Practice ATP Interview #3

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Jose Brid
Quiz by Jose Brid, updated more than 1 year ago
Jose Brid
Created by Jose Brid over 8 years ago
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Question 1

Question
If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, what action(s) should the pilot take?
Answer
  • Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway until established on the missed approach course
  • Turn toward the landing runway maintaining MDA, and if visual reference is not gained, perform missed approach
  • Make a climbing turn toward the VOR/NDB, and request further insturction

Question 2

Question
What is the difference between a visual and a contact approach?
Answer
  • A visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR authorization
  • A visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by the pilot
  • Both are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach

Question 3

Question
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a tubrine-powered aircraft operating below 10,000 feet?
Answer
  • 200 knots
  • 210 knots
  • 250 knots

Question 4

Question
When a speed adjustment is necessary to maintain separation, what minimum speed may ATC request of a turbine-powered aircraft departing an airport?
Answer
  • 188 knots
  • 210 knots
  • 230 knots

Question 5

Question
If ATC requests a speed adjustment that is not within the operating limits of the aircraft, what action must the pilot take?
Answer
  • Maintain an airspeed within the operating limitations as close to the requested speed as possible
  • Attempt to use the requested speed as long as possible, then request a reasonable airspeed from ATC
  • Advice ATC of the airspeed that will be used

Question 6

Question
When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?
Answer
  • At the DH when the runway is not clearly visible
  • When the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not clearly visible
  • At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost

Question 7

Question
Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon?
Answer
  • Arrival at the DH on the glide slope
  • Arrival at the visual descent point
  • Expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach

Question 8

Question
Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descent below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?
Answer
  • Under no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual reference for descent below DH or MDA
  • Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the approach light system can be seen
  • The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable

Question 9

Question
What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot:
Answer
  • May begin a descent to the procedure turn altitude
  • Must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes
  • May descend from the assigned altitude only when established on the final approach course

Question 10

Question
What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?
Answer
  • 1/4 SM
  • 3/4 SM
  • 3/8 SM

Question 11

Question
The prescribed visibility criteria for RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?
Answer
  • 3/8 SM
  • 5/8 SM
  • 3/4 SM

Question 12

Question
The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for RVR value?
Answer
  • 5/8 SM
  • 3/4 SM
  • 7/8 SM

Question 13

Question
When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?
Answer
  • The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book
  • 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA
  • The actual minimums shown on the chart for the airport

Question 14

Question
What action should a pilot take when a clearance is received from ATC that appears to be contrary to a regulation?
Answer
  • Read the clearance back in its entirety
  • Request a clarification from ATC
  • Do not accept the clearance

Question 15

Question
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?
Answer
  • High altitudes close to the VORTAC
  • Low altitudes close to the VORTAC
  • Low altitudes far from the VORTAC

Question 16

Question
What DME indicator should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?
Answer
  • 0 DME miles
  • 2 DME miles
  • 2.3 DME miles

Question 17

Question
What functions are provided by ILS?
Answer
  • Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle
  • Azimuth, range and vertical angle
  • Guidance, range, and visual information

Question 18

Question
Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?
Answer
  • 108.10 to 118.10 MHz
  • 108.10 to 111.95 MHz
  • 108.10 to 117.95 MHz

Question 19

Question
The Lowest ILS Category II minimums are?
Answer
  • DH 50 feet and RVR 1200 feet
  • DH 100 feet and RVR 1200 feet
  • DH 150 feet and RVR 1500 feet

Question 20

Question
What is the Lowest Category IIIA minimum?
Answer
  • DH 50 feet and RVR 1200 feet
  • RV 1000 feet
  • RVR 700 feet

Question 21

Question
Aircraft navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan to be:
Answer
  • RNAV equipped
  • Astrotracker equipped
  • FMS/EFIS equipped

Question 22

Question
(Refer to Image) Assume that the reported weather conditions at the time of departure are 500 feet overcast, 2 miles visibility, and the wind is calm. If you determine that the climb performance for your airplane is 400 feet per nautical mile, which runway should you choose for departure? IMAGINE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"
Answer
  • Rwy 9
  • Rwy 27

Question 23

Question
(Refer to Image) When filing your flight plan, what code should you enter on the flight plan for the BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE with julian Transition? IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"
Answer
  • BRDR5.IPL
  • BRDR5.JLI
  • BFDR5.BRWOS.JLI

Question 24

Question
(Refer to Image) If you depart Runway 27, what heading should you use until you reach PGY 19 DME? IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"
Answer
  • Heading 275
  • Heading 270
  • Heading 090

Question 25

Question
(Refer to Image) Where does the basic portion of BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE procedure end? IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"
Answer
  • At the Poggi VORTAC
  • At BROWS intersection
  • At the Imperial VORTAC

Question 26

Question
(Refer to Image) What is the departure control frequency for Runway 9 at KSAN? IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"
Answer
  • 124.35
  • 119.6

