Question 1
Question
Parenchymal jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings
Answer
-
increased indirect bilirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobilinogen in the urine
-
both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stocks, both bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine
-
increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, increased bilirubin in the urine
-
none of the above
Question 2
Question
What is the common between fibrosis, sclerosis and cirrhosis?
Answer
-
the common is the increased development of connective tissue in the organ
-
the common is the lipid accumulation in the interstitium of the organ
-
the common is the fibrinoid degeneration of the organ
-
they are different processes and don’t have anything common between them
Question 3
Question
What is the clinical significance of hyalinosis of the pancreatic arteroles?
Answer
-
it can cause diabetes mellitus
-
it can cause pancreatic cancer
-
it can cause acute pancreatitis
-
hyalinosis in the pancreas is a physiological process related with ageing
Question 4
Question
Which stain is used to prove rheumatism in acute stage in a heart valve?
Answer
-
Prussian Blue
-
Toluidin-Blue
-
Congo-Red
-
Perls
Question 5
Question
Mucoid swelling can be seen in
Question 6
Question
The necrosis which develops at the base of an acute or chronic active ulcer in the stomach or duodenum is
Answer
-
coagulative
-
caseous
-
fibrinoid
-
liquefactive
Question 7
Question
Indicate the correct statement(s) for nephrosclerosis arteriolosclerotica
Answer
-
it affects microscopically the afferent and efferent arterioles
-
it is a result of prolonged benign hypertention
-
it is a reversible process
-
the process is hyalinosis
Question 8
Question
What are the microscopic changes seen in the brain in benign long-term hypertension?
Answer
-
hyalinosis of the vessels’ walls
-
edema around vessels
-
accumulation of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the soft brain membranes
-
developments of specific granulomas in the brain tissue
Question 9
Question
The gross description: thick, hard, glassy whitish depositions, non-digestable by enzymes, is indicative for
Answer
-
steatonecrosis
-
liquefactive necrosis
-
hyalinosis
-
fibrinoid deposition
Question 10
Question
The following diseases are examples of amyloid depositions. Find the mistake!
Answer
-
Rheumatoid arthritis - AA amyloid
-
Multiple myeloma - AL amyloid
-
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland - AA amyloid
-
Alzheimer’s disease - A4 amyloid
Question 11
Question
‘Sago spleen and lardaceous spleen’ are
Answer
-
gross appearance of the localized (sago-spleen)and generalized (lardaceous spleen) amyloidosis of the spleen
-
sago spleen is amyloidosis of the spleen, while lardaceous spleen is hyalinosis of the spleen
-
gross appearance of the spleen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma depending on the severity of the process
-
in lardaceous spleen the amyloid is deposited in the white pulp only, while in sago spleen both white and red pulp have amyloid deposition
Question 12
Question
Systemic amyloidosis is proven by a biopsy from?
Question 13
Question
What type of calcification develops in the complicated atherosclerotic plaques?
Answer
-
metastatic
-
dystrophic
-
metabolic
-
physiological
Question 14
Question
Which are the causes for hypocalcaemia?
Answer
-
hypoparathyroidism
-
hyperparathyroidism
-
intoxication with vit. D
-
senile osteoporosis
Question 15
Question
What kind of gout can develop in a patient with leucemia?
Answer
-
gout caused by excessive consumption of meat and meat products
-
genetic gout caused by error in the metabolism of uric acid
-
renal injury because kidneys cannot excrete the excessive amount of uric acid
-
patients with leucosis never develop gout
Question 16
Question
Which of the following microscopic descriptions most likely suggest kidney amyloidosis? The stain is H-E in all the described specimens
Answer
-
highly enlarged glomeruli, the capillary tufts filled almost all of the capsular space, capillary lumens are obliterated; pink homogeous substance is deposited also in the mesangium, in the basement membranes of the tubules and in the walls of the blood vessels
-
afferent and efferent arterioles have homogenously thick walls stained in pink, some of the glomeruli look smaller, with totally effaced structure and homogenously pink in color, while others may look normal in size, or even with compensatory hypertrophy
-
the interstitium shows chronic inflammatory reaction, the main change is seen in the kidney tubules which look dilated and filled with pinkish substance (these tubules look like thyroid follicles)
-
many glomeruli show crescent proliferations, encompassing 2/3 f the Bowman's space; the process ends with global sclerosis of the gomerulus
Question 17
Question
Which of the following stain(s) is used to prove amyloidosis?
Answer
-
Perls
-
Congo-Red
-
Van Gieson
-
Methyl violet
Question 18
Question
Mark the correct statement(s) for kidney alymoidosis
Answer
-
small, shrunken kidneys with granular surface and difficult decapsulation
-
enlarged pale kidneys with waxy texture
-
amyloidosis affects only one of the kidneys and doesn’t lead to chronic renal failure
-
kidney amyloidosis is reversible after the treatment of the primary disease and has very good prognosis
Question 19
Question
Granulomatous structures, consisting of uric acid crystals, lymphocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts and giant multinucleated cells type “foreign body” are characteristic for which disease?
