Copy and Edit

Final 1

Description

RTH110 RTH110 Quiz on Final 1, created by wch2952 on 12/10/2015.
wch2952
Quiz by wch2952, updated more than 1 year ago
wch2952
Created by wch2952 about 9 years ago
126
1
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
A voluntary professional association for respiratory care practitioners.
Answer
  • TJC - The Joint Commission
  • CRT
  • RRT
  • AARC
  • NBRC

Question 2

Question
The national credentialing agency for respiratory care practitioners.
Answer
  • CRT
  • RRT
  • AARC
  • NBRC
  • JCAHO

Question 3

Question
One who successfully passes the Entry Level exam earns these credentials.
Answer
  • JCAHO
  • CRT
  • RRT
  • AARC
  • NBRC

Question 4

Question
One who passes the Advanced Practioner level exam earns these credentials.
Answer
  • JCAHO
  • CRT
  • RRT
  • AARC
  • NBRC

Question 5

Question
A private, voluntary association that establishes standards for accrediting institutions responsible for health care.
Answer
  • TJC- The Joint Commission
  • CRT
  • RRT
  • AARC
  • NBRC

Question 6

Question
Freedom to decide about one's own care?
Answer
  • Veracity
  • Autonomy
  • Confidentiality
  • Nonmaleficence
  • Beneficence

Question 7

Question
Binds the patient and the health care provider to tell the truth.
Answer
  • Veracity
  • Autonomy
  • Confidentiality
  • Nonmaleficence
  • Beneficence

Question 8

Question
Privileged information, which may not be revealed without express permission.
Answer
  • Veracity
  • Autonomy
  • Confidentiality
  • Non-maleficence
  • Beneficence

Question 9

Question
Never use treatment to injure or harm the sick.
Answer
  • Veracity
  • Autonomy
  • Confidenitaltiy
  • Nonmaleficence
  • Beneficence

Question 10

Question
Requires that the care giver actively contribute to the health and well being of the patient.
Answer
  • Veracity
  • Autonomy
  • Confidentiality
  • Nonmaleficence
  • Beneficence

Question 11

Question
Any conduct which creates a resonable apprehension of being touched in an injurous manner
Answer
  • Negligence
  • Assault
  • Slander
  • Libel
  • Malpractice

Question 12

Question
The failure to do something that a reasonable person, guided by ordinary considerations, would do.
Answer
  • Negligence
  • Assault
  • Slander
  • Libel
  • Malpractice

Question 13

Question
Defamation by the written word
Answer
  • Negligence
  • Assault
  • Slander
  • Libel
  • Malpractice

Question 14

Question
Defamation by oral speech
Answer
  • Negligence
  • Assault
  • Slander
  • Libel
  • Malpractice

Question 15

Question
Unreasonable lack of skills to fulfill professional duties
Answer
  • Negligence
  • Assault
  • Slander
  • Libel
  • Malpractice

Question 16

Question
A predefined category of admitting diagnoses, which have a fixed rate of reimbursement
Answer
  • Therapist Driven Protocol
  • DRG
  • Licensure
  • CQI
  • Credentialing

Question 17

Question
An ongoing process designed to detect and correct factors that interfere with the delivery of quality, cost effective health care
Answer
  • Therapist Driven Protocol
  • DRG
  • Licensure
  • CQI
  • Credentialing

Question 18

Question
A specific algorithm used by RCPs to independently initiate and adjust therapy using guidelines established by medical staff
Answer
  • Therapist Driven Protocol
  • DRG
  • Licensure
  • CQI
  • Credentialing

Question 19

Question
A process whereby a private agency recognizes that certain qualification have been met by an individual to work as a Respiratory Care Practitioner.
Answer
  • Therapist Driven Protocol
  • DRG
  • Licensure
  • CQI
  • Credentialing

Question 20

Question
Permission granted by a government agency to practice an occupation
Answer
  • Therapist Driven Protocol
  • DRG
  • Licensure
  • CQI
  • Credentialing

Question 21

Question
An approach based on the natural course of an ilness that integrates the way the products and services are used and reimbursed
Answer
  • Evidence Based Medicine
  • Disease Management
  • Patient Focused Care
  • Peer Review Organizations

Question 22

Question
A service outside the scope of a respiratory therapist's care would be:
Answer
  • Pulmonary function studies
  • Managing mechanical ventilators
  • Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
  • Assisting with laser bronchoscopy
  • Performing a tracheotomy ( a surgical opening in the throat)

Question 23

Question
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of using therapist driven protocols
Answer
  • Ensure consistency among providers
  • Better allocation of resources
  • Better to meet the needs of a patient's changing clinical condition
  • Requires the practitioner to remain in constant contact with the physician
  • Addresses the issue of cost containment

