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Final Exam (Objective): CH 1-9

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CCNA 3 Final Exam (Objective): CH 1-9
Anthony Schulmeister
Quiz by Anthony Schulmeister, updated more than 1 year ago
Anthony Schulmeister
Created by Anthony Schulmeister over 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?
Answer
  • spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0
  • spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
  • spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary
  • spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096

Question 2

Question
Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?
Answer
  • port ID
  • IP address
  • extended system ID
  • MAC address
  • bridge priority
  • cost

Question 3

Question
Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • failover capabilities
  • collapsed core
  • redundant power supplies
  • failure domains
  • services module

Question 4

Question
Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?
Answer
  • the use of a collapsed core design
  • the use of the building switch block approach
  • the installation of redundant power supplies
  • the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume

Question 5

Question
A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?
Answer
  • Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.
  • Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.
  • Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.
  • Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.

Question 6

Question
What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • increased flexibility
  • decreased number of critical points of failure
  • reduced costs
  • increased bandwidth availability
  • increased network management options

Question 7

Question
In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?
Answer
  • to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
  • on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management
  • on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility
  • on a campus LAN network as access layer switches

Question 8

Question
Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?
Answer
  • They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.
  • They are best used as distribution layer switches.
  • They are modular switches
  • New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through

Question 9

Question
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • It connects multiple IP networks.
  • It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
  • It determines the best path to send packets.
  • It manages the VLAN database
  • It increases the size of the broadcast domain.

Question 10

Question
Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?
Answer
  • to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
  • to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
  • to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
  • to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

Question 11

Question
What is a characteristic of in-band device management?
Answer
  • It uses a terminal emulation client.
  • It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable
  • It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.
  • It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.

Question 12

Question
Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • static default routes
  • implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
  • redundant links between Layer 2 switches
  • link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
  • removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches

Question 13

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the output?
Image:
85c72520-dff9-423b-9582-f38c24017ae3 (image/png)
Answer
  • FHRP
  • GLBP
  • HSRP
  • VRRP

Question 14

Question
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?
Answer
  • Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.
  • The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
  • Routers continually forward packets to other routers.
  • A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.

Question 15

Question
What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?
Answer
  • Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
  • New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.
  • CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.
  • ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host

Question 16

Question
What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?
Answer
  • MAC address
  • VLAN ID
  • IP address
  • port ID

Question 17

Question
Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • STP
  • Rapid PVST+
  • PVST+
  • MSTP
  • RSTP

Question 18

Question
What is an advantage of PVST+?
Answer
  • PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network
  • PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.
  • PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.
  • PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.

Question 19

Question
Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?
Answer
  • listening
  • learning
  • forwarding
  • blocking

Question 20

Question
To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • The root bridge BID
  • The role of the ports in all VLANs
  • The status of native VLAN ports
  • The number of broadcasts received on each root port
  • The IP address of the management VLAN interface

Question 21

Question
What is the purpose of HSRP?
Answer
  • It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
  • It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
  • It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.
  • It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.

Question 22

Question
When an EIGRP-enabled router uses a password to accept routes from other EIGRP-enabled routers, which mechanism is used?
Answer
  • bounded updates
  • partial updates
  • EIGRP authentication
  • Diffusing Update Algorithm
  • Reliable Transport Protocol

Question 23

Question
What is the purpose of using protocol-dependent modules in EIGRP?
Answer
  • to describe different routing processes
  • to identify different application layer protocols
  • to use different transport protocols for different packets
  • to accommodate routing of different network layer protocols

Question 24

Question
Which statement describes a characteristic of the delivery of EIGRP update packets?
Answer
  • EIGRP uses UDP to send all update packets.
  • EIGRP sends all update packets via unicast.
  • EIGRP sends all update packets via multicast.
  • EIGRP uses a reliable delivery protocol to send all update packets.

Question 25

Question
Which destination MAC address is used when a multicast EIGRP packet is encapsulated into an Ethernet frame?
Answer
  • 01-00-5E-00-00-09
  • 01-00-5E-00-00-10
  • 01-00-5E-00-00-0A
  • 01-00-5E-00-00-0B

Question 26

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?
Image:
e8dfa577-a7d7-42c9-bdd7-a1c6881809c9 (image/png)
Answer
  • network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63
  • network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192
  • network 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127
  • network 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128

Question 27

Question
Which EIGRP route would have the preferred administrative distance?
Answer
  • a summary route
  • an internal route
  • an external route that is redistributed from RIP
  • an external route that is redistributed from OSPF

Question 28

Question
Where are EIGRP successor routes stored?
Answer
  • only in the routing table
  • only in the neighbor table
  • in the routing table and the topology table
  • in the routing table and the neighbor table