Answer
-
tuberculosis
-
sarcoidosis
-
gout
-
brucellosis
Question 20
Question
Calcification of the aorta characterizes with
Answer
-
hard, rigid wall of the aorta
-
soft, elastic wall of the aorta
-
can be complicated with mural thrombosis and aneurysm
-
is a result of metabolic calcification
Question 21
Question
Renal complications of gout include
Question 22
Question
What type of necrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis?
Answer
-
liquefactive necrosis
-
coagulative necrosis
-
caseous necrosis
-
steatonecrosis
Question 23
Question
Which of the following terms are used to describe liquefactive necrosis of the brain?
Question 24
Question
What type of necrosis develops in the pancreas?
Question 25
Question
What type of necrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis?
Answer
-
liquefactive necrosis
-
coagulative necrosis
-
caseous necrosis
-
steatonecrosis
Question 26
Question
Indicate the correct statement(s) for dyspasia
Answer
-
it is a process of disordered cellular development
-
it can develop in soft tissues
-
it can develop in tissues of epithelial origin
-
it is an adaptive process
Question 27
Question
Corpora amylacea can be seen microscopically in?
Answer
-
the glands of uterine mucosa
-
the glands of prostate
-
the kidney’s convoluted tubules
-
the follicles of thyroid gland
Question 28
Question
How does the hypertrophic myocardium look like grossly?
Question 29
Question
Hyperplasia of the endometrium can be
Question 30
Question
What are the complications of prostate hyperplasia?
Question 31
Question
Which is the main complication after squamous metaplasia of the respiratory bronchial epithelium?
Question 32
Question
Epistaxis and melena are examples for
Answer
-
edema
-
exudate
-
haemorrhages
-
venous congestion
Question 33
Question
What is hemascos?
Question 34
Question
What is hematemesis?
Answer
-
blood vomiting
-
blood in the excrements
-
nose bleeding
-
bleeding from the lungs
Question 35
Question
What is hemoptoe
Question 36
Question
Which of the following liver changes is reversible?
Answer
-
liver cirrhosis
-
liver cyanosis
-
nutmeg liver
-
liver amyloidosis
Question 37
Question
Pin-point hemorrhages in the brain have usually the following pathogenesis
Answer
-
per diapedesin
-
per rhexin
-
per diabrosin
-
all of the above
Question 38
Question
Can thrombosis develop after death?
Answer
-
yes, this is why we can see blood clots in the vessels after death
-
no, thrombosis is a pathological process which develops only during lifetime
-
it can develop both during life and after death
-
it develops in the agony preceding death
Question 39
Question
What is characteristic for the post-mortem blood clot?
Answer
-
dry, crumbly, layered structure
-
moist, homogenous structure
-
attached to the vessel’s wall
-
unattached to the vessel’s wall
Question 40
Question
Indicate types of embolism depending on the content of embolus
Answer
-
gas, air, amniotic
-
thromboembolism, fat embolism
-
arterial, venous
-
orthograde, retrograde, paradoxal
Question 41
Question
Indicate types of embolism according to the way of blood flow
Answer
-
gas, air, thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, parasite
-
orthograde, retrograde
-
arterial, venous
-
paradoxical
Question 42
Question
Indicate types of embolism according to the character of the obturated blood vessel
Answer
-
thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, gas, air embolism
-
arterial
-
venous
-
orthograde, retrograde, paradoxical
Question 43
Question
Is it possible to prevent embolism?
Answer
-
no, it is something we cannot control or prevent
-
yes, by using anticoagulants
-
yes, by exercise in bed ridden patient and early getting up from bed after operation
-
yes, by staying in bed without moving after operation
Question 44
Question
In which organ hemorrhagic infarction can develop?
Answer
-
in organs with nutritive and functional blood circulation
-
in organs with nutritive circulation only
-
in organs with many anastomoses
-
hemorrhagic infarction can develop in any organ
Question 45
Question
Indicate the organ(s) where hemorrhagic infarction is possible
Answer
-
liver
-
heart
-
lung
-
intestine
Question 46
Question
How can we prove amniotic embolism?
Answer
-
microscopically, by finding amniotic fluid in the left heart ventricle
-
grossly, by finding amniotic fluid in the right heart ventricle
-
microscopically, by finding amniotic particles such as lanugo, meconium etc. in the lungs
-
grossly, by finding amniotic particles in the lungs
Question 47
Question
Why does gas embolism develop?
Answer
-
because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially azotic oxide, caused by fast decompression
-
because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially type caused by fast compression
-
because the negative pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry
-
because the positive pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry
Question 48
Question
What is needed for the development of hemorrhagic infarction the lung?
