buffer

Question 33

Question
Sedimentation rate of particles in suspension decreases with
Answer
  • Increase in the viscosity of dispersed phase
  • Increase in the particle size
  • Decrease in the viscosity of dispersed phase
  • Decrease in the viscosity of dispersion medium
  • Increase in the viscosity of dispersion medium

Question 34

Question
Shelf-life is generally based on the time when the active drug is greater than ______ of the labeled.
Answer
  • 99%
  • 95%
  • 90%
  • 85%

Question 35

Question
The pre-exponential factor, A, of the Arrhenius equation is representative of:
Answer
  • the probability that any given collision will result in a reaction
  • the total number of collisions per unit time, whether they lead to a reaction or not
  • the fraction of molecules in the reaction that have energies higher than that of the activation energy, Ea.
  • the total number of collisions per unit time that result in a reaction

Question 36

Question
A solution has a shelf-life of 10 hours at a temperature of 35oC. Use the Q10 method to estimate the shelf-life if the solution is stored in a refrigerator at 5oC. Use a value of 3 for Q10.
Answer
  • 30 hours
  • 90 hours
  • 150 hours
  • 270 hours

Question 37

Question
You are working in a pharmacy and are compounding a solid formulation in which the manufactured drug is the source of the active ingredient. The product’s expiration date is 16 months from today. What Beyond Use Date will you assign this formulation?
Answer
  • 6 months
  • 4 months
  • 30 days
  • 14 days

Question 38

Question
A pharmacist compounding a fine dusting powder typically would triturate the components of the formulation in a mortar with a pestle and subsequently pass the mixture through a (n):
Answer
  • #8 mesh sieve
  • #80 mesh sieve
  • #20 mesh sieve
  • #60 mesh sieve

Question 39

Question
Soft gelatin capsules are made of gelatin
Answer
  • to which polysorbate 80 has been added
  • to which glycerin has been added
  • to which mineral oil has been added
  • to which camphor has been added

Question 40

Question
Which one of the following has the highest aqueous solubility?
Answer
  • C6H5OH
  • C6H4(OH)2
  • C6H3Cl3
  • C6H5Cl
  • C6H3(OH)3

Question 41

Question
Which of the following is NOT a major factor affecting solubility?
Answer
  • Temperatur
  • pH of the solution
  • Polarity of the solvent
  • Polarity of the solute
  • Moleculare weight of the solvent

Question 42

Question
Active transport processes include all of the following except for which one?
Answer
  • Active transport of drug molecules may be saturated at high drug concentrations
  • Active transport moves drug molecules against a concentration gradient
  • active transport requires energy
  • Active transport follows fick's law of diffusion
  • Active transport is a carrier mediated transport system

Question 43

Question
When comparing an amorphous form of a drug to a crystalline form of a drug:
Answer
  • Amorphous forms dissolve more quickly
  • crystalline forms are more pharmacologically active
  • Metastable forms are more clinically effective
  • Amorphous forms are more chemically stable

Question 44

Question
According to the FDA Biopharmaceutics classification system, the class III type compounds are those with:
Answer
  • High solubility, low permiability
  • High solubility, high permeability
  • low solubility, low permeability
  • low solubility, high permeability

Question 45

Question
What imparts the pink color to Calamine USP
Answer
  • FD&C red no3
  • Carmine
  • Zinc Oxide
  • Ferric Oxide

Question 46

Question
Chemicals of indeterminate quality would be labeled as
Answer
  • USP/NF
  • ACS Reagent
  • Chemically Pure
  • Technical or commercial

Question 47

Question
this grade of ingredients is : High purity; conforms to minimum specifications set by the Reagent Chemicals Committee of the American Chemicals Society
Answer
  • USP/NF
  • ACS Reagent
  • Chemically Pure
  • Technical or commercial

Question 48

Question
This grade of chemicals is :More refined than technical or commercial grade but still of unknown quality
Answer
  • USP/NF
  • ACS Reagent
  • Chemically Pure
  • Technical or commercial

