PPL ***

Description

Quiz on PPL ***, created by mehdi mohaqeq on 29/06/2017.
mehdi mohaqeq
Quiz by mehdi mohaqeq, updated more than 1 year ago
mehdi mohaqeq
Created by mehdi mohaqeq over 7 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
NOTAM "A" contains information regarding operation of?
Answer
  • International
  • Domestic
  • IFR
  • All answers are correct

Question 2

Question
Which part of AIP contains the information about "airspace classification"
Answer
  • ENR 3
  • ENR 1
  • GEN 3
  • GEN 1

Question 3

Question
What is the speed limitation for IFR flights within class "D" airspace below 10,000 ft AMSL?
Answer
  • 250 KT IAS.
  • 260 KT IAS.
  • 250 KT TAS.
  • 260 KT TAS.

Question 4

Question
ICAO personnel licensing rules and regulations are contained in Annex _____ to the Chicago Convention.
Answer
  • 17
  • 9
  • 14
  • 1

Question 5

Question
All flights before entering Iran ADIZ (Tehran FIR) are required to contact the appropriate air defense radar station on ……….…… or ……………, at least 10 minutes prior to entering Tehran FIR.
Answer
  • 121.500 MHz – 243.000 MHz
  • 121.000 MHz – 243.000 MHz
  • 127.000 MHz – 135.000 MHz
  • 127.800 MHz – 135.100 MHz

Question 6

Question
Which statement is not correct about effect of increase weight on an aircraft performance?
Answer
  • Increase service ceiling
  • Increase Takeoff distance
  • Decrease climb performance
  • Decrease acceleration

Question 7

Question
“Landing distance" is measure from …………... .
Answer
  • 35’ height above threshold of landing surface
  • 50’ height above threshold of landing surface
  • 60’ height above threshold of landing surface
  • 70’ height above threshold of landing surface

Question 8

Question
(Refer to figure P-07) Determine the fuel, time and distance for a normal climb from an airport at sea level to a pressure altitude of 8000 feet? OAT: 29 °C (at departing airport) Weight: 3700 pounds.
Answer
  • 12 minutes, 24 pounds and 23 NM.
  • 14.4 minutes, 28.8 pounds and 27.6 NM.
  • 14.4 minutes, 42 pounds and 27.6 NM.
  • 14.4 minutes, 44.8 pounds and 27.6 NM.

Question 9

Question
An aircraft is coming in from the left. Which light will you see first?
Answer
  • Steady red.
  • Steady green.
  • Flashing green.
  • White.

Question 10

Question
For which type of operation, the advisory service may be provided?
Answer
  • Controlled IFR
  • SVFR
  • CVFR
  • IFR

Question 11

Question
Who is responsible to publish AIP:
Answer
  • Operator
  • State
  • ICAO
  • ATS authority

Question 12

Question
Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under condition specified by air traffic control unit, is:
Answer
  • ATC clearance
  • Flight permission number
  • Controlled clearance
  • Flight clearance

Question 13

Question
……….…… is provided to notify appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue service.
Answer
  • Advisory service.
  • Alerting service.
  • Area control service.
  • Surveillance service.

Question 14

Question
The vertical position of the aircraft during climb is expressed in terms of ………. until reaching the transition altitude.
Answer
  • Height.
  • Altitude.
  • Flight level.
  • Elevation.

Question 15

Question
What is the minimum height of VFR, over congested area?
Answer
  • 500 ft
  • 1000 ft
  • 1500 ft
  • 2000 ft

Question 16

Question
IMC is a meteorological condition....................
Answer
  • Equal to VMC
  • Less than minima for VMC
  • More than minima for VMC
  • B and C are correct

Question 17

Question
Cruising level is a level maintained during:
Answer
  • Flight time.
  • Flight duty time.
  • Significant portion of flight.
  • Take-off or landing.

Question 18

Question
Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight?
Answer
  • SPECI
  • ATIS
  • SIGMENT
  • TAF

Question 19

Question
The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL050. At what FL would you expect a temperature of -6°C?
Answer
  • FL110
  • FL020
  • FL100
  • FL080

Question 20

Question
Which of the following items are used in TREND?
Answer
  • BECMG
  • TEMPO
  • FM
  • A & B & C are correct

Question 21

Question
In a forecast what does the code "SG" stand for?
Answer
  • Severe icing
  • Snow grains
  • Hail
  • Embedded thunderstorm with hail

Question 22

Question
Flight recorder comprises:
Answer
  • Cockpit voice recorder
  • Flight data recorder
  • A or B
  • A and B

Question 23

Question
Which equipment is able to warn a pilot regarding to excessive altitude loss after take-off or go-around?
Answer
  • Radar altimeter
  • GPWS
  • Radio altimeter.
  • ADS.

