Question 1
Question
select the epithelial ovarian tumours
Answer
-
granulosa cell tumor
-
thecoma
-
brenner's tumor
-
androblastoma
Question 2
Question
252: which of the following are epithelial ovarian tumors
Answer
-
thecoma
-
serous granuloma
-
dysgerminoma
-
brenner's tumor
Question 3
Question
253: which of the following are sex-ord stromal ovarian tumors
Answer
-
granulosa cell tumor
-
thecoma
-
dysgerminoma
-
androblastoma
Question 4
Question
254: which of the following ovarian tumors are benign
Question 5
Question
255: which of the following ovarian tumors are malignant
Question 6
Question
256: in fibro-cystic breast disease we find the following
Answer
-
solitary nodule
-
multiple nodules
-
cyst
-
papillary proliferations
Question 7
Question
257: in fibroadenoma of the breast we find
Question 8
Question
258: benign prostate hyperplaia is seen most commonly in
Question 9
Question
259: prostate carcinoma is usualy seen in
Question 10
Question
260: which two markers are valuable for the diagnosis of prostate cancer
Answer
-
PSA
-
HER2
-
PAP
-
estrogen receptors
Question 11
Question
261: what pathogenic mechanism can be used for the therapy of prostate carcinoma
Answer
-
hormonal therapy-antitestosterone drugs
-
hormonal therapy-antiprogesterone drugs
-
treatment with monoclonal antibodies
Question 12
Question
which of the following types of cancer metastasize to bone
Answer
-
ovarian cancer
-
renal cancer
-
breast cancer
-
thyroid gland cancer
Question 13
Question
bone metastases are observed in which of the following types of cancer
Answer
-
gastric cancer
-
ovarian cancer
-
prostate cancer
-
breast cancer
Question 14
Question
which of the following statements are true for graves disease
Answer
-
it is the most common cause for hypothyroidism
-
exopthalmus in some patients
-
pretibial myxedema
-
usually most patients are euthyroud
Question 15
Question
the following is true for grave's
Answer
-
it causes heroerthroidism
-
autoantibodies against TSH receptors
-
affects men more than women
-
thyroid stimulating igG is the cause
Question 16
Question
histiologically in grave's disease we can find
Answer
-
nodular colloid goiter
-
signs of thyroid hyperfunction
-
small thyroid follicles with small amounts of dilluted colloid
-
many resorbtive vacuoles in the thyroid
Question 17
Question
in nodular toxic goiter we can observe the following
Question 18
Question
which of the following are renal complications for diabetes
Question 19
Question
in goiter we observe
Answer
-
cystically dilated thyroid follicles
-
histological accomodation of the epitheloum lining the follicles
-
papillary folds of the epithelium of the follicles
-
diluted, scarce colloid
Question 20
Question
hashimoto thyroiditis is chaaracterized by
Answer
-
the thyroid follicles are dilated, filled with large amounts of concentrated colloid
-
atypical looking cells called oncocytes
-
the thyroid follicles are replaced by lymph follicles
-
these lymphoid follicles have pale germinal centres
Question 21
Question
pneumococcus usually causes infections of the cns in
Answer
-
newborns
-
adults
-
teenagers
-
toddlers
Question 22
Question
haemmophylus influenza is the most common etiological agent for infections of the CNS in
Answer
-
newborns
-
adults
-
teenagers
-
toddlers
Question 23
Question
Escherichia coli is the most common etiological agent for infections of the CNS in
Answer
-
newborns
-
adults
-
teenagers
-
toddlers
Question 24
Question
Neissaria meningitidis is the most common etiological agent for infections of the CNS in
Answer
-
newborns
-
adults
-
teenagers
-
toddlers
Question 25
Question
Which of the following statements are true tumors for tumours of the CNS
Answer
-
metastatic tumours to the brain are more common than the primary
-
primary tumors of the CNS often metastasize outside the CNS
-
Primary tumors of the CNS almost never metastasize outside the CNS
-
most important factor for the outcome is the tumor location
Question 26
Question
which are the purposes of pathological autopsy
Answer
-
to accuse the clinicians of medical malpractice
-
to establish the cause of death and the definitive diagnosis
-
to help educate clinicians and to improve their work
-
to help the relatives of the deceased to convict the doctors
Question 27
Question
which are the donditions for an autopsy to be done
Answer
-
death occured in a hospital due to a disease
