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SFPC 3

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Security
Arthur Casto
Quiz by Arthur Casto, updated more than 1 year ago
Arthur Casto
Created by Arthur Casto over 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Jackson Perkins is being considered for promotion to a higher risk position in the federal agency for which he currently works. His suitability investigation reflected two speeding tickets in the past five years on the compound where he currently works but no other traffic violations or criminal activity. Which suitability factor is most applicable to the facts in this scenario?
Answer
  • Factor 1: Misconduct or Negligence in Employment
  • Factor 2: Criminal or Dishonest Conduct
  • Factor 3: Material, Intentional False Statement or Deception or Fraud in Employment

Question 2

Question
Which system captures position information to include position risk and sensitivity?
Answer
  • Position Designation Automated Tool (PDT)
  • Electronic Questionnaire for Investigations Processing (eQIP) system
  • Defense Civilian Personnel Data System (DCPDS)

Question 3

Question
Who primarily conducts suitability adjudications?
Answer
  • Office of Personnel Management (OPM)
  • Defense Civilian Personnel Advisory Service (DCPAS)
  • Adjudicator from the employing agency, component or DoD CAF

Question 4

Question
Which type of investigation is used to reinvestigate employees in non-sensitive, high risk public trust positions?
Answer
  • T1R
  • T2R
  • T4R

Question 5

Question
Which type of adjudication is required to determine if an individual should be allowed to hold a position of public trust?
Answer
  • Public Trust adjudication
  • HSPD-12 adjudication
  • Suitability adjudication

Question 6

Question
When does OPM or the agency or component notify the subject of his or her appeal rights?
Answer
  • In the final decision
  • In the answer to the notice of a proposed action
  • In the notice of proposed action

Question 7

Question
Larry Lengal is applying for a federal position. Mr Lengal’s investigation revealed that he joined a group called Freedom Youth when he was in college. The group participated in anti-US demonstrations by the White House. Which suitability factor is most applicable to the facts in this scenario?
Answer
  • Factor 2: Criminal or Dishonest Conduct
  • Factor 7: Knowing and Willful Engagement in Acts/Activities designed to overthrow the US Government by Force
  • Factor 8: Statutory or Regulatory Bar to Employment

Question 8

Question
Who is responsible for issuing government-wide debarments?
Answer
  • FBI
  • OPM
  • DoD

Question 9

Question
What is the course of action if suitability issues are revealed during prescreening?
Answer
  • The applicant will be debarred
  • The file is referred to the suitability adjudicator
  • An unfavorable suitability determination will be made

Question 10

Question
Why is it important that components and agencies report their adjudicative decisions to OPM?
Answer
  • To comply with Federal Law
  • To ensure the information is available to other agencies to ensure efficiency of the civil service

Question 11

Question
In which of the following cases would a suitability adjudication NOT be automatically required?
Answer
  • Janice is being promoted to a new position within the federal government which has a higher level of risk than her previous position.
  • Jeff is applying for a federal position with the Department of Agriculture and has not previously held a federal job.
  • Carla is returning to the federal workforce after she left her federal service position 1 year ago to have her first child.

Question 12

Question
To which of the following groups do fitness requirement apply?
Answer
  • Contractor employees, employees serving in Federal competitive service position or Federal expected service positons that may convert to competitive service positions
  • Contractor employees, and employees serving in Federal excepted service positions that cannot be noncompetitively converted to competitive service positions.
  • Applicants, appointees, and employees serving in Federal competitive services positions or Federal excepted service positions that may convert to competitive service positions.

Question 13

Question
Which of the following is used to assess a position levels of risk and sensitivity?
Answer
  • Position Designation Automated Tool (PDT)
  • Electronic Questionnaires for Investigations processing (eQIP) system
  • Personnel Investigations Processing System (PIPS)
  • Central Verification System (CVS)

Question 14

Question
What is a common problem found in personnel security investigation requests?
Answer
  • Subject provided discrepant information
  • Subject is not a federal employee
  • Subject has worked for several agencies
  • Subject has lived at one location for over 10 years

Question 15

Question
The appeals process is centralized for all agencies, so the steps are the same no matter who the employing agency is.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 16

