Pharmacology I: Final Quiz

Question

1. MUSCLE RELAXANTS: True or false: guaifenesin selectively depresses transmission at internuncial neurons in the spinal cord, brainstem, and subcortical areas

Answer 1

Depresses CNS giving sedation and muscle relaxation

Answer 2

Decrease BP which then returns to normal

Answer 3

High doses can cause respiratory depression

Answer 4

It has hepatic metabolism to a glucuronide and is excreted in urine

Answer 5

You should avoid using it with physostigmine

Answer 6

It lasts longer in female ponies than males

Answer 7

It can cause hemolysis in cows

Answer 8

Guaifenesin

Answer 9

Neuromuscular blockers

Answer 10

That’s it…

Answer 11

Depolarizing

Answer 12

Non-depolarizing

Answer 13

Mivacurium—short

Answer 14

Tubocurarine, doxacurium, pancuronium, pipecuronium—long

Answer 15

Atracurium, rocurium, vecuronium—intermediate

Answer 16

All of the above are correct!

Answer 17

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Answer 18

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Answer 19

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Answer 20

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Answer 21

Decamethonium

Answer 22

Suxamethonium

Answer 23

Mivacurium

Answer 24

Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Answer 25

Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Answer 26

Decreased intraocular pressure

Answer 27

Potassium release

Answer 28

Bradycardia

Answer 29

Prolonged paralysis

Answer 30

Sometimes malignant hyperthermia

Answer 31

Other neuromuscular agents

Answer 32

Cholinesterase inhibitors

Answer 33

Aminoglycoside antibiotics

Answer 34

None of the above

Answer 35

Pigs and cats

Answer 36

Dogs and horses

Answer 37

Cattle and sheep

Answer 38

Horses and cats

Answer 39

Fibrinogen

Answer 40

Thromboplastin

Answer 41

Minimal tissue reactivity

Answer 42

Easy to sterilize and handle

Answer 43

Consist of either thrombin or collagen

Answer 44

All of the above

Answer 45

Fibrinogen

Answer 46

Thromboplastin

Answer 47

Fibrinogen

Answer 48

Thromboplastin

Answer 49

Fibrinogen

Answer 50

Thromboplastin

Answer 51

Fibrinogen

Answer 52

Thromboplastin

Answer 53

Oozing from the surface area

Answer 54

Massive blood loss

Answer 55

Capillary/venous bleeding

Answer 56

Surgery of the liver and spleen

Answer 57

Oxidized cellulose

Answer 58

Gelatin sponge

Answer 59

Microcrystalline collagen

Answer 60

Clotting factor deficiencies

Answer 61

Thrombocytopenia

Answer 62

Surgery of the liver and spleen

Answer 63

Clotting factor deficiencies and Thrombocytopenia

Answer 64

Clotting factor deficiencies and Surgery of the liver and spleen

Answer 65

Thrombocytopenia and Surgery of the liver and spleen

Answer 66

Oxidized cellulose

Answer 67

Gelatin sponge

Answer 68

Microcrystalline collagen

Answer 69

Epinephrine

Answer 70

Cyst formation

Answer 71

Sloughing of tissues and hemorrhage

Answer 72

Reduced effectiveness

Answer 73

Desmopressin acetate

Answer 74

Protamine sulfate

Answer 75

Desmopressin acetate

Answer 76

Protamine sulfate

Answer 77

Desmopressin acetate

Answer 78

Protamine sulfate

Answer 79

Desmopressin acetate

Answer 80

Protamine sulfate

Answer 81

Desmopressin acetate

Answer 82

Protamine sulfate

Answer 83

Desmopressin acetate

Answer 84

Protamine sulfate

Answer 85

Sodium oxalate

Answer 86

Acid citrate dextrose

Answer 87

Sodium citrate

Answer 88

Edetate disodium

Answer 89

Binds reversibly to antithrombin III to produce conformational changes to it, thereby inhibiting thrombin and activated factor Xa