-
available medical history of the patient
-
presence of the treating doctor
-
all of the above
Question 28
Question
what are the characteristics of a frozen section
Answer
-
urgent diagnosis given during an operation
-
the preparation of the tissue samples is done by a parrafin method
-
the preparation of the tissue sample is done on a freezing microtome
-
sometimes the diagnosis is not exactly clear because of the preparation method but information like "malingant tumor", "benign tumor" or "inflammation" is given to the surgeons to know how to proceed with the operation
Question 29
Question
which fixative is most commonly used
Answer
-
bouin solution
-
absolute alcohol
-
formalin 10%
-
salts of heavy metals
Question 30
Question
what fixatives should be used for a liver biopsy from a baby with a suspected inherited metabolic disease
Answer
-
formalin 10%
-
1,5-4% glutaraldehyde
-
frozen section
-
zenker's fixative
Question 31
Question
what is the role of immiunohistochemical stains
Answer
-
to give urgent answers about the diagnosis or at least orientation about the pathological process during surgery
-
to determine the histogenesis of the tumor especially in highly undifferentiarted malignant tumors
-
to determine the proliferative activity and the hormonal receptros of the tumor that is highly important for the treatment
-
to help determine the cause of death
Question 32
Question
cytokeratin, S-protein, vimentin, desmin, CD-20 are examples of
Question 33
Question
in which cases a pathological autopsy is performed
Answer
-
when there is suspicion for diagnostic or therrapeutic malpractice
-
death of a person outside the hospital
-
when there is suspicion of violent death
-
death of a patient in the hospital and when the relatives dont ask the principal to cancen the autopsy
Question 34
Question
which of the followingd id not a part of performing an autopsy
Question 35
Question
size, shape, elasticity, consistency, color and cut surfaces are characteristics of
Answer
-
microscope examination of organs
-
gross examination of organs
-
ultramiscrscopic examination of organs
-
none of the listed
Question 36
Question
indicate correctly the name of the described test. The pericardial sac is cut in a Y-like section and filled with water, after that, in the presence of a witness, the right ventricle is punctured with a knife
Question 37
Question
Indicate correctly the name of the described test: The pulmonary artery is cut at the place of truncus pulmonalis. Tweezers are inserted and the content of the artery is taken out for examination
Question 38
Question
indicate correctly the name of the described test: A pocket between the skin and the ribs is formed and is filled with water. In the presence of a witness, the thorax is punctured with a thin knife in an intercostal space
Question 39
Question
where is the main accumulation of glycogen in patients with diabetes
Answer
-
in epithelial cells of conovulated tubules and henle's loop
-
in epithelial cells of gastrointestinal mucosa
-
in the nuclei and in the cytoplasm of the hepatocytes
-
endothelial cells of the vessels
Question 40
Question
the abnormal inclusions in the hepatpcytes in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
Answer
-
glycogen
-
lipids
-
bile
-
proteins
Question 41
Question
PAS reaction with PAS control is used to distinguish
Question 42
Question
PAS control is done using
Answer
-
sulfuric acid
-
hydrocloric acid
-
amylase
-
picric acid
Question 43
Question
what is the relation between fatty degeneration of the liver and diabetes
Answer
-
there is no relation between them
-
patients with diabetes have increased intake of lipifd to provide more energy
-
the fatty liver in diabetes is caused by increased lipolysis and increased delivery of fatty acids in the liver
-
the fatty liver leads to diabetes mellitis
Question 44
Question
what is the adroid type of obesity
Answer
-
also called "male" ore "apple" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist
-
also called "female" or "pear" type, it is the accumulation of luipids in the fatty cells around the hips, thighs and legs
-
generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders, and thorax
-
generalized obesity predominantly in the thighs, hips and legs
Question 45
Question
what is gynoid type obesity
Answer
-
also called "male" or "apple" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist
