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Com/Nav CDC test 1

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test 1
Hannah Hailey
Quiz by Hannah Hailey, updated more than 1 year ago
Hannah Hailey
Created by Hannah Hailey over 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
The AFI that governs the current wing organization and operation is
Answer
  • 53-3
  • 39-1
  • 21-166
  • 21-101

Question 2

Question
Who is responsible for directing the maintenance effort using available resources and participating in the development and execution of the monthly, weekly flying and maintenance schedules/plans?
Answer
  • Pro super
  • MOO
  • QA
  • Wing commander

Question 3

Question
What flight in the maintenance squadron primarily performs off-equipment maintenance of avionics components and electronic warfare systems?
Answer
  • TMDE flight
  • Avionics flight
  • Accessory flight
  • Maintenance support flight

Question 4

Question
Informational publications that include procedures for implementing Air Force policies are called
Answer
  • indexes
  • pamphlets
  • directories
  • supplements

Question 5

Question
If you need to tie together all maintenance actions on a specific job, which MDC system data element do you use?
Answer
  • Work unit code
  • Work center code
  • Job control number
  • Identification number

Question 6

Question
The number entered in the TAG NUMBER block of AFTO Form 349 comes from
Answer
  • a WUC manual
  • AFTO Form 350
  • the manufacturer's data plate
  • the illustrated parts breakdown

Question 7

Question
What block of AFTO Form 349 is checked to indicate actions that affect the historical records of an end-item?
Answer
  • UNITS
  • SCH CODE
  • TYPE MAINT
  • RECORDS ACTION

Question 8

Question
The IMDS is event oriented and user friendly, which means that it
Answer
  • accepts any input
  • requires no password
  • restricts unauthorized access
  • checks keyboard entries for compatability

Question 9

Question
Which is not a function of the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System?
Answer
  • Mission scheduling
  • Maintenance scheduling
  • Personnel leave scheduling
  • Personnel training management

Question 10

Question
One of the basic principles of supply discipline is to
Answer
  • use supplies to fulfill any purpose
  • know all equipment items on hand
  • stock excess property until needed
  • effectively safeguard and preserve property

Question 11

Question
One way you can be relieved of property responsibility is to
Answer
  • turn the property in to supply
  • have the property declared surplus
  • have the property declared unserviceable
  • call the base equipment management office

Question 12

Question
How does the deficiency reporting system reduce total ownership cost?
Answer
  • Through process standardization
  • Identifies system deficiencies early in its life cycle
  • Allows investigative findings to be applied to reappearances
  • Provides feedback to the warfighters and other users in the field

Question 13

Question
The TO numbering system is explained in detail in TO
Answer
  • 0-4-2
  • 0-1-01
  • 00-5-1
  • 00-5-18

Question 14

Question
Which Air Force technical manuals contain data for the operation and servicing of aircraft equipment?
Answer
  • Job guides
  • Aircraft TOs
  • Commercial manuals
  • Other equipment TOs

Question 15

Question
Which index lists all Air Force MPTOs?
Answer
  • TO 0-1-1
  • TO 0-1-02
  • TO 00-1-02
  • TO 00-1-20

Question 16

Question
Before an AFTO Form 22 is submitted, the submitter’s supervisor assesses it in terms of mission impact, personnel and system safety, and
Answer
  • budget constraints
  • time required to implement
  • urgency of need for change
  • approving official's workload

Question 17

Question
A GS manual provides
Answer
  • general overview of the aircraft.
  • detailed schematics of systems wiring.
  • fault descriptions and fault isolation procedures.
  • detailed procedures for on-aircraft maintenance.