Question 24

Question
The main reason thta the state requires all practicing RCPs to have a current license from the Board of Medicine
Answer
  • So they can collect more money for the state budget
  • To help ensure that only qualified personnel are performing patient care duties
  • To keep a current record of the number of RCPs in Virginia
  • To identify which programs practioners have completed their education and training

Question 25

Question
When making your patient rounds, you have a heated discussion with a staff nurse who refuses to allow you to give a patient a STAT breathing treatment ordered until she first gives the patinet a bath. To resolve this issue, you should first notify the:
Answer
  • Doctor
  • Shift supervisor
  • Ordering physician
  • Medical director
  • Department director

Question 26

Question
Asepsis is defined as:
Answer
  • The absence of all living things
  • The absence of disease producing microorganisms
  • The absence of all forms of microorganisms
  • The absence of only bacteria

Question 27

Question
Sterile is defined as:
Answer
  • The absence of all living organisms
  • The absence of disease producing microorganisms
  • The absence of contaminants
  • The absence of bacteria

Question 28

Question
Infection control strategies aim to do all of the following EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Create barriers to transmission
  • Monitor and evaluate control procedures
  • Categorize patients at risk
  • Eliminate the source of the pathogen

Question 29

Question
A term used to describe a microorganism capable of producing disease Bacteria
Answer
  • Bacteria
  • Virus
  • Pathogen
  • Virulent

Question 30

Question
Nosocomial infections are ___________ acquired infections
Answer
  • Community
  • Hospital
  • Strictly respiratory
  • Sexually

Question 31

Question
To minimize the spread of infection, you should wash your hands for a minimum of _________ between patients.
Answer
  • 15 seconds
  • 30 seconds
  • 60 seconds
  • 2 minutes

Question 32

Question
Most hospital acquired infections will be caused by:
Answer
  • Viruses
  • Fungi
  • Bacteria
  • Protozoa

Question 33

Question
Unless otherwise indicated, this type of precaution should be used for all patients.
Answer
  • Strict Isolation Precautions
  • Standard precautions
  • Transmission based precautions
  • Contact precautions

Question 34

Question
Once properly identified, viruses often respond to antibiotic therapy.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 35

Question
Which types of patients are particularly susceptible to nosocomial infections? (select all that apply)
Answer
  • Diabetics
  • Immunosuppressed
  • Radiation therapy
  • Surgical
  • Non-medicated psychiatric

Question 36

Question
Patients with artifical airways, such as a trach, are at increased risk for nosocomial infections because: (select all that apply)
Answer
  • The normal filtration system of the upper airway is bypassed
  • Contamination of the trach during routine care, such as suctioning
  • Predisposing condition, such as COPD, weakens the immune system

Question 37

Question
The single most important method of reducing hospital acquired infections is:
Answer
  • Do not touch the patient’s nose
  • Good hand washing technique
  • Double bagging of all respiratory equipment
  • Putting all trached patient’s in isolation

Question 38

Question
The most difficult of all pathogens to kill are
Answer
  • Bacteria
  • Viruses
  • Spores
  • Fungi

Question 39

Question
Which of the following is NOT a major route of infection into the lung
Answer
  • Blood borne
  • Contact
  • Aspiration
  • Inhalation

Question 40

Question
A lab method used for classifying bacteria
Answer
  • Bronchoscopy
  • Isolation
  • Gram staining
  • Surveillance

Question 41

Question
Protective or reverse isolation is required for all of the following types of patients EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Burn
  • Transplant
  • Immunosuppressed
  • Pediatric

Question 42

Question
When water is not available, which of the following may be used as long as hands are not visibly dirty?
Answer
  • Gel containing 25% alcohol
  • Rinse containing 60% alcohol
  • Bleach
  • Betadine
  • Hydrogen peroxide

Question 43

Question
A Ziehl-Neelsen stain, also called an acid fast test, is used to specifically identify which organism?
Answer
  • Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
  • Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
  • Staphylococcus
  • Spores

Question 44

Question
Unlike airborne precautions, droplet precautions are used for infectious agents which usually do not travel beyond this distance.
Answer
  • 1 foot
  • 3 feet
  • 6 feet
  • 12 feet

Question 45

Question
Masks, gowns, gloves and goggles are items which are considered:
Answer
  • Personal protective equipment
  • Sterile attire
  • Accessory equipment
  • Standard attire

Question 46

Question
Of the following, which type of infection is most likely to lead to death?
Answer
  • Blood
  • Pulmonary
  • Urinary tract
  • Superficial

Question 47

Question
The most common route for the spread of nosocomial infections
Answer
  • Blood Borne
  • Vector
  • Contact
  • Airborne

Question 48

Question
Of the various sources of infection within the hospital, which are NOT easily controlled?
Answer
  • Staff
  • Visitors
  • Equipment
  • Patients

Question 49

Question
The single most important method to infection control is:
Answer
  • Wearing gloves
  • Washing Hands
  • Using standard precautions
  • Isolating patients

Question 50

Question
One who carries a microorganism
Answer
  • Host
  • Vehicle
  • Guest
  • Colony

