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AVIANCA FINAL

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Piloto AVIANCA Proceso Seleccion Copilotos 2017 Quiz on AVIANCA FINAL , created by Adriana Forero on 06/02/2017.
Adriana Forero
Quiz by Adriana Forero, updated more than 1 year ago
Adriana Forero
Created by Adriana Forero almost 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two-way radio communications failure?
Answer
  • DescendtoMEAand,ifclearofclouds,proceedtothenearestappropriateairport.Ifnotclearofclouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route.
  • Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
  • Continue on the rout especified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highes to flast assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.

Question 2

Question
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...”?
Answer
  • ThepilotmayutilizeanyaltitudefromtheMEA/MOCAto6,000feet,buteachchangeinaltitudemustbe reported to ATC.
  • Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot’s discretion.
  • Thepilotmustmaintain6,000feetuntilreachingtheIAFservingthedestinationairport,thenexecutethe published approach procedure.

Question 3

Question
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads “...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...?
Answer
  • ThepilotisauthorizedtoconductflightatanyaltitudefromminimumIFRaltitudeuptoandincluding6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.
  • It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
  • Thepilotmustmaintain6,000untilreachingtheIAFservingthedestinationairport,thenexecutethepublished approach procedure.

Question 4

Question
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
Answer
  • Pressure altitude at sea level.
  • Pressure al titude at field elevation.
  • True altitude at field elevation.

Question 5

Question
En route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?
Answer
  • Sea level.
  • 1,300 feet.
  • 715 feet.

Question 6

Question
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator
Answer
  • May show a slight climb and turn.
  • Will show a slight skid and climb to the right.
  • Should immediately show straight-and-level flight.

Question 7

Question
Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
Answer
  • The horizon bar does not align itself with the miniature airplane after warmup.
  • The horizon bar vibrates during warmup.
  • The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.

Question 8

Question
What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?
Answer
  • Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
  • Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
  • Rate of roll and rate of turn.

Question 9

Question
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?
Answer
  • Angle of bank.
  • Angle of bank and rate of turn.
  • Rate of roll and rate of turn.

Question 10

Question
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
Answer
  • Pressure altitude at sea level.
  • Pressure al titude at field elevation.
  • True altitude at field elevation.

Question 11

Question
If a normally aspirated engine’s power output (such as on a C-150 or PA28) engine is measured in shaft horse power (SHP), a turboprop engine’s power output is measured in:
Answer
  • Also SHP
  • ESHP (equivalent shaft horse power)
  • Lbs of thrust

Question 12

Question
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by
Answer
  • Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
  • Early recognition of hazardous thoughts.
  • Taking meaningful steps to be more assertive with attitudes.

Question 13

Question
Identify REIL.
Answer
  • Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.
  • Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of the runway.
  • Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway.

Question 14

Question
Which condition would INITIALLY cause the indicated airspeed and pitch to increase and the sink rate to decrease?
Answer
  • Sudden increase in a headwind component.
  • Tailwind which suddenly increases in velocity
  • Sudden decrease in the headwind component.

Question 15

Question
Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airpeed?
Answer
  • Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
  • Increasing tailwind and headwind
  • Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.

Question 16

Question
Ningún explotador aceptara para su transporte por vía aérea bulto o embalaje externo que contenga MP.
Answer
  • Todas las anteriores.
  • Hasta que no se haya inspeccionado que llevan las marcas y etiquetas debidas.
  • Amenosquesehayacertificadoquelosbultossatisfacenlascondicionespertinentesprevistasenlasinstrucciones técnicas

Question 17

Question
Quien ha instituido procedimientos internacionales que regulan la introducción de MP en el transporte aéreo a través del servicio postal.
Answer
  • La unión postal universal
  • IFALPA.
  • La OACI.

Question 18

Question
Diga que frase es cierta:
Answer
  • Las discrepancias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.
  • Las diferencias de los explotadores se comunican a OACI.
  • Las discrepancias de los estados se comunican a OACI.

Question 19

Question
What condition is necessary for the formation of structural icing in flight?
Answer
  • Visible water.
  • Water vapor.
  • Supercooled water drops.

Question 20

Question
On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the
Answer
  • Aircraf tis continuously in a position from which a descent to a normal landing on the intended runway, can be made.
  • Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published minimums for that approach.
  • Approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the pilot.

Question 21

Question
Pilots are not authorized to land an aircraft from an instrument approach unless the
Answer
  • Visual approach slope indicator and runway references are distincly visible to the pilot.
  • Flight visibility and ceiling are at, or exceeds the minimums prescribed in the approach being used.
  • Flight visibility is at, or exceeds the visibility prescribed in the approach procedure being used.

Question 22

Question
Hypoxia is the result of:
Answer
  • All of your body not being sufficiently balanced with oxygen and becoming hypoxic
  • The brain not being used to a lack of oxygen
  • The brain and body tissue not receiving sufficient CO through the blood stream

Question 23

Question
When flying a DP and you lose communications, you must:
Answer
  • Proceed as per special instructions on the chart when included
  • Return for a landing
  • Continue flying the DP as published

Question 24

Question
Take off minimums are a standard value or all airports in Colombia:
Answer
  • True, except where otherwise published on the chart or company Ops Specs
  • False, every airport is different
  • True, except as published on STARs

Question 25

Question
When flying an airway you need to deviate 3.5 Nm to the left of course you need:
Answer
  • Do nothing, airways are 8 Nm wide to each side of the center line
  • Request ATC since you are expected to navigate on the center line of the airway
  • Do nothing, airways are 4 Nm wide to each side

Question 26

Question
(Refer to Figure 46.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?
Answer
  • ItistheminimumvectoraltitudeforradarvectorsinthesectorsoutheastofPUCbetween020°and290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR.
  • It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured.
  • It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.

Question 27

Question
When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums? a.
Answer
  • Astraight An landing may be made if the pilot has the runway insight insufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.
  • The pilot may land straight-in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.
  • Astraight-inlandingmay not be made,butthepilotmaycontinuetotherunwayatMDAandthencircleto land on the runway.

Question 28

Question
(Refer to Figure 56.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated? a
Answer
  • After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.
  • When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.
  • Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF.

Question 29

Question
The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply? a.
Answer
  • RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.
  • RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
  • RVR minimum swhich are specified in the procedures hould be converted and applied as ground visibility.

Question 30

Question
(Refer to Figure 54.) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054° radial at 7,000 feet. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to
Answer
  • intercepting the glide slope.
  • CREAK outbound.
  • completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer.

Question 31

Question
What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?
Answer
  • You must have the airport insigh to rapreced in gaircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.
  • You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions.
  • You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions.
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