Question 24

Question
The instruments and equipment, including their installation in aeroplanes shall be approved or accepted by:
Answer
  • State of Operator
  • Operator
  • State
  • State of Registry

Question 25

Question
How many times, the distress signal may be transmitted?
Answer
  • 2 Times
  • 3 Times
  • At least 2 times
  • At least 3 times

Question 26

Question
You are making a long straight in approach to land, at what range would you make the call "LONG FINAL"?
Answer
  • 2 NM
  • 4 NM
  • Between 8 and 4 NM
  • 3 NM

Question 27

Question
What does the phrase "BREAKBREAK" mean?
Answer
  • The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.
  • It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.
  • It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.
  • My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.

Question 28

Question
Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category of:
Answer
  • Flight safety message
  • Flight regularity messages
  • Service messages.
  • Class B messages.

Question 29

Question
The area up to displaced threshold is used for:
Answer
  • Taxiing, takeoff roll.
  • Takeoff and landing only.
  • Landing and taxiing only.
  • Taxiing, takeoff and landing.

Question 30

Question
(Refer to figure P-33) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on:
Answer
  • Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
  • Runway 22 directly into the wind.
  • Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.
  • Runway 04 directly into the wind.

Question 31

Question
(Refer to figure P-39) While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?
Answer
  • (Refer to figure P-39) While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol?
  • Middle yellow.
  • Bottom yellow
  • B & C are correct.

Question 32

Question
Which of the following statements regarding Mode S is incorrect?
Answer
  • Mode S is used to assist in GPS calculations.
  • Data transmission and exchange is conducted in mode S.
  • Mode S transponders reduced RT traffic and also provide the aircraft with the data link facility.
  • A mode S interrogator, when installed, will also collect data from old mode A and C transponders.

Question 33

Question
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
Answer
  • The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
  • The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
  • The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
  • The other aircraft is flying away from you.

Question 34

Question
“A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of takeoff run available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned takeoff” is the definition for:
Answer
  • Runway strip.
  • Runway end safety area.
  • Stopway.
  • Clearway.

Question 35

Question
You are required to uplift 40 US Gallons of AVGAS with specific gravity of 0.72. How many liters and kilograms is this?
Answer
  • 109 liters, 151 kg.
  • 182 liters, 131 kg.
  • 182 liters, 289 kg.
  • 151 liters, 109 kg.

Question 36

Question
A descent is planned from FL340 so as to arrive at FL100 at a distance 6 NM from a VORTAC. With a G/S of 280 kts and a rate of descent of 1200 ft/min. The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started is:
Answer
  • 65 NM
  • 99 NM
  • 27 NM
  • 93 NM

Question 37

Question
TAS: 95 kts, G/S:87 kts, TC:105°, TH:85°, Find wind direction and velocity
Answer
  • 020°, 32 kts
  • 032°, 20 kts
  • 038°, 20 kts
  • 020°, 39 kts

Question 38

Question
Given: Calibrated Air Speed: 410 kts / P.A: 22,000 ft / Indicated Air Temperature: 20 °C / CT: 1.0 Find True Air Speed.
Answer
  • 764
  • 462
  • 664
  • 561

Question 39

Question
Given: Pressure Altitude: 36,000 ft / Outside Air Temperature: - 40 °C . Find the density altitude.
Answer
  • 36,200 ft
  • 35,300 ft
  • 35,800 ft
  • 37,300 ft

Question 40

Question
Given: Fuel flow: 6.5 t/hr / Specific gravity: 0.80 / Mach number: 0.68 / OAT: -30°C / Headwind component: 25 kts . What is the specific fuel consumption?
Answer
  • 16.7 kg/NM air distance.
  • 13.4 kg/NM ground distance.
  • 13.4 kg/NM air distance.
  • 16.7 kg/NM ground distance.

Question 41

Question
Given: TAS: 465 kts / HDG: 124° (T) / W/V: 170°/80 Kts . Calculate the drift and ground speed.
Answer
  • 8°L - 415 kts.
  • 3°L - 415 kts.
  • 3°R - 400 kts.
  • 8°R - 400 kts.