Question 51

Question
Disease causing organisms are called:
Answer
  • Germs
  • Pathogens
  • Nosocomial
  • Bugs

Question 52

Question
A possible by-product of ethylene oxide sterilization is:
Answer
  • Polyhydrine chlorate
  • Ethylene monoxide
  • Ethylene gylcol
  • Sodium hypochlorite

Question 53

Question
Of the follwoing choices, which method of cleaning is the BEST for instruments which are used to enter the body or the blood stream?
Answer
  • Detergent washing
  • High level disinfection
  • Sterilization
  • Intermediate level disinfection

Question 54

Question
The most difficult of all pathogens to kill:
Answer
  • Bacteria
  • Viruses
  • Fungi
  • Spores

Question 55

Question
What method of disinfection uses hot water immersion at 63-70 C for 30 minutes?
Answer
  • Autoclaving
  • Pasteurization
  • ETO
  • Broths

Question 56

Question
What are the major consideration when using disposable equipment?
Answer
  • Cost
  • Quality
  • Accesability
  • Convenience

Question 57

Question
The preferred method fo sterilization of equipment that has been grossly contaminated with an extremely virulent (aggressive) pathogen, and is no longer of use, is which of the following?
Answer
  • ETO
  • Irradiation
  • Incineration
  • Autoclaving

Question 58

Question
An item has returned from the Central Sterile Suppy after being autoclaved. The outside processing color indicator has converted showing heat exposure. You now know:
Answer
  • The item is sterile
  • It has been properly exposed to gas
  • It has been properly exposed to steam
  • It has been properly exposed to Cidex

Question 59

Question
Of the follwoing techniques, which is not capable of sterilization?
Answer
  • Pasteurization
  • ETO
  • Irradiation
  • Gluteradehyde

Question 60

Question
What is the appropriate concentration of ethyl or isopropyl alcohol when used for surface disinfection?
Answer
  • 40% -50%
  • 50% - 60%
  • 70% - 90%
  • 100%

Question 61

Question
Sterilization is achieved by various means through effecting the cells in which way(s)?
Answer
  • Denaturation
  • Coagulation
  • Surface tension reduction
  • Interference with metabolism/reproduction

Question 62

Question
Which of the following do we depend upon to guarantee sterilization?
Answer
  • Biologic inidcator strip/capsule (Attest)
  • Heat sensitive tape
  • Gas sensitive tape
  • Thermo couplers

Question 63

Question
Quality control requires use of both cylce strips (gas or steam) and biologic indicators to confirm proper processing.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 64

Question
Once activated, Cidex will be fully potent for:
Answer
  • 24-72 hours
  • 5-7 days
  • 7-10 days
  • 14 days
  • 28 days

Question 65

Question
The pH range for Cidex is:
Answer
  • 2.5 - 3.5
  • 4.5 - 5.5
  • 7.35 - 7.45
  • 7.5-8.5

Question 66

Question
Once opened, sterile fluids may be used within ___ before they should be disposed.
Answer
  • 8 hours
  • 12 hours
  • 24 hours
  • 48 hours

Question 67

Question
The types of tests for contamination include all of the following except:
Answer
  • Swab surfaces
  • Broths
  • Ethylene oxide
  • Sporacidal capsules

Question 68

Question
Which of the following steps is not part of basic equipment processing?
Answer
  • Wash then rinse or surface disinfect
  • Pre-soak in glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes
  • Air dry completely
  • Package as required

Question 69

Question
A simple disinfectant made with vinegar and water (1:3) contains which of the following?
Answer
  • Cidex
  • Sodium hypochlorite
  • Ethylene glycol
  • Acetic acid

Question 70

Question
"Processing by risk" means:
Answer
  • Risk to the employee must be considered
  • Risk to the equipment must be considered
  • How the item is to be used determines the level of cleaning required
  • Determining how long the equipment is considered useable once properly cleaned

Question 71

Question
Alcohol is best used for:
Answer
  • Sterilization
  • Surface disinfection
  • Soaking electronic equipment
  • All of the above

Question 72

Question
Another name for bleach is:
Answer
  • Sonacide
  • Sodium hypochlorite
  • Ethylene glycol
  • Acetic acid

Question 73

Question
A method which combines heat and pressure to achieve sterilization
Answer
  • Autoclaving
  • Pasteurization
  • Ethylene oxide
  • Ionizing radiation

Question 74

Question
Fluid and medication precautions include which of the following?
Answer
  • Use sterile fluids
  • Whenever possible, use medications that the patient has brought from home
  • Use unit dose vials
  • Dispose of unused fluids immediatley after opening

Question 75

Question
When using contact precautions, where should single patient use equipment be disposed?
Answer
  • Proper trash receptacle inside the patient's room
  • Inside the respiratory department
  • Central sterile
  • At the nurse's station