Question 18

Question
The ACPINS provides a standardized system that performs all of the tasks listed below except
Answer
  • manage software
  • develop software
  • identify software
  • distribute software

Question 19

Question
How many CPIN identifier fields are there?
Answer
  • Three
  • Four
  • Five
  • Six

Question 20

Question
Which security classification guide section would list the transmit frequency of an electronic warfare system?
Answer
  • Hardware
  • Operational data
  • Performance and capabilities
  • Funding, procurement, and production

Question 21

Question
What structural areas allow maintenance personnel to inspect or service aircraft components?
Answer
  • Doors
  • Nacelles
  • Windows
  • Plates and skins

Question 22

Question
Which is not an offensive avionics system?
Answer
  • Built-in test system
  • Controls and displays
  • Central computing complex
  • Navigation and weapons delivery

Question 23

Question
What is the minimum safe distance from an UHF antenna when the associated transmitter is radiating power?
Answer
  • 1 foot
  • 3 feet
  • 5 feet
  • 10 feet

Question 24

Question
Which is a condition that results from frequent exposure to small overdoses of noise?
Answer
  • Frequent nausea
  • Temporary weight gain
  • Permanent hearing loss
  • Small overdose have little or no effect

Question 25

Question
Which inspection is more extensive than the hourly postflight or basic postflight inspections and covers certain parts, areas, and systems of the aircraft that require less frequent inspection?
Answer
  • Minor
  • Major
  • Phase
  • Periodic

Question 26

Question
The AFTO Form 781-series would not be used to document aircraft
Answer
  • inspections
  • flight records
  • configurations
  • component repair

Question 27

Question
Who is responsible for the validity and legibility of all COMSEC required entries?
Answer
  • Aircrew
  • Pro super
  • Crewchief
  • Comm/Nav technician

Question 28

Question
To “flag” a condition on an aircraft that could cause damage or injury if ignored, use
Answer
  • AFTO Form 244
  • AFTO Form 781K
  • AF Form 1492
  • AF Form 979

Question 29

Question
Which is not a flight line precaution used to protect ESDS components?
Answer
  • Using protective tote boxes
  • Covering LRU connector plugs
  • Touching the ends of aircraft wiring to the LRU case prior to installation
  • Touching the LRU case with your hands prior to removal from the aircraft

Question 30

Question
Which is not a type of connector coupling?
Answer
  • Friction
  • Bayonet
  • Insertion
  • Threaded

Question 31

Question
Utilizing exact dimensions for stripping wire ensures
Answer
  • connectors will mate properly
  • solder will adhere properly
  • RF will not be impeded
  • proper connection

Question 32

Question
One purpose of crimper positioners is to
Answer
  • align crimper handles to pin contact.
  • put pin contacts in the proper position.
  • put the turret head in line with pin contact.
  • adjust the pressure applied to the connector pins.

Question 33

Question
As a flight line technician, you can repair up to
Answer
  • 20 percent of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
  • 20 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
  • 25 percent of the inner shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable
  • 25 percent of the outer shield circumference of an EMP hardened cable

Question 34

Question
The circuit used in an AM transmitter to bring the oscillator frequency up to the designed frequency required for carrier wave operation is
Answer
  • a buffer amplifier
  • an audio amplifier
  • a power amplifier
  • a frequency multiplier

Question 35

Question
In an FM transmitter, the frequency of the oscillator is controlled by the
Answer
  • reactance modulator
  • power amplifier circuit
  • frequency multiplier circuit
  • frequency discriminator circuit

Question 36

Question
In single sideband transmitter, the balanced modulator’s output consists of
Answer
  • the carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband
  • the upper and lower sidebands
  • lower sideband only
  • upper sideband only

Question 37

Question
The purpose of the limiter circuit in an FM receiver is to
Answer
  • add amplitude variations to the intermediate frequency signal
  • remove amplitude variations from the intermediate frequency signal
  • remove frequency variations from the intermediate frequency signal
  • rectify the audio frequency signal from the intermediate frequency section

Question 38

Question
A receiving radio antenna receives radio frequency signals by
Answer
  • accepting and amplifying the minute current
  • removing the radio frequency carrier wave
  • converting energy to magnetic and electrical fields of force
  • electromagnetic fields impressing a voltage across the antenna thus causing current to flow

Question 39

Question
The primary reason the high-frequency radio uses single sideband modulation is
Answer
  • that fidelity is greatly increased
  • the transmitter output power is 10 watts
  • the system can use a very wide-band pass
  • that it provides many channels to operate on

Question 40

Question
You are using a learned preset for the ARC–190 high-frequency radio system. For this application, the transmit tune time is less than
Answer
  • 5 milliseconds
  • 25 milliseconds
  • 35 milliseconds
  • 50 milliseconds

