Virology (week 5 and 6)

Description

DVM2 Virology Quiz on Virology (week 5 and 6), created by Kathryn Borg on 04/05/2016.
Kathryn Borg
Quiz by Kathryn Borg, updated more than 1 year ago
Kathryn Borg
Created by Kathryn Borg over 8 years ago
16
2

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What is the basic structure of Adenoviridae?
Answer
  • Non‐enveloped, icosahedral, ds DNA
  • Enveloped, icosahedral, ds DNA
  • Enveloped, icosahedral, ss DNA

Question 2

Question
Which of the below are features of Adenoviridae?
Answer
  • Relatively stable in environment
  • Persistent infection common
  • Narrow host ranges
  • Causes respiratory and gastroenteric diseases
  • Labile in the environment
  • Rarely a persistent infection
  • Can infect a variety of hosts

Question 3

Question
Which of the below are genera of Adenoviridae
Answer
  • Siadenovirus
  • Atadenovirus
  • Mastadenovirus
  • Aviadenovirus
  • Betaherpesviridae
  • Panleukopaenia virus
  • Orbivirus

Question 4

Question
How can canine adenovirus 1 (canine hepatitis) be transmitted?
Answer
  • Infection through nasopharyngeal, oral and conjunctival route of entry
  • Vector transmission
  • Ingestion of urine, faeces or saliva from an infected animal
  • Transdermal infection

Question 5

Question
What is the route of infection of canine adenovirus 1?
Answer
  • Tonsillar crypts-->Regional lymph nodes-->Bloodstream via thoracic duct-->Endothelial and parenchymal cells of many organs
  • Tonsillar crypts-->Regional lymph nodes-->Bloodstream via thoracic duct-->Endothelial and parenchymal cells of only the kidneys
  • Regional lymph nodes-->Tonsillar crypts-->Bloodstream via thoracic duct-->Endothelial and parenchymal cells of only the liver

Question 6

Question
Infection of endothelial and parenchymal cells of many organs leads to?
Answer
  • Haemorrhage and necrosis, especially of liver, kidneys, spleen and lungs
  • Asymptomatic infection
  • CNS dysfunction
  • Tumour formation

Question 7

Question
In general terms clinical recovery coincides with production of neutralising antibody, approximately how long after infection?
Answer
  • 10 days
  • 3 days
  • 21 days
  • 19 days

Question 8

Question
What are the overlapping syndromes of clinical disease in animals infected with canine adenovirus 1?
Answer
  • Peracute disease: pup found dead, often with short lived (3‐4 hours) or no apparent illness
  • Acute disease: may be fatal. Fever, vomiting, bloody diarrhoea, pettechial haemorrhages of gums, pale mucous membranes
  • Mild or inapparent disease
  • Chronic disease: Chronic fever, vomiting, bloody diarrhoea, pettechial haemorrhages of gums, pale mucous membranes
  • Peracute disease: may be fatal. Fever, vomiting, bloody diarrhoea, pettechial haemorrhages of gums, pale mucous membranes
  • Acute disease: pup found dead, often with short lived (3‐4 hours) or no apparent illness

Question 9

Question
What is the incubation period of canine adenovirus 1?
Answer
  • 4-9 days
  • 2-3 days
  • 10-12 days
  • 12-24 hrs

Question 10

Question
When might canine adenovirus 1 be suggested as a diagnosis for a patient that enters the clinic?
Answer
  • History of fever, sudden collapse, and abdominal pain in young dogs
  • History of fever, sneezing and nasal discharge in older dogs
  • History of fever, sudden collapse, and abdominal pain in older dogs
  • History of fever, sneezing and nasal discharge in younger dogs
  • History of fever and seizures in younger dogs
  • History of fever and seizures in older dogs

Question 11

Question
How long can recovered dogs shed canine adenovirus 1 in urine for?
Answer
  • up to 6 months
  • up to 3 weeks
  • up to 1 month
  • up to 12 days
  • up to 12 months