Question 76

Question
The chemical symbol for nitric oxide gas is: [blank_start]NO[blank_end]
Answer
  • NO

Question 77

Question
The chemical symbol for carbon dioxide gas is [blank_start]CO2[blank_end]
Answer
  • CO2

Question 78

Question
The chemical symbol for Oxygen is [blank_start]O2[blank_end]
Answer
  • O2

Question 79

Question
The chemical symbol for Helium gas is [blank_start]He[blank_end]
Answer
  • He

Question 80

Question
The chemical symbol for Nitrogen gas is [blank_start]N[blank_end]
Answer
  • N

Question 81

Question
The color code for CO2 gas is [blank_start]Grey[blank_end]
Answer
  • Grey

Question 82

Question
The color code for Helium gas is [blank_start]Brown[blank_end]
Answer
  • Brown

Question 83

Question
The color code for Nitrous oxide gas is [blank_start]blue[blank_end]
Answer
  • blue

Question 84

Question
The color code for air is [blank_start]yellow[blank_end]
Answer
  • yellow

Question 85

Question
The color code for oxygen is [blank_start]green[blank_end]
Answer
  • green

Question 86

Question
Our natural atmosphere contains [blank_start]21[blank_end]% oxygen
Answer
  • 21

Question 87

Question
Our natural atmosphere contains [blank_start]78[blank_end]% nitrogen
Answer
  • 78

Question 88

Question
Oxygen will explode at 100% purity
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 89

Question
Oxygen is produced commercially through the process of
Answer
  • Friction
  • Fractional distillation of liquid air
  • Fracturing liquid air
  • Breaking down water using a molecular sieve

Question 90

Question
Taking safety into consideration, at what pressure is it recommended to change used tanks for a full tank?
Answer
  • 500 psi
  • 100 psi
  • 200 psi
  • When it is completely empty

Question 91

Question
As a safety device, if an E cylinder's internal pressure or temperature is rising to dangerous levels, the _________ will activate thereby releasing the gas safely.
Answer
  • Fusible plug
  • Frangible disk
  • Teflon washer
  • Gas loc seal

Question 92

Question
If a medical gas cylinder has a "+" mark after its service pressure, it may be filled up to ___ psi.
Answer
  • 2000
  • 2100
  • 2200
  • 2440

Question 93

Question
Standards of gas purity are set by the
Answer
  • Compressed Gas Association
  • Food and Drug Administration
  • American Medical Association
  • American Association for Respiratory Care

Question 94

Question
Which organization requires color coding of gas cylinders?
Answer
  • Food and Drug Administration
  • Department of Transportation
  • National Fire and Protection Agency
  • Compressed Gas Association

Question 95

Question
The ___________________ is a safety system, for tanks larger than E, that uses threaded connections, which vary in thread number and thread angle, so that similar sized cylinders containing dissimilar gases cannot be misused.
Answer
  • American Standard Safety System
  • Diameter Index Safety System
  • Pin Index Safety System
  • Thread Index Safety System

Question 96

Question
The ONLY sure way to verify that oxygen is contained in a cylinder is by:
Answer
  • Reading the label
  • Verifying the color code
  • Analyzing the gas contents
  • Attaching the proper regulator

Question 97

Question
A device that incorporates both a reducing valve and a flow device is a ________________.
Answer
  • Analyzer
  • Flow meter
  • Regulator
  • Gas loc seal

Question 98

Question
An H cylinder of oxygen contains ________ cu ft. of gas.
Answer
  • 22
  • 244
  • 50
  • 44

Question 99

Question
What style regulator do small size cylinders use?
Answer
  • Threaded
  • Yoke style
  • Thorpe
  • "Bore" style

Question 100

Question
The safety system that applies to the valve outlets of small cylinders
Answer
  • Pin Index Safety System
  • Diameter Index Safety System
  • Threaded Index Safety System
  • Quick Connect Safety System

Question 101

Question
As a safety device, if an H cylinder's internal temperature or pressure rises to dangerous levels, the _________________ will activate, thereby safely releasing the gas.
Answer
  • Fusible plug
  • Frangible disk
  • Teflon washer
  • Regulator

Question 102

Question
What is the purpose of "cracking" the tank?
Answer
  • To test if the gas has a smell before connecting the regulator
  • To prevent debris from entering the regulator
  • To determine if there is a leak in the tank
  • To test to see if the safety system is working properly

Question 103

Question
The only accurate method to determine the contents of a liquid filled cylinder is
Answer
  • Read the pressure gauge
  • Weigh the cylinder
  • Turn the flow-meter to flush and measure how much gas comes out
  • Determine the temperature of the gas in the tank as gas volume is affected by temperature

Question 104

Question
If a tank is leaking after putting on a regulator, which of the following is the proper course of action?
Answer
  • Check and tighten all connections
  • Replace the tank
  • Check the outlet for debris
  • Check/replace the washer