Question 41

Question
Which very-high frequency radio system uses two antennas?
Answer
  • FM homing
  • AM communications
  • FM communications
  • AM direction-finder

Question 42

Question
The Have Quick II frequency-hopping pattern and rate is programmed by the
Answer
  • time-of-day
  • word-of-day
  • net number used
  • universal time coordinated

Question 43

Question
What LRU provides primary control of the ARC–210 radio system?
Answer
  • Radio set control
  • Remote tuning panel
  • Receiver/transmitter
  • Remote volume control

Question 44

Question
How do you swap the active and standby frequencies of the ARC–210 radio system using the remote tuning panel?
Answer
  • Pressing the outer knob
  • Pressing the inner knob
  • Rotating the outer knob
  • Rotating the inner knob

Question 45

Question
Which one of the following is not an operating mode of the PRC–90 emergency radio?
Answer
  • Morse code.
  • Two-way voice communication.
  • Three-way voice communications.
  • Variable audio modulation between 1000 and 300 Hz.

Question 46

Question
When activated, the emergency locator transmitter continuously transmits on frequencies
Answer
  • 8.0 and 121.5 MHz
  • 243.0 and 282.8 MHz
  • 254.5 and 282.8 MHz
  • 121.5 and 243.0 MHz

Question 47

Question
The purpose of the +17 to +29 VDC on the CALL control line of the C–6567 is to
Answer
  • reduce the level of CALL audio output.
  • disable the mic amplifier during CALL operation.
  • activate the AGC circuits in the headset amplifiers.
  • energize the CALL switch on the front panel of the C–6624.

Question 48

Question
The major difference between the U–92A/U and the U–94A/U jack is the
Answer
  • U–92A/U jack has a PTT button.
  • U–94A/U jack has a PTT button.
  • U–94A/U is located on the pilot’s throttle grip.
  • U–92A/U requires an additional wire for the talk switch.

Question 49

Question
The forward external interphone receptacle in the airborne digital interphone system (ADIS) system allows the operator to transmit on a radio, even though the other two external receptacles cannot, because it is connected to the
Answer
  • pilot’s interphone audio control panel (IACP).
  • pilot’s intercom control panel (ICP).
  • boom operator’s forward IACP.
  • boom operator’s forward ICP.

Question 50

Question
If you need to store 12 cryptographic keys, then how many KYK–13 devices will you require?
Answer
  • 1
  • 2
  • 4
  • 6

Question 51

Question
Why does the KYK–13 parity light flash on and off continuously?
Answer
  • Because battery power is low.
  • Because stored key is no longer valid.
  • Because the unit is performing BIT.
  • Because key transfer was prevented.

Question 52

Question
What KY–58 line replaceable unit (LRU) has the primary function of transmitting and receiving secure voice messages?
Answer
  • Z–AHQ adapter.
  • RCU control panel.
  • KYK–13 fill device.
  • TSEC secure voice processor.

Question 53

Question
Parallels of latitude are parallel to the
Answer
  • equator
  • polar axis
  • Greenwich meridian
  • international time line

Question 54

Question
Which global positioning system unit in the ARN–151 produces the intermediate frequency signal?
Answer
  • Antenna
  • Receiver
  • Indicator control
  • Antenna controller

Question 55

Question
In the tactical air navigation (TACAN) receiver transmitter (RT) adapter, TO/FROM information is developed by combining magnetic bearing with
Answer
  • course deviation
  • magnetic heading
  • relative bearing
  • relative heading

Question 56

Question
If an aircraft is flying inbound on the 90° radial of a very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) station, then what will be the outbound radial when the aircraft passes the station?
Answer
  • 90°.
  • 180°.
  • 270°.
  • 360°.

Question 57

Question
When the IDENT-OUT-MIC switch is in the MIC position, identification, friend or foe (IFF) identification of position (I/P) replies are triggered every time which radio system is keyed?
Answer
  • HF
  • LHF
  • UHF
  • VHF

Question 58

Question
How long in μs does it take an RF wave to travel a radar mile?
Answer
  • 12.4μs.
  • 9.3μs.
  • 6.2μs.
  • 3.1μs.