Question 49

Question
This grade of chemicals : Meets the minimum purity standards; and conforms to tolerances set by the United States Pharmacopeia/National Formulary for contaminants dangerous to health
Answer
  • USP/NF
  • ACS Reagent
  • Chemically Pure
  • Technical or commercial

Question 50

Question
Which of the following is NOT true for crystal polymorphs?
Answer
  • May have different solubility
  • May have different dissolution rates
  • May have different physical and chemical stability
  • May have different chemical structures
  • May have different melting points

Question 51

Question
Which condition usually increases the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?
Answer
  • Use of enteric coating
  • Use of the ionized or salt of the drug
  • Use of the free acid or free base form of the drug
  • Decrease surface area of the drug
  • Increase particle size of the drug

Question 52

Question
Which of the following is FALSE regarding inconsistencies in dissolution rates?
Answer
  • Dose units within a batch typically give consistent dissolution results
  • dose units within a batch typically give inconsistent dissolution results
  • dissolution inconsistencies can occur between batches or products from the same manufacturer
  • Dissolution inconsistencies can occur between batches or products from different manufacturers

Question 53

Question
All of the following factors depend on the rate of active drug dissolution within the gastrointestinal content EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Fraction of the administered dose that is bioavailable
  • Time after administration until therapeutic action begins
  • Intensity of systemic pharmacologic effects
  • site of action in the body

Question 54

Question
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the need for a dosage form?
Answer
  • To provide for a safe and convenient delivery of accurate dosage
  • To conceal the bitter, salty, or offensive taste, or odor of a drug
  • To protect the drug substance from the destructive influences of atmospheric oxygen or humidity
  • To enhance the dissolution rate of a drug substance.

Question 55

Question
What is the minimum weighable quantity with no more than 5% error for a balance with a sensitivity requirement of 6mg?
Answer
  • 300mg
  • 30mg
  • 120mg
  • 3mg

Question 56

Question
The Prescription balance needed for weighing chemicals is currently designated as a class ____ balance by the national bureau of standards
Answer
  • I
  • II
  • III
  • P
  • Q

Question 57

Question
A Class III balance should have a sensitivity requirement of:
Answer
  • 10mg
  • 5mg
  • 6mg
  • 2mg

Question 58

Question
All of the following are part of the compendial requirements for tablets according to USP/NF EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Tablet Content Uniformity test
  • Tablet Weight Variation Test
  • Tablet Thickness Test
  • Tablet Dissolution test
  • Tablet Disintegration test

Question 59

Question
At the first sign of Angina attack the patient should reach out and:
Answer
  • Apply Nitro ointment to the chest
  • Apply a Nitro patch to the skin
  • Swallow a sustained release 2.5 mg Nitro capsule
  • Place a sublingual Nitro tablet under the tongue

Question 60

Question
The requirements for tablet content uniformity are met if the amount of active ingredient in each dose unit is within the range:
Answer
  • 95-105% of the label claim and the standard deviation less than 6%
  • 90-110% of the label claim with a standard deviation less than 6%
  • 85-115% of the label claim and a standard deviation of less than 6%
  • 80-120% of the label claim and a standard deviation of less than 6%

Question 61

Question
Which of the following excipients can NOT be used in the formulation of tetracycline antibiotics?
Answer
  • Microcrystalline cellulose
  • starch
  • talc powder
  • Calcium Phosphate

Question 62

Question
The partial or complete separation of the top or bottom crowns of a tablet from the main body of the tablet is known as
Answer
  • Lamination
  • Picking
  • Slugging
  • Capping
  • Mottling

Question 63

Question
All of the following statements reflect the importance of in-vitro dissolution testing EXCEPT:
Answer
  • It guides the formulation and product development towards product optimization
  • It is a requirement for regulatory approval of marketed products registered with the FDA
  • It is important for guiding the testing of class I BCS type compounds
  • Consistent dissolution testing ensures bioequivalence between batch to batch