Question 12

Question
Why might corneal oedema (Blue eye) develop in convalescing dogs and dogs recently vaccinated with CAV1?
Answer
  • Caused by virus‐antibody complexes in the small blood vessels of the ciliary body affecting fluid exchange across the cornea
  • Caused by vaccine adjuvent in the small blood vessels of the ciliary body affecting fluid exchange across the cornea
  • Caused by a hypersensitivity type I reaction in response to viral antibodies in the small blood vessels of the ciliary body affecting fluid exchange across the cornea
  • Caused by cytokine production by B cells in the small blood vessels of the ciliary body affecting fluid exchange across the cornea

Question 13

Question
Which of the below are features of a CAV2 (Canine adenovirus 2) infection?
Answer
  • Can lead to bronchitis and bronchiolitis
  • Causes localised respiratory disease (part of kennel cough complex)
  • No systemic infection
  • CAV2 provides complete homologous protection and cross protection against disease caused by CAV1 without side effects
  • Convalescing animals can develop corneal oedema (Blue eye)
  • Causes haemorrhage and necrosis, especially of liver, kidneys, spleen and lungs

Question 14

Question
Which of the below are features of Equine adenovirus1?
Answer
  • Isolated worldwide
  • Isolated from young horses with and without respiratory disease (can be symptomatic or asymptomatic)
  • Always causes symptomatic disease
  • Latent infection
  • Virus is endemic only to South East Asia and Africa
  • Mostly asymptomatic or mild disease

Question 15

Question
Which of the below are features of Equine adenovirus 2?
Answer
  • Isolated from lymph nodes and faeces of foals with respiratory disease and diarrhoea
  • Mostly asymptomatic or mild disease
  • Latent infection
  • Isolated worldwide
  • Endemic only to Africa and North America

Question 16

Question
What breed of horses (foals) is known to be born with a genetically based primary severe combined immunodeficiency (an autosomal inherited defect) where there is a complete absence of T and B lymphocytes, and the animals are unable to mount an adaptive immune response when maternal immunity wanes making them susceptible to death within 3 months of birth from adenovirus 1 and 2?
Answer
  • Arabian foals
  • Thoroughbred foals
  • Friesian foals
  • Clydesdale foals
  • Dutch warmblood foals
  • Shetland pony

Question 17

Question
What family of viruses is this cow likely to be infected with?
Answer
  • A Papillomavirus
  • An Adenovirus
  • Herpesviridae
  • Panleukopaenia viruses

Question 18

Question
What is the basic structure of the Papillomaviruses?
Answer
  • Non‐enveloped double stranded circular DNA viruses
  • Enveloped double stranded circular DNA viruses
  • Non‐enveloped single stranded circular DNA viruses
  • Enveloped single stranded circular DNA viruses

Question 19

Question
What do Papillomaviruses cause?
Answer
  • Papillomas (warts)
  • Ulcers
  • Papules
  • Macules

Question 20

Question
Which of the below are features of Papillomaviruses?
Answer
  • May give rise to carcinomas, usually with appropriate co‐factors
  • Papillomavirus replication linked to growth and differentiation of stratified squamous epithelium of skin and some mucous membranes
  • Resistant in the environment
  • Resistant to solvents, disinfectants, low pH and high temperature
  • Resistant to solvents, disinfectants, high pH and low temperature
  • Labile in the environment
  • Usually regress after several weeks
  • Lesions are typically finger‐like projections of proliferating epithelium supported by a thin core of fibrous connective tissue

Question 21

Question
In what age group of animals are papillomavirus lesions usually associated?
Answer
  • Young animals
  • Old animals
  • Middle aged animals

Question 22

Question
What species of animal are the most commonly affected by papillomavirus warts?
Answer
  • Cattle
  • Sheep
  • Horses
  • Dogs
  • Pigs
  • Chickens

Question 23

Question
How many different bovine papillomaviruses are recognised?
Answer
  • At least 10 different genera
  • At least 20 different genera
  • At least 2 different genera

Question 24

Question
How are bovine papillomaviruses transmitted?
Answer
  • Transmission by fomite transfer (eg. contaminated equipment and facilities)
  • Sexual transmission
  • Vector transmission
  • Respiratory droplet transmission
  • Ingestion of faeces and urine