Question 59

Question
Which component in a pulse-modulation radar system shapes the radio frequency energy into a narrow beam?
Answer
  • Antenna
  • Indicator
  • Transmitter
  • Synchronizer

Question 60

Question
Which of the following are types of power loss in radio frequency lines?
Answer
  • Copper, dielectric, and radiation
  • Current, dielectric, and emission
  • Dielectric, radiation, and current
  • Radiation, copper, and conduction

Question 61

Question
Which component in the AN/APN–59 radar system furnishes both pitch and roll drive signals to the antenna stabilization motors?
Answer
  • AM–853B.
  • CN–221A.
  • AS–653C.
  • RT–289G.

Question 62

Question
During the CARA radar altitude indicator’s bright lighting conditions, the ambient light sensor serves to
Answer
  • set the display brightness to dim
  • override the dimmer control knob
  • allow the user to brighten the display only
  • allow the user to both dim or brighten the display

Question 63

Question
Which radar application sends data to compute time-to-go parameters?
Answer
  • Search radar
  • Weather radar
  • Bombing radar
  • Synthetic aperture radar

Question 64

Question
The elapsed time indicator of the R/T indicates the time power has been
Answer
  • applied to the R/T
  • removed from the R/T
  • applied to digital data processor
  • removed from digital data processor

Question 65

Question
What is the range in MHz of signals that the low pass filter passes?
Answer
  • 240 – 304 MHz
  • 480 – 608 MHz
  • 960 – 1215 MHz
  • 1920 – 2430 MHz

Question 66

Question
If the JTIDS entrant is attempting to achieve fine synchronization by transmitting a round trip time interrogation, then what process is being used?
Answer
  • active
  • passive
  • dynamic
  • radio silent

Question 67

Question
What is the structure of a MIL-STD1553 data word?
Answer
  • 20 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 16 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits
  • 20 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 16 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit
  • 32 bits long consisting of 1 sync bit, 28 data/command/status bits, and 3 parity bits
  • 32 bits long consisting of 3 sync bits, 28 data/command/status bits, and 1 parity bit.

Question 68

Question
What part of a computer acts like a sophisticated switchboard operator?
Answer
  • memory
  • logic unit
  • control unit
  • arithmetic unit

Question 69

Question
The resolution of a computer monitor is expressed in the number of pixels that make up the image; therefore, the sharper the image, the
Answer
  • lower the refresh rate
  • higher the resolution
  • lower the dot color
  • higher the dot pitch

Question 70

Question
The power meter is used to measure
Answer
  • no power
  • any power
  • either absolute or relative power
  • either absolute or manual power

Question 71

Question
If you want to measure relative power using a power meter, you would first apply the power level and then press
Answer
  • MODE.
  • dB REF.
  • RANGE HOLD.
  • SENSOR ZERO.

Question 72

Question
Before power is connected to the RFLTS, you must ensure the ON/POWER/OFF switch is in the OFF position and a suitable grounding strap is connected between the grounding lug on the right side of RFTLTS unit 1 and the
Answer
  • aircraft
  • power unit
  • parking ramp
  • time domain reflectometer

Question 73

Question
When using the 1 and 3 milliohm range on the model 4328A millohmeter, how far away from the conducting surface should the probes and cables be placed?
Answer
  • 10 millimeters
  • 10 centimeters
  • 1 millimeter
  • 1 centimeter

Question 74

Question
What basic function of a data bus analyzer provides the ability to introduce an error condition into the data to permit an analysis of how the system will behave?
Answer
  • Injection
  • Simulation
  • Examination
  • Playback of data

Question 75

Question
When the confidence test is performed, which APX–64 transponder R/T module’s gain is increased?
Answer
  • RF
  • Test
  • Decoder
  • IF amplifier

Question 76

Question
When pressing the TEST RPT button on the transponder TS–3977 test set while aiming the antenna at the ground, the test code indication should be
Answer
  • F
  • O
  • 3
  • 7

Question 77

Question
If you turn the Bearing CW/CCW switch on the ARM–184 flightline test set, then the indicator should increase or decrease at an angular rate of
Answer
  • 5° per second
  • 10° per second
  • 12° per second
  • 15° per second