Question 105

Question
Calculate the duration of flow from the cylinder. Your final answer must be in hours and minutes. A full H cylinder when the flowmeter is set at 5L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder
Answer
  • 23 hours and 2 minutes
  • 2 hours and 3 minutes
  • 17 hours and 47 minutes
  • 1 hour and 35 minutes

Question 106

Question
Calculate the duration of flow from the following cylinder. An E cylinder containing 1250 psi and the flowmeter is set at 3L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder.
Answer
  • 1 hour and 10 minutes
  • 1 hour and 56 minutes
  • 65 hours and 25 minutes
  • 39 hours and 15 minutes

Question 107

Question
Calculate the duration of flow for the following cylinder. An E cylinder containing 1800 psi and the flowmeter is set at 2L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder.
Answer
  • 4 hours and 12 minutes
  • 3 hours and 2 minutes
  • 47 hours and 6 minutes
  • 68 hours

Question 108

Question
Calculate the duration of flow for the following cylinder. An H cylinder containing 1200 psi and the flowmeter is set at 8L/min. For safety reasons, assume that you will NOT use all of the gas in the cylinder.
Answer
  • 7 hours and 51 minutes
  • 3 hours and 16 minutes
  • 25 minutes
  • 4 hours and 35 minutes

Question 109

Question
A patient has a nasal cannula and needs to be transported with an E cylinder that is lying flat underneath the stretcher. You would recommend using which type of flowmeter?
Answer
  • A Thorpe tube flow meter
  • An air oxygen proportioner
  • Bourdon style flow meter
  • Quick connect

Question 110

Question
Which of the following safety systems is utilized for equipment operating at less than 200 psi to prevent misconnections to inappropriate gases?
Answer
  • Diameter Index Safety System
  • American Index Safety System
  • Pin Index Safety System
  • Frangible disk and fusible plug combinations

Question 111

Question
If the outlet of a Bourdon gauge became partially obstructed creating back pressure, the indicated flow would ___________.
Answer
  • Show no flow
  • Be lower than you set
  • Be higher than you set
  • Show no change at all

Question 112

Question
It is possible to distinguish between a single stage reducing valve and a multi-stage reducing valve by counting the number of _____________.
Answer
  • Gauges
  • Threads
  • Pins
  • Pop-offs

Question 113

Question
When using this type of flowmeter the ball will jump when plugged into a gas source
Answer
  • Compensated thorpe tube
  • Uncompensated thorpe tube
  • Bourdon gauge
  • Flowmeter calibrated to be used with Heliox

Question 114

Question
The Bourdon gauge measures:
Answer
  • Tidal Volume
  • Pressure
  • Oxygen percentage
  • Type of cylinder content

Question 115

Question
Used as an alternative means for providing air to a patient without using an air cylinder
Answer
  • Manifold
  • Compressor
  • Regulator
  • Concentrator

Question 116

Question
The standard working pressure for medical gas equipment is ________.
Answer
  • .28 psi
  • 3.14 psi
  • 2200 psi
  • 50 psi
  • 200 psi

Question 117

Question
The device which converts the high pressure within a cylinder to a workable pressure is a:
Answer
  • Reducing valve
  • Kinetic flowmeter
  • A pop-off valve
  • A zone valve

Question 118

Question
Bulk piping alarms activate when:
Answer
  • The system detects a drop in pressure
  • The gas supply is completely empty
  • The system detects an interruption in gas flow, possibly because of an obstruction
  • The system has been tampered with

Question 119

Question
The NFPA standard for bulk oxygen systems requires that the reserve supply be:
Answer
  • Equal to the average of one days use (24 hours)
  • A fixed bank of 75 H cylinders
  • At least three small liquid cylinders
  • 100 ft of gas per bed

Question 120

Question
The advantage to using liquid bulk storage oxygen systems is:
Answer
  • A great deal of gas is available from a relatively small amount of liquid oxygen
  • It is the most economical means of providing oxygen to a facility
  • It provides a continuous oxygen supply to multiple station outlets
  • It provides oxygen at a uniform pressure of 50 psi

Question 121

Question
The terminal point of a piping system where equipment, such as a flowmeter, can be connected is the:
Answer
  • Station outlet
  • Manifold
  • Zone valve
  • Main shut off

Question 122

Question
A device used to both reduce pressure and control the flow from a medical gas cylinder is:
Answer
  • Compressor
  • Thrope tube flowmeter
  • Reducing valve
  • Regulator

Question 123

Question
The key property of helium which makes it useful as a therapeutic gas is its:
Answer
  • Low solubility
  • Low density
  • Poor conductive qualities
  • Chemical inertness

Question 124

Question
The limiting factor of a Thorpe tube flowmeter is:
Answer
  • Size
  • Weight
  • Gravity
  • Cost

Question 125

Question
When using a Thorpe tube style flowmeter, where should you look to read the actual flow being delivered?
Answer
  • At the top of ball
  • The middle of the ball
  • At the bottom of the ball