Question 64

Question
Which of the following organic esters is commonly used in enteric coating of solid dosage forms?
Answer
  • Phosphate
  • Tannate
  • Acrylate
  • Phthalate
  • Succinate

Question 65

Question
Which of the following is NOT a candidate for an extended release product?
Answer
  • Drug with narrow therapeutic index
  • Drug administered in relatively small doses
  • Drug that exhibits neither slow nor fast rate of excretion
  • Drug must be absorbed/excreted at a moderate rate
  • Drug used in the treatment of chronic conditions

Question 66

Question
Which of the following products is an osmotic oral release system?
Answer
  • Spansule Capsule
  • Glucotrol XL
  • Micro-K10 extencaps
  • Desoxyn gradument

Question 67

Question
What is a feature of Procardia XL tablets?
Answer
  • Tablet remains intact in the stool
  • Rapid disintegration to quickly release components
  • Protect the drug from the acidic stomach environment
  • Fast dissolving of the outer core of the tablet allowing the drug dose to be immediately available
  • Orally disintegrating tablet which releases in the mouth within 1 minute

Question 68

Question
Tablets that are characterized by disintegrating or dissolving in the mouth within 1 minute are called:
Answer
  • Effervescent Tablets
  • Enteric coated Tablets
  • Modified release tablets
  • Immediate release tablets
  • Rapidly dissolving Tablets

Question 69

Question
Which chapter in the USP/NF provides for the procedures and requirements for nonsterile type of compounding?
Answer
  • 1075
  • 1163
  • 795
  • 797
  • 1160

Question 70

Question
In which of the following kinetic processes does the value of the half-life remain constant irrespective of time or amount of reactant?
Answer
  • Second order
  • First order
  • Zero order
  • All of the above

Question 71

Question
You prepare 2 plots. One you plot ln(Y) vs time. One you plot log(Y) vs time. Both plots yield straight lines. For which of these plots is the negative slope the steepest?
Answer
  • Plot of ln(Y) vs time
  • Plot of Log(Y) vs time
  • The slopes of the two lines are the same
  • The slopes depend on the amounts of Y present initially

Question 72

Question
The rate constant (k) is 0.08 moles/minute. If we begin the rxn with 10 moles of Y, how much Y will disappear in the first minute of the reaction
Answer
  • 0.08 moles
  • 0.4 moles
  • 0.8 moles
  • 10 moles

Question 73

Question
A ________ Dispersion has particles that range in the diameter from 1nm to 0.5micron and that are visible in an electron microscope but not an ordinary optical microscope
Answer
  • Molecular
  • Cellular
  • Coarse
  • Colloidal

Question 74

Question
Which of the following types of compounds would be least susceptible to degradation via oxidation
Answer
  • Alcohols
  • Esters
  • Aldehydes
  • Molecules with unsaturated linkages

Question 75

Question
The most important cause of drug decomposition is
Answer
  • Oxidation
  • Reduction
  • hydrolysis
  • condensation

Question 76

Question
How many half lives would it take for 90% of any initial concentration of a drug to disappear from a reaction vessel, assuming first order chemical kinetics?
Answer
  • 6.7
  • 4.3
  • 2.7
  • 3.3

Question 77

Question
In which of the following kinetic processes is the rate constant the same as the rate?
Answer
  • Zero-order
  • Second-order
  • Michaelis-Menten
  • first-order

Question 78

Question
When the concentration of the drug (Y) is low (Y<<K), the process will best be described by:
Answer
  • Zero-order
  • First-order
  • Second-order
  • Unimolecularity

Question 79

Question
An Inert system is:
Answer
  • Thermodynamically stable and kinetically stable
  • Thermodynamically unstable and kinetically unstable
  • Thermodynamically stable and kinetically unstable
  • Thermodynamically unstable and kinetically stable

Question 80

Question
Which kinetic process is linear
Answer
  • Zero-order
  • First-order
  • Both A and B
  • Neither a nor B
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