Question 29

Question
Which table is used by EIGRP to store all routes that are learned from EIGRP neighbors?
Answer
  • the routing table
  • the neighbor table
  • the topology table
  • the adjacency table

Question 30

Question
How do EIGRP routers establish and maintain neighbor relationships?
Answer
  • by exchanging neighbor tables with directly attached routers
  • by comparing known routes to information received in updates
  • by exchanging hello packets with neighboring routers
  • by dynamically learning new routes from neighbors
  • by exchanging routing tables with directly attached routers

Question 31

Question
Which command or commands must be entered on a serial interface of a Cisco router to restore the bandwidth to the default value of that specific router interface?
Answer
  • bandwidth 1500
  • shutdown no shutdown
  • copy running-config startup-config reload
  • no bandwidth

Question 32

Question
Which three metric weights are set to zero by default when costs in EIGRP are being calculated? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • k1
  • k2
  • k3
  • k4
  • k5
  • k6

Question 33

Question
Refer to the exhibit. R2 has two possible paths to the 192.168.10.4 network. What would make the alternate route meet the feasibility condition?
Image:
5b700ec5-ea1f-440a-87ed-a4a3c85c531d (image/png)
Answer
  • a reported distance less than 3523840
  • a reported distance greater than 41024000
  • a feasible distance greater than 41024000
  • an administrative distance less than 170

Question 34

Question
What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state?
Answer
  • The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network.
  • The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state.
  • The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails.
  • There is no activity on the route to that network.
  • The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.

Question 35

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Which two networks contain feasible successors? (Choose two.)
Image:
08cfc04c-ef9d-4392-8fdd-4c06ba841b40 (image/png)
Answer
  • 192.168.71.0
  • 192.168.51.0
  • 10.44.100.252
  • 10.44.104.253
  • 10.44.101.252

Question 36

Question
What is the most cost-effective method of solving interface congestion that is caused by a high level of traffic between two switches?
Answer
  • increase uplink speed
  • add more VLANs to reduce broadcast domains
  • aggregate ports by using EtherChannel
  • insert a router between the switches

Question 37

Question
Which statement describes an EtherChannel implementation?
Answer
  • EtherChannel operates only at Layer 2.
  • PAgP cannot be used in conjunction with EtherChannel.
  • A trunked port can be part of an EtherChannel bundle.
  • EtherChannel can support up to a maximum of ten separate links.

Question 38

Question
Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • 802.3ad
  • PAgP
  • STP
  • EtherChannel
  • RSTP

Question 39

Question
Which PAgP mode combination will establish an EtherChannel?
Answer
  • switch 1 set to on; switch 2 set to desirable.
  • switch 1 set to desirable; switch 2 set to desirable
  • switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to auto.
  • switch 1 set to auto; switch 2 set to on

Question 40

Question
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator tried to create an EtherChannel between S1 and the other two switches via the commands that are shown, but was unsuccessful. What is the problem?
Image:
d3f2e921-3e32-4cb9-b4c1-218d16a100f4 (image/png)
Answer
  • Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Gigabit Ethernet interfaces.
  • Traffic can only be sent to two different switches if EtherChannel is implemented on Layer 3 switches.
  • Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches through the same EtherChannel link.
  • Traffic cannot be sent to two different switches, but only to two different devices like an EtherChannel-enabled server and a switch.

Question 41

Question
Which organization certifies vendors for adherence to the 802.11 standards to improve interoperability of 802.11 products?
Answer
  • FCC
  • IEEE
  • ITU-R
  • Wi-Fi Alliance

Question 42

Question
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?
Answer
  • active
  • auto
  • desirable
  • passive

Question 43

Question
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?
Answer
  • active
  • auto
  • desirable
  • passive

Question 44

Question
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
Answer
  • providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
  • grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
  • grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
  • providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure

Question 45

Question
Which command will initiate EtherChannel interface configuration mode?
Answer
  • channel-group group-identifier
  • interface port-channel interface-identifier
  • interface interface-identifier
  • interface range interface-identifier

Question 46

Question
A administrator wishes to extend the range of the existing IEEE 802.11n network without changing the AP. What can the administrator do to accomplish this?
Answer
  • Upgrade the firmware on the AP
  • Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band
  • Deploy a Wi-Fi Range Extender
  • Change to WPA2 authentication

Question 47

Question
What is an advantage of using LACP?
Answer
  • increases redundancy to Layer 3 devices
  • decreases the chance of a spanning-tree loop
  • allows automatic formation of EtherChannel links
  • provides a simulated environment for testing link aggregation
  • decreases the amount of configuration that is needed on a switch for EtherChannel