Question 25

Question
Bovine papillomaviruses [blank_start]1, 2 and 5[blank_end] cause cutaneous fibropaplillomas (warts) on udder, head and neck and genitalia Bovine papillomaviruses [blank_start]3 and 6[blank_end] cause lesions with les fibrous tissue Bovine papillomavirus [blank_start]1 and 2[blank_end] associated with enzootic haematuria. Cattle eat bracken fern which contains carcinogens, mutagens and immunosuppressive agents Bovine papillomavirus [blank_start]4[blank_end] is associated with lesions in the alimentary tract, some of which progress to squamous cell carcinoma
Answer
  • 1, 2 and 5
  • 3 and 6
  • 1 and 2
  • 4
  • 5
  • 4 and 5
  • 7

Question 26

Question
Which of the below are features of equine papillomavirus?
Answer
  • Cause aural plaques and cutaneous papillomas
  • Regression occurs in 1‐9 months
  • Generally occur around the muzzle of young horses
  • Can lead to equine sarcoids
  • Associated with enzootic haematuria

Question 27

Question
What is the most common skin tumour of horses, mules and donkeys?
Answer
  • Sarcoid
  • Squamous cell carcinoma
  • Melanoma
  • Fibroma

Question 28

Question
Which of the below are features of equine sarcoids?
Answer
  • Superficial ulceration and secondary trauma are common
  • Do not metastasize
  • Locally aggressive
  • Occur singly or in groups
  • Head, ventral abdomen and limbs affected most commonly
  • More common in animals <4 years of age
  • Metastatic

Question 29

Question
What is the basic structure of reoviridae?
Answer
  • Non-enveloped, Icosahedral, Linear segmented double stranded RNA genome
  • Non-enveloped, Icosahedral, Linear segmented single stranded RNA genome
  • Enveloped, Icosahedral, Linear segmented double stranded RNA genome
  • Enveloped, Icosahedral, Linear segmented single stranded RNA genome
  • Non-enveloped, Icosahedral, Linear segmented double stranded DNA genome

Question 30

Question
Correctly match the genera of Reoviridae
Answer
  • Orthoreovirus
  • Orbivirus
  • Coltivirus
  • Rotavirus
  • Aquareovirus
  • Dolitivirus

Question 31

Question
What species of animal can show diseases of Bluetongue?
Answer
  • Sheep, cattle and goats
  • Sheep, goats and pigs
  • Sheep, goats and rabbits
  • Dogs, cats and sheep

Question 32

Question
Which of the below are symptoms/clinical signs of Bluetongue virus in sheep?
Answer
  • Hyperaemia of oral and buccal cavities (salivation / frothy mouth)
  • Oedema (head and neck)
  • Hyperaemia of the coronary bands
  • Cyanosis of the tongue
  • Nasal discharge (serous – mucopurulent – blood flecked)
  • Abortion of lambs or lambs born with congenital abnormalities (hydranencephaly)
  • Severe cases have a protracted recovery (may lose part of the fleece)
  • Death occurs in up to 30% of cases, but more commonly 2 – 8%
  • Sheep experience asymptomatic infection
  • Course of disease is variable from sub-clinical to death (eg. Mild cases recover rapidly)

Question 33

Question
What form of disease do cattle and goats experience in comparison to sheep?
Answer
  • Cattle experience asymptomatic infection (except current BTV 8) Goats experience a milder form of disease than sheep
  • Cattle experience a milder form of disease than sheep Goats experience asymptomatic infection (except current BTV 8)
  • Both cattle and goats experience a more severe form than sheep
  • Cattle experience a more severe form of disease than sheep Goats experience asymptomatic infection

Question 34

Question
What is the pathogenesis of bluetongue virus?
Answer
  • Incubation period ~ 1 week (time between infection and clinical signs)
  • Incubation period ~ 1 day (time between infection and clinical signs)
  • Viraemia lasts 14-28 days (cows up to 10 weeks)
  • It is an arbovirus transmitted by Culicoides spp.
  • It is an arbovirus transmitted by Lucilia spp.
  • Associated with red blood cells and leukocytes
  • Viraemia lasts 7-10 days (cows up to 6 weeks)