Answer 90

Binds to endothelial walls, imparts negative charge, inhibits platelet adhesion and aggregation

Answer 91

Inhibits hepatic synthesis of prothrombin and factors II, VII, IX, and X

Answer 92

Increases plasminogen activator and tissue factor inhibitor

Answer 93

Antithrombotic

Answer 94

Anticoagulatory

Answer 95

It’s used to prevent venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, and to treat thromboemboli, as well as to treat DIC and to decrease risk factors in heartworm adulticide treatment

Answer 96

It prevents serosal post-operative adhesions

Answer 97

It’s metabolized by the liver and reticulo endothelial system

Answer 98

Its antidotes are protamine and fresh blood

Answer 99

It is stored in adipose tissue

Answer 100

Undergoes metabolism in the liver and is excreted in urine

Answer 101

It’s used for prophylaxis and treatment of venous thrombosis

Answer 102

Its side effect is hemorrhage

Answer 103

Streptokinase can cause systemic fibrinolysis

Answer 104

Tissue plasminogen activator is used for lysis of aortic thromboemboli in cats

Answer 105

Fibrinolysin is an activator of plasminogen

Answer 106

Urokinase is isolated from pee and prevents serosal post-operative adhesions in dogs

Answer 107

Clopidogrel

Answer 108

Dipyrimadole

Answer 109

Ticlopridine

Answer 110

Clopidogrel

Answer 111

Dipyrimadole

Answer 112

Ticlopidine

Answer 113

Dipyrimadole

Answer 114

Ticlopidine

Answer 115

Brain edema

Answer 116

Hyperthermia

Answer 117

Aspiration pneumonia

Answer 118

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Answer 119

Permanent brain injury

Answer 120

All of the above

Answer 121

Barbiturates

Answer 122

Benzodiazepines

Answer 123

Carbamazepine—inhibition of Na channels

Answer 124

Zonisamide—inhibition of Ca channels

Answer 125

Propofol—inhibition of Ca channels

Answer 126

Phenytoin—inhibition of Na channels

Answer 127

Zonisamide

Answer 128

Carbemazepine

Answer 129

Lamotrigrine

Answer 130

Intranasal

Answer 131

Intrarectal

Answer 132

Clonazepam

Answer 133

Hepatotoxicity

Answer 134

Autoinduction of CYP450

Answer 135

Gabapentin

Answer 136

Potassium bromide

Answer 137

Phenobarbital

Answer 138

Only emergencies

Answer 139

Only add on

Answer 140

Blocking NMDA-mediated neuronal excitation

Answer 141

Potentiation of GABA-mediated neuronal inhibition

Answer 142

Inhibition of voltage sensitive neuronal Cl channels

Answer 143

Protects neurons from hypoxic or ischemic damage

Answer 144

Levetiracetam

Answer 145

Gabapentin

Answer 146

Phenobarbital

Answer 147

Zonisamide

Answer 148

Gabapentin

Answer 149

Levetiracetam

Answer 150

Zonisamide

Answer 151

Gabapentin

Answer 152

Levetiracetam

Answer 153

Vigabatrin

Answer 154

Carbamazepine

Answer 155

Vigabatrin

Answer 156

Carbamazepine

Answer 157

Vigabatrin

Answer 158

Carbamazepine

Answer 159

Vigabatrin

Answer 160

Carbamazepine

Answer 161

Sedation and major tranquillizers

Answer 162

Behavioral disorders

Answer 163

Central analgesia

Answer 164

Peripheral anesthesia

Answer 165

MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine

Answer 166

MAO-A has only central effects

Answer 167

MAO-B has only central effects

Answer 168

MAO-B’s substrates are norepinephrine and dopamine

Answer 169

MAO-A’s substrates are serotonin, norepinephrine, and epinephrine

Answer 170

Hypertension

Answer 171

Hyperthermia

Answer 172

Metabolic alkalosis

Answer 173

Rhabdomyolysis

Answer 174

Selegiline

Answer 175

Amitriptyline

Answer 176

Clomipramine

Answer 177