Question 42

Question
Given: Course: 040° (T) / TAS: 120 kts / Wind speed: 30 kts . Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind direction of:
Answer
  • 120
  • 145
  • 115
  • 130

Question 43

Question
Given: Variation: 7 °W / Deviation: 4 °E / If the aircraft is flying a compass heading of 270°, the true and magnetic headings are:
Answer
  • 274°(T); 267°(M).
  • 267°(T); 274°(M).
  • 277°(T); 281°(M).
  • 263°(T); 259°(M)

Question 44

Question
A fuel amount of 160 US Gal allows endurance of 3 hrs 10 min with a light twin engine piston aircraft. What is the corresponding fuel flow per engine?
Answer
  • 25.3 US Gal/hr
  • 50.5 US Gal/hr
  • 51.6 US Gal/hr
  • 25.8 US Gal/hr

Question 45

Question
11,000 meters equals to ……………… feet.
Answer
  • 35,090
  • 36,090
  • 3,590
  • 3,690

Question 46

Question
What is hypoxia?
Answer
  • A state characterized by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment of the mask.
  • The total absence of oxygen in the air.
  • The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness.
  • Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some pathological condition.

Question 47

Question
The effect of hypoxia to vision:
Answer
  • Can only be detected when smoking tobacco.
  • Is usual stronger on the cones
  • Is stronger on the rods.
  • Does not depend on the level of illumination.

Question 48

Question
Breathing large amounts of carbon monoxide can result in:
Answer
  • A warm sensation.
  • Loss of muscle power.
  • An increased sense of well-being.
  • Tightness across the forehead and neck.

Question 49

Question
Signs of stress include:
Answer
  • Perspiration, dry mouth, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
  • Lowering of the blood pressure.
  • Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.
  • Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.

Question 50

Question
Two commonly used stimulant drugs that are not prohibited by ICAOs are ………….………. and ………………… .
Answer
  • Alcohol , Drugs.
  • Nicotine, Caffeine.
  • Amphetamines, Caffeine.
  • Drugs. Nicotine.

Question 51

Question
The sensory organ(s) in the inner ear responsible for vestibular sense is (are) the:
Answer
  • Utricle
  • Saccule
  • Semicircular canals.
  • Semicircular canals, vestibule (static organ).

Question 52

Question
……………………….. drugs generally excite the central nervous system and produce an increase in alertness and activity.
Answer
  • Depressant
  • Stimulant
  • Tranquilizer
  • Anesthetic

Question 53

Question
Which of the following speed is marked by specific color in airspeed indicator?
Answer
  • VS1
  • VLE
  • VLO
  • VA

Question 54

Question
When density altitude is equal to pressure altitude?
Answer
  • In non-standard temperature
  • Standard temperature
  • Standard atmosphere
  • Standard pressure

Question 55

Question
In pressurize airplane the main static port be clogged and the pitot use alternate static port, the airspeed, and VVI may be....
Answer
  • Lower, climb
  • Lower, descend
  • Higher, climb
  • Higher, descend

Question 56

Question
The ball of inclinometer in turn coordinator is:
Answer
  • Balance indicator
  • Quality of turn
  • Coordinate use of aileron & rudder
  • All answers are correct

Question 57

Question
Which principle of gyro does allow the turn coordinator gyro to sense rate of turn and rate of roll?
Answer
  • Precision
  • Rigidity
  • A or B
  • A and B

Question 58

Question
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally, indicate initially a turn toward the west if:
Answer
  • A left turn is entered from a north heading.
  • A right Turn is entered from a north heading.
  • An aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
  • An aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

Question 59

Question
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is:
Answer
  • Higher than the real altitude.
  • Lower than the real altitude.
  • Equal to the standard altitude.
  • The same .as the real altitude.

Question 60

Question
A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause it to:
Answer
  • Over-read.
  • Under-read.
  • Indication will drop to zero.
  • Freeze on the value it indicated at the time of failure.

Question 61

Question
When executing a turn by 90° at constant attitude and bank, a classic Artificial Horizon (air-driven) indicates:
Answer
  • Nose up and correct angle of bank.
  • Attitude and bank angle are correct.
  • Nose up and bank angle too low.
  • Nose up and bank angle too high.

Question 62

Question
The deviation of a compass is described as +4°. This means that:
Answer
  • The deviation may be described as westerly.
  • Compass heading will always be different by 4 degrees from true heading.
  • The compass heading will have a lower number in degrees than the magnetic heading.
  • The compass needle seems to be pointing at a pole located west of the magnetic pole.