Question 35

Question
What is the basic structure of the parvoviruses?
Answer
  • Small non‐enveloped single stranded DNA viruses
  • Small non‐enveloped single stranded RNA viruses
  • Small enveloped single stranded DNA viruses
  • Small non‐enveloped double stranded DNA viruses
  • Small enveloped double stranded DNA viruses

Question 36

Question
What are the main features of the parvoviruses?
Answer
  • Replicate in nucleus
  • Very resistant to detergents, drying, heat, solvents, pH changes, disinfectants
  • Very stable in the environment
  • Require rapidly dividing cells (S‐phase)-- eg. intestinal cells
  • Easily killed by detergents, drying, heat, solvents, pH changes, disinfectants
  • Labile in the environment
  • Replicate in the cytoplasm

Question 37

Question
What genus do all parvoviruses of veterinary significance belong? Which sub-family does this sit within?
Answer
  • Genus Parvovirus in the Sub‐Family Parvovirinae
  • Genus Protoparvovirus in the Sub‐Family Parvovirinae
  • Genus Parvovirus in the Sub‐Family Densovirinae
  • Genus Protoparvovirus in the Sub‐Family Densovirinae

Question 38

Question
Describe the pathogenicity and clinical symptoms of feline panleukopaenia virus?
Answer
  • Highly contagious, systemic and enteric disease of cats
  • Causes bone marrow suppression, GIT signs, cerebellar hypoplasia (foetus)
  • Causes generalised disease of cats (domestic and wild cats)
  • Many infections are sub‐clinical
  • Onset of disease associated with profound panleukopaenia + fever
  • Incubation period ~5 days
  • Prefers mitotically active cells (S‐phase) (eg. Intestinal crypt cells, Lymphopoietic cells of bone marrow, Foetal cells (cerebellum, retina, death))
  • Acute cases progress to vomiting, (bloody) diarrhoea, dehydration while severe cases die in peracute stage
  • Distributed by free and cell associated viraemia
  • Virus enters via oropharynx, replicates in pharyngeal lymphoid tissue

Question 39

Question
Which of the below explain the epidemiology of feline panleukopaenia virus?
Answer
  • One serotype with worldwide distribution
  • Endemic infection in vaccinated cat populations: unvaccinated cats at most risk
  • Endemic disease in unvaccinated cat populations: young cats affected
  • Two serotypes both with worldwide distribution
  • Seasonal disease pattern (kitten season)
  • Cats of all ages susceptible (Primarily see disease in kittens as maternal antibody wanes)
  • Incubation period ~5 days
  • Incubation period ~10 days
  • Causes generalised disease of cats (domestic and wild cats)
  • Causes generalised disease of cats and dogs (domestic and wild)

Question 40

Question
How can feline panleukopaenia be transmitted?
Answer
  • Trans‐placental infection in susceptible queens
  • Virus excretion in faeces (several weeks after clinical recovery), also in saliva, urine, vomit (acute stages)
  • Vector transmission
  • Direct contact required for transmission (eg. open wounds)

Question 41

Question
How might feline panleukopaenia be prevented and treated?
Answer
  • Supportive therapy (eg. Fluid therapy, blood / plasma transfusion, broad spectrum antibiotics)
  • Catteries: strict hygiene, quarantine and disinfection required
  • Vaccination (Inactivated and live‐virus vaccines available)
  • Antivirals are often used
  • Cleaning with bleach

Question 42

Question
What is the epidemiology of canine parvovirus 2?
Answer
  • Endemic worldwide
  • 3 variants recognised (2a, 2b, 2c)
  • All members of Canidae family susceptible
  • High morbidity and mortality in initial outbreak situation (all ages affected)
  • High spread
  • Only endemic to Australia
  • Only domestic dogs are susceptible

Question 43

Question
What are the clinical signs that a dog has canine parvovirus 2?
Answer
  • Severe disease in pups between 6 weeks and 6 months of age (waning maternal immunity)
  • Myocarditis (but uncommon)
  • Haemorrhagic gastroenteritis and vomiting
  • Disease may be mild or sub‐clinical if sufficient immunity
  • Severely affected animals die
  • Causes CNS symptoms
  • Severe disease in adult dogs most often
  • Myocarditis (very common)