Question
Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative determination should be made. The investigation into Stacy Brewer reveals that although she has never been implicated in a crime herself, her live-in boyfriend has multiple, drug-related convictions, and several of Ms. Brewer’s friends are in and out of jail on theft and drug charges. She did not disclose that she lived with her boyfriend on her SF-86. When asked about it, she said she intentionally did not list him on her SF-86 as she was afraid her clearance would be denied. Should Ms. Brewer be granted eligibility?
Answer
  • Yes
  • No

Question 17

Question
The careful evaluation of favorable and unfavorable information from a subject’s past and present must take the __________ into consideration.
Answer
  • Review items
  • Continuous evaluation process
  • Investigative process
  • Whole-person

Question 18

Question
Straightforward cases may be reviewed automatically by an electronic adjudication system.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 19

Question
To develop and resolve issues flagged in a standard investigation prior to completion of the personnel security investigation, which of the following is used?
Answer
  • T3R
  • PR
  • NAC
  • EFI Model

Question 20

Question
A more comprehensive personnel security investigation may replace a less comprehensive one.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 21

Question
The subject interview is a standard investigative element of which two PSIs?
Answer
  • Tier 5 and T5R
  • Tier 3 and Tier 5
  • Tier 3 and T3R
  • T3R and T5R

Question 22

Question
Prior and current investigative records (for example, from DoD, OPM, and IC databases) are always checked for Tier 3 and Tier 5 initial reinvestigations.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 23

Question
The Supreme Court found in Cole v. Young that the regulations of the personnel security program (PSP) apply to all Federal government employees.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 24

Question
A contractor employee requiring initial secret eligibility and access needs a Tier 3 investigation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 25

Question
Information from private individuals and the news media occasionally provides information to be about an individual holding security eligibility that is reviewed under continuous evaluation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 26

Question
What is the relationship between vulnerabilities and threats?
Answer
  • Both are based in honesty
  • There is no relationship between them
  • Vulnerabilities exploit threats
  • Threats exploit vulnerabilities

Question 27

Question
Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative determination should be made. The agency IT department discovered that Jerome Wilson accessed a network folder to which he was not authorized to use. Subsequent investigation showed that his supervisor had asked him to store sensitive files in the folder and had told Mr. Wilson his use was approved. When Mr. Wilson learned that his use was in fact unauthorized, he reported the situation to his supervisor and the security office and stated that he would not access the folder again. Should Mr. Wilson be granted eligibility?
Answer
  • Yes
  • No

Question 28

Question
________ is the program name for the Intelligence Community Security Clearance Repository.
Answer
  • Central Verification System (CVS)
  • Scattered Castles
  • Security/Suitability Investigations Index (SII)
  • Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)

Question 29

Question
An individual may be disqualified if available information reflects a recent or recurring pattern of questionable judgment, irresponsibility, or emotionally unstable behavior.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 30

Question
Failure to comply with prescribed treatment is a mitigating condition under the psychological conditions adjudicative guideline.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 31

Question
Which of the following lays out standards and procedures for SCI access?
Answer
  • ICD 704
  • E.O. 13567
  • Title 5, Code of Federal Regulation, Part 732
  • Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act

Question 32

Question
The deliberate falsification of facts on a personnel security questionnaire is a disqualifying condition under which of these adjudicative guidelines?
Answer
  • Use of Information Technology Systems
  • Handling Protected Information
  • Outside Activities
  • Personal Conduct

Question 33

Question
The personnel security program is concerned only with the threat posed by foreign intelligence service.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 34

Question
The federal government is exempt from the Privacy Act of 1974 and as such, can collect personal information without notifying the subject of why said information is being collected.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 35

Question
An individual seeking secret clearance eligibility failed to report as required the possession of a foreign passport, and has used the foreign passport to enter and exit the United States, the individual may be granted eligibility.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 36

Question
The highest OPM-defined civilian position sensitivity level is _________.
Answer
  • Top Secret
  • Critical-Sensitive
  • Special-Sensitive
  • Confidential

Question 37

Question
Which of the following was previously a stand-alone investigation but now is a foundational component of other investigations?
Answer
  • NACLC
  • ANACI
  • SSBI
  • NAC
  • NACI

Question 38

Question
When evaluating an individual’s foreign contacts and interests, what should the adjudicator consider about the associated country?
Answer
  • Does the country have a trade agreement with the US?
  • Is the country associated with a risk of terrorism?
  • Foreign business or financial interests may not benefit the US
  • Is the country an economic competitor with the US?
  • Is the country a member of NATO?