Question 63

Question
Given: Weight D 160 lbs at 45" aft of datum / Weight E 170 lbs at 145" aft of datum / Weight F 150 lbs at 185" aft of datum / Based on this information where would the CG be located?
Answer
  • 86.0" aft of datum
  • 117.8" aft of datum
  • 124.2" aft of datum
  • 136.7" aft of datum

Question 64

Question
How much weight must be removed from station 130.0" to place CG at station 89.0"? Total weight 5100 lbs / CG location station 90.0"
Answer
  • 124.4 pounds
  • 122.2 pounds
  • 127.5 pounds
  • 128.2 pounds

Question 65

Question
By adding the payload to the Dry operating weight, we get:
Answer
  • Ramp weight.
  • Takeoff weight.
  • Zero fuel weight.
  • Landing weight.

Question 66

Question
The Payload is defined as:
Answer
  • The Total Mass of flight crew, passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel.
  • The Total Mass of crew and passengers excluding any baggage or cargo.
  • The Total Mass of passengers, baggage and cargo.
  • The Total Mass of passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel.

Question 67

Question
The QNH at an airfield located 200 meters above sea level is 1022 Hpa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF?
Answer
  • Less than 1022 Hpa.
  • It is not possible to give a definitive answer.
  • More than 1022 Hpa.
  • 1022 Hpa.

Question 68

Question
One of the characteristic of the tropopause is?
Answer
  • Abrupt change in temperature laps rate
  • Abrupt change in visibility
  • Abrupt change in wind direction
  • Abrupt change in type of cloud

Question 69

Question
what is the approximately indicated altitude would you expect to find the bases of cumulus clouds if the surface temperature at 2.500 ft MSL is 95F and the dew point is 67 F?
Answer
  • 6200 ft MSL
  • 7400 ft MSL
  • 8800 ft MSL
  • 10,500 ft MSL

Question 70

Question
Steady rain preceding a front is an indication of:
Answer
  • A broad area of frontal discontinuity
  • Cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence
  • A rapidly approaching cold front with cumuliform type clouds
  • An approaching warm front with associated stratus and little or no turbulence

Question 71

Question
Which statement is true with respect to a high or low pressure system?
Answer
  • A low pressure area trough is an area of descending air.
  • A high pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air
  • A high pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air
  • A low pressure area is a ridge of descending air

Question 72

Question
The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus:
Answer
  • Heavy rain
  • Very strong turbulence
  • Heavy icing conditions
  • An approaching storm

Question 73

Question
What is the embedded thunderstorms?
Answer
  • Thunderstorms have been visually sighted
  • Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line
  • Thunderstorms are predicated to develop in stable air mass
  • Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen

Question 74

Question
Frontal waves normally form on:
Answer
  • Slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts
  • Slow moving warm fronts or occluded fronts
  • Rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts
  • Stationary fronts or occluded fronts

Question 75

Question
What is the important characteristic of wind shear?
Answer
  • It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms but may be found near a strong temperature inversion
  • It can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction
  • It occurs primarily at the lower levels and is usually associated with mountain wave
  • It exists in horizontal direction only and is normally found near a jet stream

Question 76

Question
A wing is said to be tapered if:
Answer
  • It is inclined upwards from root to tip.
  • The chord at the wingtip is less than the chord at the root.
  • The incidence at the tip is less than at the root.
  • The camber is increased at the wingtip.

Question 77

Question
Downwash is:
Answer
  • The decrease in the angle of incidence from root to tip of the wing.
  • The higher speed airspeed behind the propeller.
  • The downward deflection of the airflow behind the wing.
  • The downward slope of a wing from root to tip.

Question 78

Question
At positive angles of attack, a wing produces most lift at:
Answer
  • 4° angle of attack.
  • Wings level.
  • Just before the stall.
  • Just after the stall.

Question 79

Question
Stall Speed in a turn is proportion to:
Answer
  • The square root of the load factor.
  • Weight.
  • Lift.
  • TAS squared.

Question 80

Question
When Fowler flaps are deployed?
Answer
  • Only the area increases.
  • They move backwards then downwards.
  • They move downwards then backwards.
  • They move forwards.

Question 81

Question
Dynamic longitudinal stability requires:
Answer
  • An effective elevator.
  • A small CG range.
  • Positive static longitudinal stability.
  • A variable incidence (trimming) tailplane.