Question 126

Question
This device is used to mix both air and oxygen proportionally to deliver a specific FIO2
Answer
  • Compressor
  • Concentrator
  • Blender
  • Manifold system

Question 127

Question
When oxygen is in use, which of the following items should be avoided?
Answer
  • Smoking materials
  • Electrical devices
  • Friction toys

Question 128

Question
As a safety precaution, when oxygen is in use, a sign should be visibly posted.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 129

Question
This type of alarm will sound when low pressure is sensed while using an air-oxygen proportioner:
Answer
  • Shut off alarm
  • Pop off alarm
  • Manifold alarm
  • Reed alarm

Question 130

Question
The purpose of a pop off valve is:
Answer
  • To whistle when gas pressure has been reduced to 50 psi
  • To act as a safety mechanism and vent excessive gas pressure
  • To convert high pressure to working pressure
  • To regulate flow to the patient

Question 131

Question
This type of valve is used Used to isolate regions during times of maintenance or for fire safety without cutting off the entire system
Answer
  • Main shut off valves
  • Reed Alarms
  • Zone Valves
  • Compressors

Question 132

Question
You are called to assist in transporting a patient to radiology. The patient is currently on oxygen therapy using a nasal cannula set at 2 liter per minute. According to the nurse, the test will take exactly 2 hours. The room that will be used during the test does not have piped oxygen available. You have obtained an “E” cylinder containing 1500 psi. According to the information above, will you have enough oxygen in the tank to last during the procedure?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 133

Question
Alveolar oxygen tension is determined by:
Answer
  • How much oxygen is available to breathe
  • How much oxygen can move across the a/c membrane
  • How much oxygen is needed to properly resaturate red blood cells
  • Ventilation

Question 134

Question
Which symbol represents the fraction of inspired air?
Answer
  • FaO2
  • FiO2
  • PaO2
  • PAO2

Question 135

Question
Total barometric pressure at sea level is:
Answer
  • 570 mmHg
  • 760 mmHg
  • 100 mmHg
  • 47 mmHg

Question 136

Question
The movement of air in and out of the lungs is called:
Answer
  • Ventilation
  • Respiration
  • Diffusion
  • Absorption

Question 137

Question
Which of the following in NOT a response to inadequate oxygen supply?
Answer
  • Increased heart rate
  • Increased blood pressure
  • Hiccups
  • Increased work of breathing

Question 138

Question
When oxygen therapy is indicated, what is the role of the RT?
Answer
  • Select the proper mode of administration
  • Select the proper dosage
  • Monitor patient response
  • Recommend necessary changes

Question 139

Question
An inadequate quantity of oxygen in the blood
Answer
  • Hypoxemia
  • Tachycardia
  • Asphyxia
  • Anemia

Question 140

Question
This can occur when high concentrations of oxygen are used and the oxygen replaces the nitrogen in the alveoli.
Answer
  • Oxygen washout
  • Absorption atelectasis
  • Hypoxic drive
  • CO2 washout

Question 141

Question
This type of hypoxia may result from anemia, carbon monoxide poisoning or sickle cell disease
Answer
  • Stagnant hypoxia
  • Dysoxia
  • Hypoxemic Hypoxia
  • Hemoglobin deficiency

Question 142

Question
In a "normal, healthy person", the body's main stimulus to breathe is rising levels of ____________________.
Answer
  • Nitrogen
  • Oxygen
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Helium

Question 143

Question
The toxic effects of oxygen result from a combination of [blank_start]time[blank_end] and the amount of [blank_start]oxygen[blank_end].
Answer
  • time
  • oxygen

Question 144

Question
Assessing a patient's need for oxygen includes which of the following?
Answer
  • Lab testing (ABG)
  • Pulse oximetry
  • Current clinical condition
  • Bedside assessment

Question 145

Question
COPD patients receiving aggressive oxygen therapy are particularly at risk for:
Answer
  • Retrolental Fibroplasia
  • Oxygen Induced Hypoventilation
  • Pneumonia
  • Stroke

Question 146

Question
How much oxygen is in room air?
Answer
  • 15%
  • 21%
  • 50%
  • 100%

Question 147

Question
This type of hypoxia may result from high altitude, hypoventilation or diffusion defects.
Answer
  • Stagnant hypoxia
  • Hemoglobin deficiency
  • Dysoxia
  • Hypoxemic hypoxia

Question 148

Question
The body's first sign of hypoxemia is:
Answer
  • Peripheral vasodilation
  • Pulmonary vasoconstriction
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypotension

Question 149

Question
How does hypoxemia affect the neurologic system?
Answer
  • Confusion
  • Lethargy
  • Agitation
  • Disorientation

Question 150

Question
Oxygen toxicity results when using a [blank_start]FiO2[blank_end] greater than [blank_start]60[blank_end]% for [blank_start]12[blank_end] to [blank_start]24[blank_end] hours
Answer
  • FiO2
  • 60
  • 12
  • 24