Question 39

Question
Tier 5 is the minimum investigation to support initial assignment to non-critical sensitive.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 40

Question
The deliberate falsification of fact on a personnel security questionnaire is a disqualifying condition under which of these national security adjudicative guidelines?
Answer
  • Handling Protected Information
  • Outside Activities
  • Use of Information Technology
  • Personal Conduct

Question 41

Question
Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative termination should be made. Melissa Stewart listed mental health treatment on her SF-86. A qualified and approved mental health care provider advised that her condition is in remission and has a low probability of recurrence. Should Ms. Stewart be granted eligibility?
Answer
  • Yes
  • No

Question 42

Question
A mitigating condition does which of the following?
Answer
  • Overcomes a disqualifying condition in every case and permits a favorable determination
  • Lessens the severity or seriousness of a disqualifying condition
  • The adjudicator may consider it to decide a ‘borderline’ case
  • Has almost no effect on the final determination

Question 43

Question
An individual with a history of excessive alcohol consumption has applied for clearance eligibility. The behavior occurred long ago, and in the years since, the individual has acknowledged and overcome the problem, and successfully completed treatment, Therefore, the individual may be granted eligibility.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 44

Question
_____________ establishes a uniform Federal PSP for all employees who hold sensitive positions or who must access classified information.
Answer
  • White House Memorandum of Dec 29, 2005
  • Executive Order 12968
  • DoDI 5200.02/DoDM 5200.02

Question 45

Question
The Tier 3 investigation replaced the ANACI, which was the former investigation used to grant initial secret of confidential eligibility for civilians.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 46

Question
Which of the following is a function of the DoD CAF?
Answer
  • Making final appointments to civilian sensitive positions after completion of the PSIs.
  • Making final determinations on appeals of denied or revoked security clearances.
  • Determining a subject’s eligibility for military service.
  • Denying or revoking security clearance eligibility for access to classified information and/or assignment to a sensitive position.

Question 47

Question
Which of the following statements is true regarding criminal conduct?
Answer
  • Only felony convictions are disqualifying
  • Criminal conduct may be mitigated if there is evidence of rehabilitation
  • All criminal convictions are viewed equally during an adjudication

Question 48

Question
The DoD DOES NOT need a Personnel Security Program because all people are equally trustworthy.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 49

Question
The subject of an investigation may request a copy of their PSI from which of the following?
Answer
  • The investigative agency
  • The activity security office
  • The DoD CAF
  • The supervisor

Question 50

Question
_________________ is the investigative agency authorized to conduct investigations for the DoD PSP.
Answer
  • Federal Bureau of Investigations
  • Central Intelligence Agency
  • Defense Intelligence Agency
  • National Background Investigations Bureau

Question 51

Question
Which of the following would be required for all levels of DoD Interim clearances?
Answer
  • Favorable review of FBI fingerprint records
  • Favorable review of local records
  • Favorable review of a completed form SF-86
  • All of the above

Question 52

Question
All DoD personnel have an obligation to report information that reflects an actual or potential danger to national security.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 53

Question
Which civilian position sensitivity level has the potential for inestimable damage to the nation security or for inestimable adverse impact to the efficiency of the DoD or the Military Services?
Answer
  • Non-Sensitive
  • Critical-Sensitive
  • Noncritical-Sensitive
  • Special-Sensitive

Question 54

Question
The step in due process for military and civilian personnel are different.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 55

Question
Review the following case details and determine whteher a favorable adjudicative determination should be made. Stan Nelson revealed on his SF-86 that he pled guilty to statutory rape when he was 18, for having consensual sexual relations with his 16-year-old girlfriend. Mr. Nelson served a 90-day sentence and successfully completed his probation and required community service; his girlfriend subsequently express remorse that he was charged with a crim. In the 12 years since, Mr. Nelson has not had additional arrests or incidents concerning sexual or criminal behavior. Should Mr. Nelson be granted eligibility?
Answer
  • Yes
  • No

Question 56

Question
Discovery of adverse information after issuance of security clearance eligibility _________.
Answer
  • Will be considered at the next periodic reinvestigation
  • Automatically triggers a new investigation
  • May result in access suspension