Question 44

Question
What is the pathogenesis of canine parvovirus 2?
Answer
  • Myocarditis in pups infected late gestation or first 2 weeks of age due to rapid proliferation of myocytes in the perinatal period
  • Maldigestion and malabsorption and often severe haemorrhage (foetid smell, diarrhoea)
  • Mucosal collapse with contraction and fusion of villi of small intestine
  • Rapidly dividing cells in intestinal crypts are infected
  • Infection of the upper respiratory tract, mucosal cells (oronasal discharge)
  • Myocardial inflammation and necrosis

Question 45

Question
How can canine parvovirus 2 be diagnosed?
Answer
  • PCR assays
  • Haemagglutination
  • Presumptive diagnosis based on sudden onset of foul smelling haemorrhagic diarrhoea
  • Faecal immunoassays (virus shedding is transient: 3‐7 days after infection)
  • Bacterial culture

Question 46

Question
How can canine parvovirus be prevented and treated?
Answer
  • Supportive therapy (Fluid therapy, blood / plasma transfusion, broad spectrum antibiotics)
  • Kennels and shelters: strict hygiene, quarantine and disinfection\required
  • Vaccination (Inactivated and live‐virus vaccines available)
  • Antivirals are used often
  • Disinfection using sodium hypochlorite
  • Disinfection using Formalin, β‐propiolactone and oxidising agents

Question 47

Question
If there is an outbreak or a larger than normal number of puppies with parvovirus that are younger than 6 weeks, what should you do?
Answer
  • Vaccinate earlier, maternal antibodies may be waning earlier than the recommended 6 to 8 week vaccine start date
  • Vaccinate at the recommended 6 to 8 week vaccine start date as there is nothing you can do
  • Vaccinate adult animals more often than the 3 or more year recommended booster shot to increase immunity

Question 48

Question
What is the estimated relative efficacy of the below vaccines at 7 years post vaccination according to research conducted by Professor Ronald D. Schultz Canine Distemper (ML) Canine rDistemper (R) Canine Parvovirus-2 (ML) Canine Adenovirus-2 (ML)
Answer
  • 99%
  • 75%
  • 21%
  • 88%

Question 49

Question
Why do we give multiple doses of infectious vaccines to puppies?
Answer
  • As we cannot predict duration of waning maternal immunity, maternal immunity may wane at different times for different puppies
  • As we hope to make more money
  • As we cannot give a huge dose of vaccine all at once to a puppy

Question 50

Question
What is correct for S.M.E.D.I.?
Answer
  • Stillbirth Mummification Embryonic Death Infertility
  • Swine Mummification Embryonic Death Infertility
  • Stillbirth Maternal death Embryonic Death Infertility

Question 51

Question
Porcine parvovirus is an important cause of reproductive failure in swine worldwide?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 52

Question
What is the epidemiology of porcine parvovirus?
Answer
  • Most significant if virus is introduced into seronegative herd
  • Enzootic in many herds
  • Virus stable in environment for months
  • Morbidity reduced by vaccination
  • In endemic situation: disease seen in seronegative gilts infected in the sow herd when pregnant
  • Endemic only to the UK

Question 53

Question
What are the clinical signs of porcine parvovirus?
Answer
  • Clinical signs in foetus depend on stage of gestation – apparent at farrowing
  • First clinical sign is often increased number of young sows returning to oestrus 3‐8 weeks after breeding
  • Some sows remain “endocrinologically pregnant” and don’t come back into oestrus until expected farrowing date
  • Reproductive failure
  • Death of young sows/gilts
  • Lifelong infertility in sows

Question 54

Question
What is the pathogenesis of porcine parvovirus?
Answer
  • <30 days gestation: foetal death and resorption
  • Local replication in tonsillar lymphoid tissue precedes viraemia and trans‐placental
  • Takes ~ 15 days for virus to reach foetus after infection
  • Takes ~ 2 days for virus to reach foetus after infection
  • Takes ~ 24 days for virus to reach foetus after infection
  • >70 days gestation: stillbirth or normal piglet (depends on immune response)
  • 30‐70 days gestation: foetus fail to develop (mummification/stillbirth
  • >70 days gestation: foetal death and resorption