Answer
-
double circulation of the lung
-
thrombosis of a branch of a. broncialis
-
thrombosis of a branch of a. pulmonalis
-
chronic venous stagnation
Question 49
Question
What is the most common cause for the development of anemic infarction of the brain?
Answer
-
thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri anterior
-
thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri media
-
thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri posterior
-
thrombosis or embolism of a. basillaris
Question 50
Question
What is the gross appearance of a previous anemic infarction of the brain?
Question 51
Question
Indicate the correct statements
Answer
-
gangrene of the appendix and gangrenous appendicitis are synonyms of one same disease
-
severe inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis leads to necrosis, while in gangrene of the appendix the necrosis is ischemic
-
gangrene of the appendix means necrosis of the appendix while gangrenous appendicitis means severe purulent inflammation of the appendix without necrosis
-
inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis is a primary process, while in gangrene the inflammation is secondary after the necrosis
Question 52
Question
The gross appearance “Ribbon-like fibrin deposits on the pericardium” describes
Answer
-
chronic pericarditis
-
fibrinous myocarditis
-
fibrinous pericarditis
-
acute pericarditis
Question 53
Question
Which are the cells that infiltrate the whole thickness of the appendix in phlegmonous appendicitis?
Question 54
Question
What is typical for purulent lepto-meningitis?
Answer
-
hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by lymphocytes
-
hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by neutrophils
-
yellow-green exudate seen usually on the convex side of the brain
-
clear cerebro-spinal fluid
Question 55
Question
Hydatid cysts affect most commonly
Answer
-
the brain
-
the heart
-
the spleen
-
the liver
Question 56
Question
Which is the second most commonly affected organ by hydatid cysts?
Question 57
Question
The following description indicates: Focal aggregates in the form of nodules of cells with phagocytic ability. The diameter of these nodules is no more than 1-2mm, in many cases they are seen only microscopically
Answer
-
granulomas
-
metastases
-
polyps
-
granulation tissue
Question 58
Question
What type of necrosis develops in the tuberculous granuloma?
Answer
-
caseous necrosis
-
liquefactive necrosis
-
coagulative necrosis
-
fibrinoid necrosis
Question 59
Question
Which of the following cells are seen in tuberculomas?
Question 60
Question
The giant cells type Langhans are derived from
Answer
-
macrophages
-
epitheloid cells
-
lymphocytes
-
monocytes
Question 61
Question
Which giant cells have specific peripheral arrangement of the nuclei like horse-shoe?
Answer
-
Tuton giant cells
-
Foreign body giant cells
-
Langhans giant cells
-
None of the above
Question 62
Question
In which stage of syphilis do the specific luetic granulomas develop?
Question 63
Question
What type of necrosis develops in luetic granulomas?
Answer
-
clay-like
-
caseus
-
liquefactive
-
coagulative
Question 64
Question
What type of necrosis develops in the cat-scratch disease?
Answer
-
caseous
-
coagulative
-
liquefactive
-
gummous
Question 65
Question
Mark the correct answer(s) about actinomycosis
Answer
-
has three stages of development
-
has cervical, abdominal and thoracic forms
-
grossly, granular substance might be seen in the pus
-
grossly, rubbery lesions with central necrosis are seen in the affected organs
Question 66
Question
Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma.
Lack of necrosis, abundance of epitheloid cell, Langhans cells, collagen fibres, Shaumann bodies
Answer
-
tuberculosis
-
sarcoidosis
-
rheumatism
-
syphilis
Question 67
Question
Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a grauloma:
Gummous necrosis, surrounded by epitheloid cells, single Langhans cells, abundance of plasma cells, less lymphocytes, fibroblasts
Answer
-
tuberculosis
-
sarcoidosis
-
rheumatism
-
syphilis
Question 68
Question
The sulfur granule is characteristic for
Answer
-
tuberculosis
-
felinosis
-
actinomycosis
-
leprosy
Question 69
Question
Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma. Fibrinoid necrosis, surrouned by abundant lymphocytes, plasma cells, many cells of Anichkov and pathognomonic cells of Aschoff
Answer
-
tuberculosis
-
rheumatoid arthritis
-
syphilis
-
rheumatism
Question 70
Question
What histological changes could be seen in thyroid in Hashimoto thyroiditis
Question 71
Question
The histological changes in Hashimoto thyroiditis affect
Answer
-
entire thyroid gland
-
markedly focal
Question 72
Question
The thyroid follicles in Hashimoto thyroiditis are
Answer
-
unchanged
-
dilated
-
polymorphous
-
smaller
Question 73
Question
What is hyper-granulation?
Question 74
Question 75
Question
What is a keloid?
Question 76
Question
Which stain can be used to prove of scarring (cicatrix) of the heart?