-
also called "female" or "pear" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs
-
generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax
-
generalized obesity predominantly in the thighs, hips and legs
Question 46
Question
what is upper type of obesity
Answer
-
also called "male" or "apple" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist
-
also called "female" or "pear" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, thighs and legs
-
generalized obesity predominantly on the shoulders, face and thorax
-
generalized obesity predominantly on the thighs, hips and legs
Question 47
Question
what is lower type of obesity
Answer
-
also called "male" or "apple" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist
-
also called "female" or "pear" type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the thighs, hips and legs
-
generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax
-
generalized obesity predominantly on the thighs , hips and legs
Question 48
Question
which obesity has the worse prognosis
Question 49
Question
haemolytic jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings
Answer
-
the increased indirect billirubin in the serum, hypercholic stoools and increased urobilinogen in the urine
-
both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, oth bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine
-
increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, inccreased billirubin in the urine
-
none of the above
Question 50
Question
mechanical jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings
Answer
-
increased indirect billirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobillinogen in the urine
-
both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, oth bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine
-
increased direct billirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, inctreased bilirubin in the urine
-
none of the above
Question 51
Question
parenchymal jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings:
Answer
-
increased indirect billirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobillinogen in the urine
-
both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, oth bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine
-
increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, increased bilirubin in the urine
-
none of the above
Question 52
Question
what is the common between fibrosis, sclereosis and cirrhosis
Answer
-
the common is the increased development of connective tissue in the organ
-
the common is the lipid accumulation in the interstitium of the organ
-
the common is the fibrinoud degeneration of the organ
-
they are different processes and dont have anything common between them
Question 53
Question
whay is the clinical significance of hyalinosis of the pancreatic arterioles
Answer
-
it an cause diavetes mellitus
-
it an cause pancreatic cancer
-
it an cause acute pancreatitis
-
hyalinosis in the pancreas is a physiological process related with aging
Question 54
Question
which stain is used to prove rheumatism in acute stage in a heart valve
Answer
-
prussian blue
-
toluidin blue
-
congo-red
-
pearls
Question 55
Question
mucoid swelling can be seen in
Question 56
Question
the necrosis which develops ar the base of an acure or chronic active ulcer in the stomach or duodenum is
Answer
-
coagulative
-
caseous
-
fibrinoid
-
liquefactive
Question 57
Question
indicate the correct statement(s) for he neogrosclerosis arteriolosclerotica
Answer
-
it affects micoscopically the afferent and efferent arterioles
-
it is a result of prolonged benign hypertension
-
it is a reversible process
-
the process is hyalinosis
Question 58
Question
what are the microscopic changes seen in the brain in benign long-term hypertension
Answer
-
hyalinosis of the vessel's walls
-
edema around vessels
-
accumulation of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the soft brain membranes
-
development of specific granulomas in the brain tissues
Question 59
Question
the gross descriotion: thick, hard, glassy, whitish depositions, non-digestable by enzymes, is indicative for
Answer
-
steatonecrosis
-
liquefactive necrosis
-
hyalinosis
-
fibrinoid deposition
Question 60
Question
the following diseases are examples of amylid depositions. find the mistake
Answer