Question 27

Question
(Refer to Image) What is the length of the Imperial Transition? IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"
Answer
  • 25 nautical miles
  • 64 nautical miles
  • 75 nautical miles

Question 28

Question
(Refer to Image) If you depart Runway 27 on the BORDER FIVE DEPARTURE, Imperial Transition, what initial altitude can you expect? IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/7eacbe8404ca0cf6e7c0647e37803e5e"
Answer
  • 7000 feet at the Poggi VORTAC
  • 7000 feet at the BROWS intersection
  • your initial altitude will be assigned by the controller

Question 29

Question
(Refer to Image) What is the appropriate frequency to receive information regarding instrument approach procedure in progress at San Diego International Airport? IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"
Answer
  • 134.8
  • 124.35
  • 119.6

Question 30

Question
(Refer to Image) What is the elevation of San Diego International Airport? IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"
Answer
  • 150 feet MSL
  • 15 feet MSL
  • 14 feet MSL

Question 31

Question
(Refer to Image) What is the minimum glide slope intercept altitude when you are inbound on the intermediate approach segment? IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"
Answer
  • 2000 feet MSL
  • 1949 feet MSL

Question 32

Question
(Refer to Image) If you are executing ILS RWY 09, at what point will you initiate the missed approach procedure? IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"
Answer
  • 350 feet
  • 530 feet
  • 346 feet

Question 33

Question
(Refer to Image) If you are circling to land at 100 knots in a Category A aircraft, what is your MDA (H) and visibility requirement? IMAGE LINK "https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"
Answer
  • 800 feet and 1 statute mile
  • 800 feet and 1 1/4 statute mile
  • 800 feet and 2 1/4 statute mile

Question 34

Question
(Refer to Image) If the glide slope flag appears in your CDI after passing GATTO, what is the minimum altitude to which you can descend? How can you identify the MAP? IMAGE LINK"https://gyazo.com/302f1b0338dd8718c85ea627b07f5480"
Answer
  • 540 feet and 2.2 DME from ISAN
  • 350 feet and 2.2 DME from ISAN

Question 35

Question
What is the expected duration of an individual micro burst?
Answer
  • Five minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 2 to 4 minutes
  • One micro burst may continue for as long as an hour
  • Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation

Question 36

Question
Maximum downdrafts in a micro burst encounter may be as strong as:
Answer
  • 1,500 ft/min
  • 4,500 ft/min
  • 6,000 ft/min

Question 37

Question
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 40 knots, within a micro burst, may expect a total shear across the micro burst of:
Answer
  • 40 knots
  • 80 knots
  • 90 knots

Question 38

Question
Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?
Answer
  • Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases
  • Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases
  • Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases

Question 39

Question
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?
Answer
  • Sudden decrease in a headwind component
  • Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity
  • Sudden increase in a headwind component

Question 40

Question
Which INITIAL cockpit indications should a pilot be aware of when a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind?
Answer
  • Altitude increases; pitch and indicated airspeed decrease
  • Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed decrease
  • Altitude, pitch, and indicated airspeed increase

Question 41

Question
What is the recommended technique to counter the loss of airspeed and resultant lift from wind sheard?
Answer
  • Lower the pitch attitude and regain lost airspeed
  • Avoid overstressing the aircraft, "pitch to airspeed," and apply maximum power
  • Maintain, or increase, pitch attitude and accept the lower-than -normal airspeed indications

Question 42

Question
Which wind-shear condition results in a loss of airspeed?
Answer
  • Decreasing headwind or tailwind
  • Decreasing headwind and increasing tailwind
  • Increasing headwind and decreasing tailwind

Question 43

Question
Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?
Answer
  • Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind
  • Increasing tailwind and headwind
  • Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind

Question 44

Question
Which is a definition of "severe wind shear"?
Answer
  • Any rapid change of horizontal wind shear in excess of 25 knots; vertical shear excepted
  • Any rapid change in wind direction or velocity which causes airspeed changes greater than 15 knots or vertical speed changes greater than 500 ft/min
  • Any rapid change of airspeed grater than 20 knots which is sustained from more than 20 seconds or vertical speed changes in ecxess of 100 ft/min

Question 45

Question
Which airplane performance characteristics should be recognized during takeoff when encountering a tailwind shear that increases in intensity?
Answer
  • Loss of, or diminished, airspeed performance
  • decreased takeoff distance
  • Increased climb performance immediately after takeoff

Question 46

Question
Maximum downdrafts in a micro burst encounter may be as strong as?
Answer
  • 8,000 ft/min
  • 7,000 ft/min
  • 6,000 ft/min

Question 47

Question
An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a micro burst, may expect a total shear across the micro burst off?
Answer
  • 40 knots
  • 80 knots
  • 90 knots

Question 48

Question
What is the expected duration of an individual micro burst?
Answer
  • Two minutes with a maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute
  • One micro burst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours
  • Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation
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