Question 48

Question
An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?
Answer
  • S1-on and S2-passive
  • S1-passive and S2-passive
  • S1-on and S2-active
  • S1-passive and S2-active

Question 49

Question
Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small business? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • repeater
  • access point
  • WLAN controller
  • Ethernet switch
  • RADIUS authentication server

Question 50

Question
Which type of management frame may regularly be broadcast by an AP?
Answer
  • beacon
  • probe request
  • authentication
  • probe response

Question 51

Question
A student uses a laptop to upload an assignment to a file server. Which wireless frame type did the laptop send to locate and associate with the campus access point?
Answer
  • beacon frame
  • control frame
  • data frame
  • management frame

Question 52

Question
During which stage of establishing connectivity between a WLAN client and an AP does the client learn the MAC address of the AP?
Answer
  • discovery
  • probing
  • association
  • encryption
  • authentication

Question 53

Question
What is the purpose of the Distributed Coordination Function in an IEEE 802.11 WLAN environment?
Answer
  • It allows a client to detect whether or not a channel is clear prior to transmission
  • It is used in a full-duplex environment to detect collisions
  • It is used to send data over a half-duplex connection
  • It allows the client to change transmission channels

Question 54

Question
What is an advantage of SSID cloaking?
Answer
  • It provides free Internet access in public locations where knowing the SSID is of no concern.
  • Clients will have to manually identify the SSID to connect to the network.
  • SSIDs are very difficult to discover because APs do not broadcast them
  • It is the best way to secure a wireless network

Question 55

Question
If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which three frequency channels should be used? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • 1
  • 3
  • 5
  • 6
  • 8
  • 11

Question 56

Question
Which security mode is the least secure choice when a home wireless router is configured?
Answer
  • WPA
  • WPA2
  • WEP
  • WPA2-Personal

Question 57

Question
An employee connects wirelessly to the company network using a cell phone. The employee then configures the cell phone to act as a wireless access point that will allow new employees to connect to the company network. Which type of security threat best describes this situation?
Answer
  • cracking
  • denial of service
  • rogue access point
  • spoofing

Question 58

Question
Refer to the exhibit. All networks are active in the same EIGRP routing domain. When the auto-summary command is issued on R3, which two summary networks will be advertised to the neighbors? (Choose two.)
Image:
2eaa823c-600d-4704-9390-2b24853cd60d (image/png)
Answer
  • 192.168.1.0/30
  • 192.168.10.0/30
  • 192.168.10.0/24
  • 172.16.3.0/24
  • 172.16.0.0/16

Question 59

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Router R3 is receiving multiple routes through the EIGRP routing protocol. Which statement is true about the implementation of summarization in this network?
Image:
dde0a9b2-c1a3-4c64-a6fe-3b7a29e93308 (image/png)
Answer
  • Automatic summarization has been enabled only for the 172.21.100.0/24 network.
  • Automatic summarization is disabled on R3.
  • Automatic summarization is enabled on neighboring routers.
  • Automatic summarization is disabled on a per-interface basis

Question 60

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is supported by the output?
Image:
f127c487-81b3-4e44-86b3-31f3979872fe (image/png)
Answer
  • A static default route has been manually configured on this router
  • Summarization of routes has been manually configured
  • A default route is being learned through an external process
  • The route to 192.168.1.1 represents the configuration of a loopback interface

Question 61

Question
Which three statements are advantages of using automatic summarization? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • It maximizes the number of routes in the routing table
  • It increases the size of routing updates
  • It reduces the frequency of routing updates
  • It ensures that traffic for multiple subnets uses one path through the internetwork
  • It improves reachability in discontiguous networks
  • It decreases the number of entries in the routing table

Question 62

Question
Which address best summarizes the IPv6 addresses 2001:DB8:ACAD::/48, 2001:DB8:9001::/48, and 2001:DB8:8752::/49?
Answer
  • 2001:DB8:8000::/34
  • 2001:DB8:8000::/36
  • 2001:DB8:8000::/47
  • 2001:DB8:8000::/48

Question 63

Question
What is a characteristic of manual route summarization?
Answer
  • requires high bandwidth utilization for the routing updates
  • reduces total number of routes in routing tables
  • cannot include supernet routes
  • has to be configured globally on the router

Question 64

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately reflects the configuration of routing on the HQ router?
Image:
0bfbc692-7fdb-4b05-b7ac-6070096a0a28 (image/png)
Answer
  • A static default route was configured on this router
  • A static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates
  • The static default route should be redistributed using the default-information originate command
  • The IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0