Fluoxetine

Answer 178

Alprazolam

Answer 179

Hyperactivity

Answer 180

Stereotypic behavior

Answer 181

Selegiline—dementia in dogs

Answer 182

Clomipramine—separation anxiety

Answer 183

Fluoxetine—aggression in male dogs

Answer 184

FFP—urine spraying in cats

Answer 185

Hypertension

Answer 186

Tachycardia

Answer 187

Arrhythmia

Answer 188

Salivation

Answer 189

Constipation

Answer 190

They have antihistamine effects

Answer 191

They have anticholinergic effects

Answer 192

They’re alpha-1 antagonists

Answer 193

These are all true!

Answer 194

Excessive arousal (mild aggression)

Answer 195

Inappropriate urination

Answer 196

Compulsive disorders

Answer 197

Amitriptyline

Answer 198

Imipramine

Answer 199

Clomipramine

Answer 200

Amitriptyline

Answer 201

Imipramine

Answer 202

Clomipramine

Answer 203

Amitriptyline

Answer 204

Imipramine

Answer 205

Clomipramine

Answer 206

Separation anxiety

Answer 207

Impulse aggression

Answer 208

Compulsive behavior

Answer 209

GI effects

Answer 210

Depression

Answer 211

Polyphagia

Answer 212

ACH-M receptors

Answer 213

Alpha-adenoreceptors

Answer 214

Histamine receptors

Answer 215

Serotonin receptors

Answer 216

All of the above

Answer 217

Adrenergic a2-receptor stimulation increases the release of dopamine and serotonin

Answer 218

Adrenergic B-receptor stimulation inhibits release of serotonin

Answer 219

Dopamine down-regulates serotonin auto-receptors

Answer 220

All of the above are true!

Answer 221

GABA agonists

Answer 222

NMDA antagonists

Answer 223

D2 receptor

Answer 224

Alpha 1 receptor agonists

Answer 225

Block D2 receptors in the CNS

Answer 226

Block alpha adrenoceptors in the CNS

Answer 227

Block D receptors in the periphery

Answer 228

Block alpha receptors in the periphery

Answer 229

CNS depression

Answer 230

Peripheral vasodilation

Answer 231

Good muscle relaxation

Answer 232

You should use chlorpromazine in horses

Answer 233

Some boxers have an exaggerated reaction to acepromazine

Answer 234

Acepromazine prevents occurrence of halothane induced malignant hyperthermia in pigs

Answer 235

Phenothiazines can be used to treat feline lower urinary tract disease

Answer 236

They bind to and activate the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA-A receptor

Answer 237

They decrease the opening frequency of the Cl channel

Answer 238

They hyperpolarize the post-synaptic membrane

Answer 239

All of the above are true

Answer 240

Dose dependent muscle relaxation

Answer 241

Biphasic cardiovascular response

Answer 242

Mild respiratory repression

Answer 243

Dose dependent CNS depression

Answer 244

Those with fear-induced aggression

Answer 245

Those with hypersensitivity to benzodiazepines

Answer 246

Those with hepatic dysfunction

Answer 247

All of the above

Answer 248

They target GPCRs Gi and Go

Answer 249

Their target has 7 transmembrane domains

Answer 250

A2B is the most important type of receptor for analgesia and anesthesia

Answer 251

They’re used for sedation, chemical restraint, and analgesia, as well as for emesis in cats

Answer 252

Depressive on the CNS, reduces blood flow and O2 consumption

Answer 253

Mild, dose dependent respiratory depression

Answer 254

Poor muscle relaxation

Answer 255

Biphasic cardiovascular response

Answer 256

It can be administered parenterally, orally, or epidurally

Answer 257

It’s synergistic with opioids, local anesthetics, and NMDA antagonists

Answer 258

Medetomidine has a strong correlation between the effect and plasma concentration