Question 151

Question
Which of the following gases primarily serves to hold the alveoli open?
Answer
  • Nitrogen
  • Oxygen
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Water vapor

Question 152

Question
To prevent ROP or RLF, PaO2 should be kept between ___________.
Answer
  • 50-75 torr
  • 50-100 torr
  • 75-100 torr
  • Over 100 torr

Question 153

Question
A COPD patient often has chronic hypercarbia and mild hypoxemia. As a result, they rely on the _____________ to breathe
Answer
  • Oxygen drive
  • Hypoxic drive
  • Central chemoreceptors
  • Nitrogen washout

Question 154

Question
For a healthy person, the normal PaO2 range while breathing room air is _____________.
Answer
  • Less than 40 torr
  • 60-70 torr
  • 80-100 torr
  • Greater than 100 torr

Question 155

Question
A PaO2 of 60-70 mmHg would be considered _______________
Answer
  • Normal
  • Mild hypoxia
  • Moderate hypoxia
  • Severe hypoxia

Question 156

Question
With oxygen therapy and relief of tissue hypoxia, the RCP can expect a clearer sensorium and a more alert patient.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 157

Question
This type of hypoxemia does not respond to traditional oxygen therapy
Answer
  • Persistent hypoxemia
  • Intermittent hypoxemia
  • Refractory hypoxemia
  • Peripheral hypoxemia

Question 158

Question
Adjusting FiO2 gradually (5%) may minimize the risk of atelectasis
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 159

Question
Regardless of the risk, you should never withholds supplemental oxygen from a hypoxic patient.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 160

Question
Which patient population is at risk of developing ROP/RLF
Answer
  • Newborns
  • Toddlers
  • Adolescents
  • Elderly

Question 161

Question
BTPS stands for:
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 162

Question
Humidity, as water vapor, is water in a ________________form.
Answer
  • Relative
  • Molecular
  • Hyperbaric
  • Atomic

Question 163

Question
When a gas has a content that is equal to its capacity, what is it the relative humidity?
Answer
  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%

Question 164

Question
When a gas is holding less than its maximum capacity, the amount of water it would take to re-saturate the gas is the :
Answer
  • Dew Point
  • Humidity Deficit
  • Relative Humidity
  • Isothermic Saturation Boundary

Question 165

Question
What is the goal for humidity therapy for the patient who has an artificial airway who is receiving medical gas therapy?
Answer
  • To supply a water vapor saturated gas
  • To provide cool mist therapy
  • Correct To provide humidification and warmth at saturation levels for BTPS
  • To increased vapor content of dry therapeutic gases and return humidity to approximate ambient levels

Question 166

Question
If the supplemental level of humidity is greater than required by the patient, which of the following can occur?
Answer
  • Humidity deficit
  • Decreased work of breathing
  • Fluid overload
  • Isothermic Saturation

Question 167

Question
Where would you expect to find condensation?
Answer
  • Inside aerosol tubing
  • On any surface which moisture may hit
  • Inside Nebulizers
  • All of the above

Question 168

Question
Cool humidity therapy can be used to treat which of the following?
Answer
  • Croup
  • Epiglottitis
  • Post extubation edema
  • All of the above

Question 169

Question
When dry secretions are rehydrated, they could potentially form ______, which could cause airway obstructions.
Answer
  • Mucous plugs
  • Consolidations
  • Droplets
  • Particles

Question 170

Question
The amount of water which can be contained in any gas is limited by its temperature.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 171

Question
An expression of the percentage of water vapor compared to a saturated state.
Answer
  • Absolute Humidity
  • Relative Humidity
  • Saturated
  • Humidity Deficit

Question 172

Question
When a gas, at a given temperature, is holding as much water as possible, it is said to be fully_________
Answer
  • Particulated
  • Pressurized
  • Saturated
  • Condensated

Question 173

Question
Keeping the amount of humidity that a patient must contribute to a minimum will reduce the overall stress to the body.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 174

Question
Which of the following is a vehicle for pathogens?
Answer
  • Molecular water in the form of humidity
  • Condensation in the from of particulate droplet
  • All of the above

Question 175

Question
Simple humidifiers are designed to return dry therapeutic gases to approximatley ___ relative humidity
Answer
  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%

Question 176

Question
The primary function of the upper airway is to ________ inspired air.
Answer
  • Warm
  • Humidify
  • Filter
  • All of the above

Question 177

Question
Once a gas that is fully saturated at a given temperature begins to cool, the temperature at which condensation begins to form is called the:
Answer
  • Dew Point
  • Boiling point
  • Critical temperature
  • Humidity deficit