Question 65

Question
In which IOS CLI mode must a network administrator issue the maximum-paths command to configure load balancing in EIGRP?
Answer
  • global configuration mode
  • interface configuration mode
  • privileged mode
  • router configuration mode

Question 66

Question
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the shown commands. The EIGRP routing domain has completely converged and a network administrator is planning on configuring EIGRP authentication throughout the complete network. On which two interfaces should EIGRP authentication be configured between R2 and R3? (Choose two.)
Image:
3dfac09c-5149-4074-845a-8994e01b2881 (image/png)
Answer
  • serial 0/0/1 of R2
  • serial 0/1/0 of R2
  • gig 0/0 of R3
  • serial 0/0/1 of R3
  • serial 0/1/0 of R4

Question 67

Question
Two routers, R1 and R2, have established an EIGRP neighbor relationship, but there is still a connectivity problem. Which issue could be causing this problem?
Answer
  • an authentication mismatch
  • an access list that is blocking advertisements from other networks
  • automatic summarization that is disabled on both routers
  • a process ID mismatch

Question 68

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Remote users are experiencing connectivity problems when attempting to reach hosts in the 172.21.100.0 /24 network. Using the output in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the connectivity problem?
Image:
6ee68cef-745b-4178-82aa-045a52f9db55 (image/png)
Answer
  • The passive-interface command is preventing neighbor relationships on interface GigabitEthernet 0/0
  • The hello timer has been modified on interface GigabitEthernet 0/1 of R3 and not on the neighbor, causing a neighbor adjacency not to form.
  • The GigabitEthernet 0/1 interface is not participating in the EIGRP process
  • The GigabitEthernet interfaces are not limiting the flow of EIGRP message information and are being flooded with EIGRP traffic.

Question 69

Question
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration shown is applied on router R1, the exhibited status message is displayed. Router R1 is unable to form a neighbor relationship with R2 on the serial 0/1/0 interface. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
Image:
ec8669d4-bdf6-4e5c-9f82-062b7dbd3e16 (image/png)
Answer
  • The passive-interface command should have been issued on serial 0/1/0.
  • The hello interval has been altered on serial 0/1/0 and is preventing a neighbor relationship from forming.
  • The network statement used for EIGRP 55 does not enable EIGRP on interface serial 0/1/0.
  • The IPv4 address configured on the neighbor that is connected to R1 serial 0/1/0 is incorrect.
  • The networks that are configured on serial 0/0/0 and serial 0/1/0 of router R1 are overlapping.

Question 70

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency. What action should be taken to solve this problem?
Image:
3b0cbd9d-0221-4c6b-bd97-b32a97851166 (image/png)
Answer
  • Enable the serial interfaces of both routers
  • Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates
  • Configure the same hello interval between the routers
  • Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID

Question 71

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Considering that R2, R3, and R4 are correctly configured, why did R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3, and R4?
Image:
d3f39854-3138-4ed6-adcf-92239ca3fbe7 (image/png)
Answer
  • because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1
  • because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP
  • because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect
  • because there is no network command for the network 192.168.1.0/24 on R1

Question 72

Question
In which scenario will the use of EIGRP automatic summarization cause inconsistent routing in a network?
Answer
  • when there is no adjacency that is established between neighboring routers
  • when there is no common subnet that exists between neighboring routers
  • when the routers in an IPv4 network have mismatching EIGRP AS numbers
  • when the routers in an IPv4 network are connected to discontiguous networks with automatic summarization enabled

Question 73

Question
Which command can be issued on a router to verify that automatic summarization is enabled?
Answer
  • show ip eigrp interfaces
  • show ip protocols
  • show ip interface brief
  • show ip eigrp neighbors

Question 74

Question
Which command will a network engineer issue to verify the configured hello and dead timer intervals on a point-to-point WAN link between two routers that are running OSPFv2?
Answer
  • show ip ospf neighbor
  • show ip ospf interface serial 0/0/0
  • show ipv6 ospf interface serial 0/0/0
  • show ip ospf interface fastethernet 0/1

Question 75

Question
A network administrator has just changed the router ID on a router that is working in an OSPFv2 environment. What should the administrator do to reset the adjacencies and use the new router ID?
Answer
  • Configure the network statements.
  • Change the interface priority
  • Issue the clear ip ospf process privileged mode command
  • Change the OSPFv2 process ID

Question 76

Question
Why is MD5 authentication more secure than simple authentication for OSPF updates?
Answer
  • MD5 does not send the password to the neighbor router
  • MD5 requires passwords that are at least 8 characters long
  • MD5 uses both a username and a password to authenticate the neighbor
  • MD5 employs IPsec to keep the updates from being intercepted