Answer
-
Van Gieson
-
Perls
-
Congo Red
-
PAS
Question 77
Question
Which of the following could not be seen in rheumatoid nodules?
Answer
-
Fibrinoid necrosis
-
Epitheloid cells
-
Langhans cells
-
Lymphocytes
Question 78
Question
Indicate the correct statement(s) for the polyarteriitis nodosa
Answer
-
it is an autoimmune disease
-
it affects mostly the elastic arteries
-
there is accumulation of glucosaminoglycans in the vessel walls which can be demonstrated with metachromasia with Toluidin Bleu
-
the branches of the pulmonary arteries are affected
Question 79
Question
Anaphylactic hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Answer
-
Hemolytic anemia
-
Hashimoto thyroiditis
-
Allergic rhinitis
-
Bronchial asthma
Question 80
Question
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Answer
-
Hashimoto thyroiditis
-
Hemolytic anemia
-
Allergic rhinitis
-
Nodosal poyarteriitis
Question 81
Question
Immune complexes mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Answer
-
polyartheriitis nodosa
-
rheumatoid arthritis
-
hemolytic anemia
-
tuberculosis
Question 82
Question
Cell mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Answer
-
Tuberculosis
-
Polyarteriitis nodosa
-
Bronchial asthma
-
Hashimoto thyroiditis
Question 83
Question
Which is the most common way of metastasizing of epithelial tumors?
Question 84
Question
What is papilloma?
Answer
-
malignant tumor of the covering epithelium
-
benign tumor of glandular epithelium
-
benign tumor of cover type epithelium
-
benign soft tissue tumor
Question 85
Question
Indicate the correct characteristic(s) for papilloma
Answer
-
it has tree-like stroma covered by differentiated stratified squamous epithelium
-
it has tree-like stroma covered by undifferentiated squamous epithelium with signs of cell atypia
-
stroma and parenchyma are difficult to distinguish
-
it doesn’t have a capsule
Question 86
Question
What is the term used for malignant tumors of cover type epithelium?
Answer
-
adenocarcinoma
-
papilloma
-
carcinoma
-
sarcoma
Question 87
Question
What is the term used for malignant tumors of glandular type epithelial origin?
Answer
-
adenocarcinoma
-
adenoma
-
carcinoma
-
carcino-adenoma
Question 88
Question
What is the term used for benign tumors of glandular type epithelial origin?
Answer
-
papilloma
-
adenoma
-
teratoma
-
adenocarcinoma
Question 89
Question
Point the correct statement(s) about basal cell carcinoma
Answer
-
it develops only on the skin
-
it can develop at any place with squamous epithelium
-
it characterizes with early lymphogenic and hematogenic metastases
-
very often it recurs at the same place after surgery
Question 90
Question
Keratinized squamous cell carcinoma
Answer
-
develops only on the skin
-
can develop at any place with squamous epithelium
-
is highly undifferenciated malignant tumor
-
is a tumor composed of more differenciated cells with keratin production
Question 91
Question
What kind of structures are the cancer perls?
Answer
-
accumulation of keratin produced by more differentiated malignant cells originating from squamous epithelium
-
pink-coloured homogenous substance located in the centre of the tumor nests
-
accumulation of mucus produced by highly undifferentiated malignant cells located in the centre of the tumor nests
-
pink homogenous substance that accumulates in the stroma of the tumor
Question 92
Question
The gross appearance of which tumor is called “ulcus rodens”?
Answer
-
squamous cell carcinoma
-
melanoma
-
basal cell carcinoma
-
adenocarcinoma
Question 93
Question
Squamous cell carcinoma develops in the lung after
Question 94
Question
Papillary carcinoma of the urinary bladder arises from
Answer
-
squamous epithelium
-
transitional epithelium
-
glandular epithelium
-
smooth musculature
Question 95
Question
What is carcinoma in situ?
Answer
-
malignant tumor limited to the epithelium above the basal membrane
-
malignant tumor destroying the basal membrane but spreading no more than 5mm below it
-
benign tumor limited to the basal membrane
-
benign tumor of a great size compressing the surrounding tissues
Question 96
Question
Which staining is used for proving mucus production from gelatinous adenocarcinoma?
Question 97
Question
Pericanalicular and intracanalicular are types of
Question 98
Question
Kruckenberg tumors are
Answer
-
metastases from colon adenocarcinoma in the ovaries
-
metastases from pancreatic adenocarcinoma in the ovaries
-
metastases from gastric carcinoma in the ovaries
-
metastases from hepatocellular carcinoma in the ovaries
Question 99
Question
Pleomorphic adenoma could be seen mainly
Question 100
Question
Indicate the correct statements about fibroadenoma of the breast
Answer
-
capsulated and lobulated tumor
-
non-capsulated malignant tumor with invasive growth
-
microscopically it has two types - intracanalicular and pericanalicular
-
seen in older women