Answer 259

Bioavailability of medetomidine is 100% in dogs and cats

Answer 260

Patients with diabetes mellitus

Answer 261

Patients with epilepsy

Answer 262

Patients with compromised cardiac function

Answer 263

Agitated animals

Answer 264

They’re competitive antagonists at the a1 receptor

Answer 265

They have varying effects on the a2 receptor

Answer 266

They have varying effects at the a1 receptor

Answer 267

All of the above are false

Answer 268

Tolazoline

Answer 269

Atipamezole

Answer 270

Romifidine

Answer 271

Antagonism of the D2 receptor

Answer 272

Antagonism of the a2 receptor

Answer 273

Some antihistaminergic properties

Answer 274

All of the above are true

Answer 275

CNS depressive

Answer 276

Cardiovascular depressive

Answer 277

Reduced muscle tone

Answer 278

AMPA receptors

Answer 279

Synaptic vesicle proteins

Answer 280

NMDA receptors

Answer 281

Kainite—5

Answer 282

All of the above are correct!

Answer 283

Somewhere else entirely

Answer 284

They’re local hormones

Answer 285

They’re long-lived

Answer 286

They include histamine, serotonin, nitric oxide

Answer 287

They include angiotensin and eicosanoids

Answer 288

Inflammation

Answer 289

Gastric acid secretion

Answer 290

Anaphylaxis

Answer 291

Smooth muscle contraction

Answer 292

Relaxing small arterioles

Answer 293

Gastric acid secretion

Answer 294

Modulating neurotransmitter release in the CNS

Answer 295

Dendritic cells

Answer 296

Mast cells

Answer 297

Eosinophils

Answer 298

You start with histidine

Answer 299

Histidine decarboxylase is the enzyme

Answer 300

The group removed to form histamine is CO2

Answer 301

All of the above are true!

Answer 302

The mast cell pool synthesizes histamine more quickly than the non-mast cell pool

Answer 303

The non-mast cell pool occurs in basophils

Answer 304

The mast cell pool continuously synthesizes and releases histamine

Answer 305

The mast cell pool plays a key role in drug reactions

Answer 306

Stimulate sensory nerve endings

Answer 307

Relax arterioles

Answer 308

Decrease capillary permeability

Answer 309

All of the above are roles of histamine!

Answer 310

Dilation of terminal arterioles

Answer 311

Decrease in blood pressure briefly

Answer 312

Dilation of large arteries and veins

Answer 313

Edema from increased capillary permeability

Answer 314

H2 has a long duration

Answer 315

H1 mediated is slow onset

Answer 316

H2 is at small doses

Answer 317

H2 induces high levels of tachycardia

Answer 318

Rabbits and dogs

Answer 319

Calves and pigs

Answer 320

Cats and sheep

Answer 321

Humans and guinea pigs

Answer 322

Intestinal muscle

Answer 323

Uterine smooth muscle

Answer 324

H1 is Gi while H2 is Gq

Answer 325

H1 is Gq while H2 is Gs

Answer 326

H1 is Gs, H2 is Gq

Answer 327

H1 is Gs, H2 is Gi

Answer 328

Methylation and oxidation

Answer 329

Histamine N-methyltransferase enzyme acts on histamine to form methyl histamine (further acted upon by MAO)

Answer 330

Histaminase enzyme cleaves histamine into inactive metabolites

Answer 331

All of them are part of histamine metabolism

Answer 332

Histamine phosphate is used to test for achlorhydria

Answer 333

So is betazole

Answer 334

Betazole is more selective

Answer 335

Histamine phosphate is more selective

Answer 336

Cetirizine

Answer 337

Trimeprazine

Answer 338

Loratadine

Answer 339

Fexofenadine

Answer 340

Chlorpheniramine

Answer 341

Clemastine

Answer 342

Dimenhydrinate

Answer 343

Desloratidine

Answer 344

You can use them IV in emergencies (acute anaphylaxis)