Question 178

Question
What is the main goal of humidity therapy for the patient with an intact airway who is receiving medical gas?
Answer
  • To supply a water vapor saturated gas
  • To increase water vapor content of dry therapeutic gases and return humidity to approximate ambient levels
  • To chill the upper airway's mucosal membrane
  • To provide humidification and warmth at saturation levels for BTPS

Question 179

Question
If a gas, at a certain temperature, is holding its full potential of water vapor and is then heated, the potential to hold water vapor will
Answer
  • Increase
  • Decrease
  • Remain the same

Question 180

Question
In a normal individual, at what level in the airway does the inspired atmosphere each BTPS?
Answer
  • Larynx
  • Right mainstem
  • Alevolar capillary membrane
  • Isothermic Saturation Boundary

Question 181

Question
Neonates are at greater risk of overhydration
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 182

Question
At the alveolar level, water vapor exerts a partial pressure of ____________ mmHg
Answer
  • 37
  • 44
  • 47
  • 50

Question 183

Question
Water is constantly lost from the lungs and the skin through breathing and sweating.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 184

Question
Which route of inhalation is more efficient for heating and humidifying inspired air?
Answer
  • Nose
  • Mouth
  • Either route is the same

Question 185

Question
Which type of flow aids evaporation and allows for more moisture to be "picked up" in the gas stream?
Answer
  • Low flow
  • High flow
  • Flow is irrelevant

Question 186

Question
Which of the following is NOT a hazard of humidity therapy?
Answer
  • Alteration of heat and water exchange
  • Risk of infection
  • Electrical Hazards
  • Oxygen toxicity

Question 187

Question
Unheated bubble humidifiers are intended to restore ambient humidity to approximately ______ of relative humidity.
Answer
  • 10% - 20%
  • 25% - 35%
  • 40% - 50%
  • 50% - 75%

Question 188

Question
Which of the following techniques should be used to minimize the risk of infection when using humidity therapy.
Answer
  • Sterile replacements every 24 hours
  • Close feed reservoir systems
  • Use prepackaged sterile, disposable units
  • Drain condensation away from the reservoir
  • All of the above

Question 189

Question
Hazards of condensation include which of the following?
Answer
  • Aspiration risk
  • Risk of infection
  • Disruption of gas flow
  • Potential altering of FiO2
  • All of the above

Question 190

Question
The following are goals of humidity therapy EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Prevent drying of mucosa
  • Compensate for a humidity deficit
  • Provide an exact FiO2 to the patient under any condition
  • To provide cool aerosols to soothe irritated airways

Question 191

Question
Which of the following are examples of large volume, warmed humidifiers. Choose all that apply.
Answer
  • Wick style
  • Bubble
  • Heat moisture ex-changer
  • Cascade

Question 192

Question
HME's are classified as _________________ humidifiers.
Answer
  • Classic
  • Patient dependent
  • Active
  • Passive

Question 193

Question
Which of the following factors effect humidifier output?
Answer
  • Surface area
  • Contact Time
  • Temperature
  • Gas Flow
  • All of the above

Question 194

Question
If the temperature of a gas drops, the ability to hold water vapor will ___________________.
Answer
  • Increase
  • Decrease
  • Stay the same
  • Unknown

Question 195

Question
Which of the following are disadvantages of using a heat moisture exchanger? Choose all that apply.
Answer
  • Less effective than a heated, humidified system
  • Will occlude with heavy secretions
  • Disposable
  • Must be removed when giving aerosol treatments

Question 196

Question
Condensation or "Rain Out" is dependent on which of the following:
Answer
  • The temperature difference from the humdifier to the patient airway
  • Ambient temperature
  • Gas flow
  • Length, diameter and thermal mass of the breathing circuit
  • All of the above

Question 197

Question
Which type of patients require using warmed humidifiers.
Answer
  • Patients with artificial airways
  • Patients with intact upper airways
  • Patients with Asthma
  • Patients who are hyperthermic

Question 198

Question
Warmed humidifiers aim to deliver ______ body humidity.
Answer
  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%

Question 199

Question
HME's can provide ____________ humidity
Answer
  • 25%-50%
  • 50% - 75%
  • 60% - 90%
  • 100%

Question 200

Question
Another name for a heat moisture ex-changer is:
Answer
  • Artificial lung
  • Artificial nose
  • Re-breather
  • Briggs adapter
Show full summary Hide full summary

Want to create your own Quizzes for free with GoConqr? Learn more.

Similar

Study Plan
mlanders
Hitler's Rise to Power
hanalou
BYU English 11 B Speedback
Becky Kopplin
edexcel gcse german vocabulary
samanthayates1998
History - Germany 1918 - 1945
Grace Evans
Functions of a Political Party
Phoebe Fletcher
Business Studies Unit 1
emily.mckechnie
GCSE Biology B2 (OCR)
Usman Rauf
Unit 5: Nuclear and Thermal Physics
Michael Priest
ALL module 5 vocab
Pamela Dentler
TISSUE TYPES
Missi Shoup
Browse Library