Question 78

Question
Traditional noise jamming techniques designed to block communications channels or radarscope presentations are applications of
Answer
  • denial
  • deception
  • disruption
  • destruction

Question 79

Question
Electronic support data is not used to produce
Answer
  • signal intelligence
  • ballistic intelligence
  • electronic intelligence
  • communications intelligence

Question 80

Question
Normal suppression of enemy air defense targets include radars for
Answer
  • acquisition, and antiaircraft artillery only.
  • acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, and surface-to-air (SAM) only.
  • acquisition and early warning/ground controlled intercept and SAM only.
  • acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.

Question 81

Question
What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?
Answer
  • EA–6B
  • EF–111
  • F/A–18
  • F–16CJ

Question 82

Question
A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of
Answer
  • imitative deception
  • imitative reception
  • simulative deception
  • manipulative deception

Question 83

Question
What are electronic warfare (EW) reconnaissance crews called?
Answer
  • Crows
  • Ferrets
  • Sparks
  • Ravens

Question 84

Question
What electronic intelligence (ELINT) equipment is used to determine the location of emitters?
Answer
  • Pulse analyzer
  • Direction finder
  • Spectrum analyzer
  • Panoramic receiver

Question 85

Question
What radar display indicator displays range or velocity?
Answer
  • A scope
  • B scope
  • Range height
  • Plan position

Question 86

Question
The radar warning receiver (RWR) does not provide signal
Answer
  • relative location
  • identification
  • frequency
  • amplitude

Question 87

Question
What infrared (IR) detector device requires a bias current or voltage to operate?
Answer
  • Photovoltaic
  • Photographic
  • Photoemissive
  • Photoconductive

Question 88

Question
What infrared (IR) seeker uses many detectors and each one detects a small portion of a scene?
Answer
  • Staring
  • Scanning
  • Chopping
  • Spinning

Question 89

Question
In what frequency region do the missile approach warning systems (MAWS) operate?
Answer
  • Radio
  • Gamma
  • Infrared
  • Visible light

Question 90

Question
When a photon causes the release of another photon, it is called
Answer
  • stimulated emission
  • population inversion
  • spontaneous emission
  • population conversion

Question 91

Question
What is not a battlefield usage of the laser?
Answer
  • Target ranging and designation
  • Contrail detection
  • Guided weapon
  • Acquisition

Question 92

Question
What technology does the Pilot Alert System (PAS) employ to detect contrail from the #3 engine exhaust?
Answer
  • Laser
  • Acoustic
  • Microwave
  • Millimeter wave

Question 93

Question
The chaff tactic that dispenses large quantities of chaff in a continuous ribbon is called
Answer
  • area saturation
  • self-protection
  • preplanned burst
  • corridor operation

Question 94

Question
A typical flare cartridge is composed of magnesium and tetraflouroethylene and burns at
Answer
  • 1000 to 1200 °K.
  • 2000 to 2200 °K.
  • 3000 to 3200 °K.
  • 4000 to 4200 °K.

Question 95

Question
What indicates the relative signal strength of the received radio frequency (RF) signal?
Answer
  • Horizontal deflection of the trace.
  • Vertical deflection of the trace.
  • Span per division.
  • Center frequency.

Question 96

Question
The four control modes allow you to vary the output
Answer
  • time only
  • period only
  • frequency only
  • pulse characteristics

Question 97

Question
What test equipment is used to check the aircraft expendables (chaff and flare) systems?
Answer
  • Spectrum analyzer
  • Radar simulator set
  • Countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT)
  • Radiofrequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS)

Question 98

Question
What describes in detail how an Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) change affects an Electronic Warfare (EW) system?
Answer
  • System impact message
  • Reprogramming impact message
  • Time compliance technical order
  • Maintenance instruction message

Question 99

Question
Which of the following is an Air Force reprogramming exercise?
Answer
  • BRAVE BYTE
  • PROUD BYTE
  • SERENE BYTE
  • NEPTUNE BYTE

Question 100

Question
What countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?
Answer
  • Fire
  • Misfire
  • Jettison
  • Stay voltage
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