Question 55

Question
How can porcine parvovirus be diagnosed?
Answer
  • Difficult to diagnose early infections as embryonic death and resorption not obvious and no specimens
  • Serology (but limited usefulness)
  • Haemagglutination assays
  • PCR assays
  • Infected foeti contain high levels of virus
  • Ultrasound
  • Odd behaviour of sows when virus is infecting the placenta

Question 56

Question
How can porcine parvovirus be prevented
Answer
  • Vaccination (inactivated vaccine) is available (however, limited opportunity to vaccinate gilts as they are bred at 7 months of age (waning maternal antibody)
  • Exposure of gilts prior to mating induces immunity (so that they do not become infected while pregnant)
  • Gilts should not be mated until they are 2yrs old
  • Abortion should be forced for the gilts first litter so she can become pregnant again quickly

Question 57

Question
What is the basic structure of the Circoviridae?
Answer
  • Non‐enveloped, single stranded DNA
  • Enveloped, single stranded DNA
  • Non‐enveloped, single stranded RNA
  • Non‐enveloped, double stranded DNA
  • Enveloped, double stranded DNA

Question 58

Question
What are the general features of the circoviridae?
Answer
  • Require actively dividing cells
  • Persistent infections
  • Stable at pH 3‐9
  • Resistant to disinfectants
  • Resistant to heating at 60oC, 30 minutes
  • Very stable in environment
  • Labile in the environment
  • Latent infections
  • Stable at pH 7-9

Question 59

Question
What are the veterinary important circoviridae of those listed below?
Answer
  • Psittacine beak and feather disease
  • Porcine circovirus
  • Chicken anaemia virus
  • Feline panleukopaenia
  • African horse sickness

Question 60

Question
What is the epidemiology of Psittacine beak and feather disease?
Answer
  • First identified in Australian parrots in captivity
  • Birds under 5 years at greater risk
  • Disease in cockatoos, parrots and budgerigars
  • Disease in pigeons
  • Endemic to Africa only

Question 61

Question
What clinical symptoms does Psittacine beak and feather disease cause?
Answer
  • Feather loss, feather deformities and Beak and claw deformities
  • Feather loss, feather deformities and pulmonary oedema
  • Liver necrosis and pulmonary oedema
  • Vomiting and diarrhoea

Question 62

Question
What is the pathogenesis of
Answer
  • In wild birds, malformed feathers and beak lead to difficulty feeding and death. In care, these birds can live for months/years if fed
  • Basophillic intracytoplasmic inclusions in follicular epithelium
  • Virus replicates in basal epithelial layer of feather follicles, beak and claws
  • Lymphoid depletion
  • Progressive disease
  • Virus replicates in the intestinal crypts
  • Virus causes death in less than 3 months due tp destruction of the intestinal crypts

Question 63

Question
How can Psittacine beak and feather disease be diagnosed?
Answer
  • Clinical signs and histology (basophillic inclusions in feather follicles), PCR assays
  • Clinical signs and histology (basophillic inclusions in feather follicles), PCR assays, cell culture
  • Clinical signs and histology (basophillic inclusions in feather follicles), bacterial culture

Question 64

Question
How can Psittacine beak and feather disease be controlled/prevented?
Answer
  • Strict hygiene and quarantine protocols needed to keep infection out of breeding aviaries
  • There is only an experimental vaccine
  • Vaccination
  • Hard to eradicate when in the environment

Question 65

Question
What are the general features of porcine circovirus?
Answer
  • Widespread in most pig populations
  • 6 week old pigs present with weight loss, enlarged lymph nodes and dyspnoea
  • Progressive wasting disease
  • Causes a variety of clinical disease syndromes: Post‐weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome is most important
  • Causes infertility and abortions
  • Endemic only to Asia

Question 66

Question
What are the general features of Chicken Anaemia disease?
Answer
  • Horizontal transmission by direct contact and contaminated fomites
  • Vertical transmission (into eggs)
  • 2‐3 weeks of age: anorectic, anaemic, bone marrow aplasia, atrophy of thymus, bursa and spleen
  • Virus shed in faeces and feather dander
  • Virus shed in oronasal discharge
  • Young birds develop aplastic anaemia and generalised lymphoid atrophy
  • Only affects chickens
  • Affects all species of poultry
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