Question 82

Question
Lift is the force acting perpendicular to the:
Answer
  • Chord line
  • Relative wind
  • Upper surface of the wing
  • Lower surface of the wing

Question 83

Question
Which of the following is correct?
Answer
  • Form drag is the same as parasite drag.
  • Skin friction is the same as parasite drag.
  • Induced drag is the part of parasite drag.
  • None of above.

Question 84

Question
What is the relationship between true airspeed and angle of attack for generating the same amount of lift as altitude is increased:
Answer
  • The same true airspeed and angle of attack.
  • A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
  • The lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.
  • The lower true airspeed and lower angle of attack.

Question 85

Question
A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing plan form, has a tendency to stall first at the:
Answer
  • Wingtip providing adequate stall warning.
  • Wing root providing adequate stall warning.
  • Wingtip providing inadequate stall warning.
  • All along of span at same rate and quantity.

Question 86

Question
Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?
Answer
  • Settling to the surface abruptly during landing.
  • Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.
  • Inability to get airborne even though airspeed is sufficient for normal takeoff speeds.
  • A rapid rate of sink and absence of normal cushioning during landings.

Question 87

Question
Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?
Answer
  • Tabs
  • Rudder
  • Flaps
  • Slats

Question 88

Question
Rotation about the lateral axis of an airplane is known as:
Answer
  • Yawing, and is controlled by the use of rudder.
  • Rolling, and is controlled by the use of ailerons.
  • Turning, and is controlled by the use of ailerons.
  • Pitching, and is controlled by the use of elevators.

Question 89

Question
Choose the correct answer regarding HVOR standard service volume?
Answer
  • From station site up to 45,000 ft AGL the reception range is 40 NM.
  • From station site up to 60,000 ft AGL the reception range is 40 NM.
  • Between 45,000 ft and 60,000 ft AGL the reception range is 130 NM.
  • Between 18,000 ft and 45,000 ft AGL the reception range is 130 NM.

Question 90

Question
When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the:
Answer
  • Radial 090°
  • Radial 180°
  • Radial 270°
  • Radial 360°

Question 91

Question
Which one is correct?
Answer
  • RB=MH+MB
  • MH=RB+MB
  • MB=MH-RB
  • MB=MH+RB

Question 92

Question
The OFF flag comes into view when:
Answer
  • Flying abeam the station.
  • The signal receiving is too weak.
  • Flying toward the station with uncorrected selected course.
  • All answers are correct.

Question 93

Question
(Refer to Figure P-01) What is the optimum aircraft heading to intercept magnetic bearing 210° to the station?
Answer
  • 150°
  • 060°
  • 330°
  • 240°

Question 94

Question
An moveable card ADF shows the bearing of a NDB as 020° and the heading of the airplane is 020° (M). In order to intercept an outbound course of 330° (from the NDB) at an angle of 40°, the airplanes heading should be altered to:
Answer
  • 010°
  • 330°
  • 300°
  • 040°

Question 95

Question
What is the maximum DME error at a distance 10NM from station?
Answer
  • 0.3 NM
  • 0.5 NM
  • 3 NM
  • 5 NM

Question 96

Question
A cylinder head temperature gauge measures:
Answer
  • The temperature of the hottest cylinder.
  • The temperature of all the cylinders and gives an average reading.
  • The temperature of the coolest cylinder.
  • The temperature of the two cylinders furthest away from each other divided by two.

Question 97

Question
The auxiliary fuel pumps are:
Answer
  • Mechanically driven by the engine and are connected in series with the main fuel booster pump.
  • Mechanically driven by the engine and are connected in parallel with the main fuel booster pump.
  • Electrically driven and are connected in parallel with the main fuel booster pump.
  • Electrically driven and are connected in series with the main fuel booster pump.

Question 98

Question
Prolonged running at low RPM may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the:
Answer
  • Excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
  • Sparking plugs.
  • Oil pump.
  • Fuel filter.

Question 99

Question
The slipstream effect of a propeller is most prominent at:
Answer
  • Low airspeeds with high power setting.
  • High airspeeds with low power setting.
  • High airspeeds with high power setting.
  • Low airspeeds with low power setting.

Question 100

Question
The operating principle of the float-type carburetor is based on:
Answer
  • Decrease in air velocity in the throat of a venturi, causing an increase in air pressure.
  • Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
  • The shape of the venturi that creates an area of high pressure.
  • A & C are correct.
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