Question 77

Question
A network engineer suspects that OSPFv3 routers are not forming neighbor adjacencies because there are interface timer mismatches. Which two commands can be issued on the interface of each OSFPv3 router to resolve all timer mismatches? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • no ipv6 ospf hello-interval
  • no ipv6 ospf dead-interval
  • ip ospf hello-interval 10
  • ip ospf dead-interval 40
  • no ipv6 ospf cost 10
  • no ipv6 router ospf 10

Question 78

Question
Why do OSPF serial interfaces usually require manual bandwidth configuration?
Answer
  • OSPF uses the bandwidth value to compute routes for its routing table
  • Each side of an OSPF serial link should be configured with a unique value
  • All serial interfaces default to a value of 1.544 Mb/s
  • Bandwidth value affects the actual speed of the link

Question 79

Question
Which two pieces of information are used by the OSPF MD5 algorithm to generate a signature? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • secret key
  • OSPF message
  • OSPF router ID
  • router hostname
  • interface IP address

Question 80

Question
A network administrator is verifying a multi-area OSPF configuration by checking the routing table on a router in area 1. The administrator notices a route to a network that is connected to a router in area 2. Which code appears in front of this route in the routing table within area 1?
Answer
  • C
  • O
  • O E2
  • O IA

Question 81

Question
A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPFv2 routing issues on two connected routers. Which two requirements to form an adjacency need to be verified? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Verify that one of the interfaces that connects the two routers is active and the other passive
  • Verify that one of the routers is the DR or BDR and the other router a DRother
  • Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same subnet
  • Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same area.
  • Verify that both routers are using the same OSPFv2 process ID

Question 82

Question
Which command is used to verify that OSPF is enabled and also provides a list of the networks that are being advertised by the network?
Answer
  • show ip protocols
  • show ip ospf interface
  • show ip interface brief
  • show ip route ospf

Question 83

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
Image:
58e6fad3-799b-43ac-a3ca-32bfe22554f0 (image/png)
Answer
  • The entry for 172.16.200.1 represents a loopback interface
  • The routing table contains routes from multiple areas.
  • To reach network 172.16.2.0, traffic will travel through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.
  • The routing table contains two intra-area routes
  • To reach network 192.168.1.0, traffic will exit via the Serial0/0/0 interface

Question 84

Question
Refer to the exhibit. These two routers are configured to run OSPFv3 but they are not forming a neighbor adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?
Image:
c7cdb0b1-3e05-4ff2-a0ed-834b318dd837 (image/png)
Answer
  • The routers have the same priority
  • The routers have both been elected as the DR
  • The routers are configured with the same router ID.
  • The routers do not have global IPv6 addresses that are configured on the Fa0/0 interfaces.

Question 85

Question
Which two statements correctly describe OSPF type 3 LSAs? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Type 3 LSAs are known as autonomous system external LSA entries
  • Type 3 LSAs are generated without requiring a full SPF calculation
  • Type 3 LSAs are used for routes to networks outside the OSPF autonomous system
  • Type 3 LSAs are known as router link entries
  • Type 3 LSAs are used to update routes between OSPF areas

Question 86

Question
Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.4.0 in the R2 routing table?
Image:
f859b203-616a-471a-9bc7-992e0a0f56cd (image/png)
Answer
  • The network was learned from a router within the same area as R2
  • The network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR
  • The network can be reached through the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface
  • This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks

Question 87

Question
Which three steps in the design and implementation of a multiarea OSPF network are considered planning steps? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • Verify OSPF
  • Configure OSPF
  • Define the OSPF parameters.
  • Gather the required parameters
  • Troubleshoot the configurations
  • Define the network requirements

Question 88

Question
The network administrator has been asked to summarize the routes for a new OSPF area. The networks to be summarized are 172.16.8.0, 172.16.10.0, and 172.16.12.0 with subnet masks of 255.255.255.0 for each network. Which command should the administrator use to forward the summary route for area 15 into area 0?
Answer
  • area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248
  • area 0 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0
  • area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.248.0
  • area 15 range 172.16.8.0 255.255.255.248

Question 89

Question
Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the O IA in the router output?
Image:
c4b997b9-4fbf-485a-b7fb-54150e9a8aca (image/png)
Answer
  • The route was manually configured
  • The route was learned from within the area
  • The route was learned from outside the internetwork
  • The route was learned from another area

Question 90

Question
Which command can be used to verify the contents of the LSDB in an OSPF area?
Answer
  • show ip ospf database
  • show ip ospf interface
  • show ip ospf neighbor
  • show ip route ospf
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