-
rheumatoid arthritis-AA amyloid
-
multiple myeloma-AL amyloid
-
medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland-AA amyloid
-
alzheimer's disease-A4 myeloid
Question 61
Question
sago spleen and lardaceous spleen are
Answer
-
gross appearamce of the localized (sago spleen) and generalized (lardaceous spleen) amyloidosis of the spleen
-
sago spleen is amyloidosis of the spleen, while lardaceous spleen is hyalinosis of the spleen
-
gross apperance of the spleen in hodgkin's lymphoma depending on on rhe severity of the process
-
in lardaceous spleen the amyloid is deposited in the white pulp only, while in sago spleen both the white and red pulp have amyloid deposition
Question 62
Question
systemic amyloidosis is proven by a biopsy from
Question 63
Question
what type of calcification develops in the complicated athereosclerotic plaques
Answer
-
metastatic
-
dystrophic
-
metabolic
-
physiological
Question 64
Question
which are the causes for hypocalcemia
Answer
-
hypoparathyroidism
-
hyperparathyroidism
-
intoxication with vit d
-
senile osteoporosis
Question 65
Question
what kind of gout can develop in a patient with leucemia
Answer
-
gout caused by excesive consumption of meat and meat products
-
genetic gout caused by an error in the metabolism of uric acid
-
renal injury because kidneys cannot excrete the excessive amount of uric acid
-
patient with leucosis never develop gout
Question 66
Question
which if the following microscopic desccriptions most likely suggestt kidney amyloidosis? te stain is H-E in all the described specimens
Answer
-
highly enlarged glomeruli. the capillary tufts filled almost all tof the capsular space. capillary lumens are obliterated; pink homogenous substance is deposited also in the mesangium, in the basement membranesof the tubules and in the walls of the blood vessels
-
afferent ans efferent arterioles have homogenously thick walls stained in pink, some of the glomeruli look smaller, with totally effaced structure and homogenously pink in colour, while others may look normal in size or even with compensatory hypertrophy
-
the interstitium shows chronic inflammatory reaction, the main change is seen in the kidney tubules which look dilated and filled with pinkish substance ( these tubules look like thryoid follicles )
-
many glomeruli showw crescent proliferations, encompassing 2/3 of the bowman;s space: the process ends with global sclerosis of the glomerulus
Question 67
Question
which of the following stain(s) is used to prove amyloidosis
Answer
-
pearls
-
congo-red
-
van gieson
-
methyl violet
Question 68
Question
mark the correct statement(s) for kidney amyloidosis
Answer
-
smallm shrunken kidneys with granular surgace and difficult decapsulation
-
enlarged pale kidneys with waxy texture
-
Amyloidosis affects only one of the kidneys and doesn;t lead to chronic renal failure
-
kidney amyloidosis is reversible after the treatment of the primary disease and has very good prognosis
Question 69
Question
granulomatous structures consisting of uric acid crystals, lymphocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts and giant multinucleated cells type "foreign body" are characteristic for which disease
Answer
-
tuberculosis
-
sarcoidosis
-
gout
-
brucellosis
Question 70
Question
calcification of the aorta characterizes with;
Answer
-
hard, rigid wall of the aorta
-
soft, elastic wall of the aorta
-
can be complicated with mural thrombosis and aneurysm
-
is a result of metabolic calcification
Question 71
Question
renal complications of gout are
Question 72
Question
what type of necrrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis
Answer
-
liquefactive necrosis
-
coagulative necrosis
-
caseous necrosis
-
steatonecrosis
Question 73
Question
which of the following terms are used to describe liquefactive necrosis of the brain
Question 74
Question
which type of necrosis develops in the pancreas
Question 75
Question
what type of necrosis develps in the specific granulooma in tuberculosis
Answer
-
liquefactive necrosis
-
coagulative necrosis
-
caseous necrosis
-
steatonecrosis
Question 76
Question
indicate the correct statement(s) for dyspasia
Answer
-
it is a proceess of disordered cellular development
-
it can develop in soft tissues
-
it can develop in tissues of epithelial origin
-
it is an adaptive process
Question 77
Question