Answer 345

You can use them topically

Answer 346

They don’t bind to plasma proteins

Answer 347

They’re excreted in urine and feces

Answer 348

Vasodilation

Answer 349

Relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle

Answer 350

Relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle

Answer 351

Local anesthetic action

Answer 352

Anti-inflammatory response

Answer 353

Inhibits arterial hypertension

Answer 354

Anti-motion sickness

Answer 355

Acetonemia

Answer 356

Pregnancy toxemia

Answer 357

Pulmonary emphysema

Answer 358

Retained placenta

Answer 359

Myoglobinuria

Answer 360

Periodic opthalmia

Answer 361

Gastric stasis

Answer 362

Cyproheptadine

Answer 363

Trimeprazine

Answer 364

Chlorpheniramine

Answer 365

Diphenhydramine

Answer 366

It inhibits the release of histamine from mast cells

Answer 367

It closes Cl- channels

Answer 368

It’s used for nasal allergies in horses

Answer 369

It’s used for conjunctivitis

Answer 370

5-HT1—Gi

Answer 371

5-HT3—Gs

Answer 372

5-HT5—Gi

Answer 373

5-HT2—Gq

Answer 374

5-HT6—Gs

Answer 375

5-HT7—Gs

Answer 376

The Bezold-Jarisch reflex involves an initial fall in systemic arterial pressure with accompanying reflex tachycardia

Answer 377

The second phase is a short period of a pressor effect

Answer 378

The third phase is a prolonged fall in systemic BP

Answer 379

All of the above are correct!

Answer 380

Contraction of smooth muscles

Answer 381

Increased GIT motility

Answer 382

Decreased pulmonary pressure

Answer 383

Relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle

Answer 384

Sertraline

Answer 385

Fluoxetine

Answer 386

Paroxetine

Answer 387

Fluvoxamine

Answer 388

Ergometrine

Answer 389

Metoclopramide

Answer 390

Cyproheptadine

Answer 391

Ergometrine

Answer 392

Metoclopramide

Answer 393

Cyproheptadine

Answer 394

Ergometrine

Answer 395

Metoclopramide

Answer 396

Cyproheptadine

Answer 397

Cyproheptadine

Answer 398

Methysergide

Answer 399

Ondansetron

Answer 400

Cyproheptadine

Answer 401

Methysergide

Answer 402

Ondansetron

Answer 403

Cyproheptadine

Answer 404

Methysergide

Answer 405

Ondansetron

Answer 406

Cyproheptadine

Answer 407

Methysergide

Answer 408

Ondansetron

	Erstellt von MRaythe vor mehr als 9 Jahre

Nächster

Pharmacology I: Final Quiz

Beschreibung

Zusammenfassung der Ressource

Frage 1

Frage 2

Frage 3

Frage 4

Frage 5

Frage 6

Frage 7

Frage 8

Frage 9

Frage 10

Frage 11

Frage 12

Frage 13

Frage 14

Frage 15

Frage 16

Frage 17

Frage 18

Frage 19

Frage 20

Frage 21

Frage 22

Frage 23

Frage 24

Frage 25

Frage 26

Frage 27

Frage 28

Frage 29

Frage 30

Frage 31

Frage 32

Frage 33

Frage 34

Frage 35

Frage 36

Frage 37

Frage 38

Frage 39

Frage 40

Frage 41

Frage 42

Frage 43

Frage 44

Frage 45

Frage 46

Frage 47

Frage 48

Frage 49

Frage 50

Frage 51

Frage 52

Frage 53

Frage 54

Frage 55

Frage 56

Frage 57

Frage 58

Frage 59

Frage 60

Frage 61

Frage 62

Frage 63

Frage 64

Frage 65

Frage 66

Frage 67

Frage 68

Frage 69

Frage 70

Frage 71

Frage 72

Frage 73

Frage 74

Frage 75

Frage 76