corpora amylacea can be seen microscopically in
Answer
-
the glands of the uterine mucosa
-
the glands of the prostate
-
the kidney's of the convuluted tubules
-
the follicles of thyroid gland
Question 78
Question
how does the hypertrophic myocardium look like grossly
Question 79
Question
hyperplasia of the endometrium can be
Question 80
Question
what are the complications of prostate hyperplasia
Question 81
Question
which is the main complication after squamous metaplasia of the respiratory bronchial epithelieum
Question 82
Question
epistaxis and melena are examples of
Answer
-
edema
-
exudate
-
haemorrhage
-
venous congestion
Question 83
Question
what is hemascos
Question 84
Question
what is hematemesis
Answer
-
blood vomitting
-
blood in the excrements
-
nose bleeding
-
bleeding from the lungs
Question 85
Question
what is hemoptoe
Question 86
Question
which of the following liver changes is reversible
Answer
-
liver cirrhosis
-
liver cyanosis
-
nutmeg liver
-
liver amyloidosis
Question 87
Question
pin point hemorrhages in the brain usually have the following pathogenesis
Answer
-
per diapedesin
-
per rhexin
-
per diabrosin
-
all of the above
Question 88
Question
can thrombosis develop after death
Answer
-
yes, this is why we can see blood clots in vessels after death
-
no, thrombosis is a pathological process which develops only during lifetime
-
it can develop both during life and after death
-
it develops in the agony preceeding death
Question 89
Question
what is characteristic for the post-mortem blood clot
Answer
-
dry, crumbly, layered structre
-
moist, homogenous structure
-
attatched to the vessel's wall
-
unattatched to the vessel's wall
Question 90
Question
indicate types of embolism depending on the content of embolus
Answer
-
gas, air, amniotic
-
thromboembolism, fat embolism
-
arterial, venous
-
orrthograde, retrograde, paradoxal
Question 91
Question
indicate types of embolism according to the way of blood flow
Answer
-
gas, air, thromboebmoolism, amniotic, fat, parasite
-
orthograde, retrograde
-
arterial, venous
-
paradoxical
Question 92
Question
indicate types of embolism according to the character of the obturated blood vessel.
Answer
-
thromboemvolism, amniotiic, fat, gas, air embolism
-
arterial
-
venous
-
orthograde, retrograde, paradoxical
Question 93
Question
is it possible to prevenet embolism
Answer
-
no, it is something we cannot control or prevent
-
yes, by using anticoagulants
-
yes, by excercise in bed ridden atient and early getting up from bed after operation
-
yes, by staying in bed without moving after an operation
Question 94
Question
in which organ hemorrhagic infarction can develop
Answer
-
in organs with nutritive and functinoal blood circulation
-
in organs with nutritive circulation only
-
in organs with many anastomoses
-
hemmorhagic infarction can develop in any organ
Question 95
Question
indicate the organ(s) where hemorrhagic infarction is possible
Answer
-
liver
-
heart
-
lung
-
intestine
Question 96
Question
how can we prove amniotic embolism
Answer
-
microscopically, by finding amniotic fluid in the heart ventricle
-
grossly, by finding amniotic fliud in the right heart ventricle
-
microscopically, by finding amniotic particles such as lanugo, meconium etc. in the lungs
-
grossly, by finding amniotic particles in the lungs
Question 97
Question
why does an embolism develop
Answer
-
because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially axotic oxide, caused by fast decompression
-
because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially type, caused by fast compression
-
because the negative pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry
-
because the posiive pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry
Question 98
Question
what is needed for the development of hemorrhagic infarction of the lung
Answer
-
double circulation of the lung
-
thrombosis of a branch of a. bronchialis
-
thrombosis of branch a. pulmonis
-
chronic venous stagnation
Question 99
Question
what is te most common cause for the development of anemic infarction of the brain
Answer
-
thromvosis or embolism of a. cerebri anterior
-
thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri media
-
thrombosis or embolism of a, cerebri posterior
-
thrombosis or embolism of a. basillaris
Question 100
Question
what is the gross appearance of a previous anemic infarction of the brain