Question 57

Question
What is the purpose of the National Background Investigations Bureau (NBIB) Case Closing Transmittal cover sheer?
Answer
  • Report an unfavorable adjudicative determination to the subject
  • Recommend an adjudicative determination to the DoD CAF
  • Document complete, incomplete, and pending checks from the investigation

Question 58

Question
The briefing given to personnel who have recently been approved for access to classified information or assigned to a position of trust is the:
Answer
  • Initial Briefing
  • Refresher Briefing
  • Termination Briefing
  • Foreign Travel Briefing

Question 59

Question
A subject interview is a standard investigative element for Tier 3 and Tier 5 investigations.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 60

Question
________________ are weaknesses, characteristics or circumstances that can be exploited by an adversary to gain access to or information from an asset.
Answer
  • Vulnerabilities
  • Risks
  • Threats

Question 61

Question
Although the specific content of a Physical Security Plan may vary between components, installations, units, or activities, the format remains the same.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 62

Question
Rivers, cliffs, and dense growth are examples of which type of barrier?
Answer
  • Active barrier
  • Natural barrier
  • Passive barrier

Question 63

Question
Physical security planning is deciding which security measures will be used to prevent unauthorized access to DoD assets and to safeguard those assets against threats.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 64

Question
__________________ are conducted by peers or by senior agency personnel in the chain-of-command.
Answer
  • Compliance inspections
  • Self-inspections
  • Surveys
  • Staff assist visits

Question 65

Question
In a tactical environment, Physical Security Plans should be based on METT-TC, which stands for mission, _______________, terrain and weather, troops, time available, and civilian considerations.
Answer
  • Exercises
  • Equipment
  • Enemy

Question 66

Question
Providing information on the capabilities and intentions of our adversaries is the responsibility of the ____________.
Answer
  • Physical Security Officer
  • Commander or Director
  • Antiterrorism Officer
  • Operational Security Officer
  • Counterintelligence Support

Question 67

Question
Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs) are graduated categories of measures or actions commanders take to protect personnel and assets from attack.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 68

Question
________________ establish duties, roles and responsibilities at individual assignments, checkpoints, gates and guard posts.
Answer
  • Physical Security Plans (PSP)
  • Memorandums of Understanding (MOU)
  • Post Orders

Question 69

Question
_________________, the inspector should review any local security directives, the Physical Security Plan, its Standard Operating Procedures, and any previous inspection reports, exceptions, and waivers.
Answer
  • When preparing the inspection report
  • In preparation for an inspection
  • During the inspection

Question 70

Question
____________________ use Defense Terrorism Warning Reports to convey _________________.
Answer
  • The DIA and COCOMs / DoD Terrorist Threat Levels
  • COCOMs and Installation Commanders / Force Protection Conditions
  • The DHS and COCOMs / DoD Terrorist Threat Levels

Question 71

Question
A ______________ defines emergency delegations of authority and orders of succession to ensure DoD Component Mission Essential Functions (MEFs) continue under all circumstances.
Answer
  • Physical Security Plan (PSP)
  • Continuity of Operations Plan (COOP)
  • Memorandum of Agreement (MOA)

Question 72

Question
Threat levels assist senior leaders to determine the appropriate ________ level.
Answer
  • Classification designation
  • FPCON
  • SOP
  • GSA security specification

Question 73

Question
Two antiterrorism tools the DoD uses to safeguard DoD assets are __________________ and _______________.
Answer
  • Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs) and Terrorist Threat Levels
  • Threat Working Group and Post Orders
  • Countermeasures and Standard Operating Procedures

Question 74

Question
__________________ issue Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs).
Answer
  • COCOMs and Installation Commanders/Facility Directors
  • The DHS and COCOMs
  • The DIA and COCOMs

Question 75

Question
It’s better for an inspector not to announce the inspection in order to create a surprise effect and see how everything really operates.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 76

Question
Which system detects a change in the environment and transmits an alarm?
Answer
  • CCTV
  • Access Controls System
  • IDS

Question 77

Question
___________________ are often overlooked in physical security planning and implementation.
Answer
  • Lights
  • Barriers
  • Man-passable openings

Question 78

Question
Lighting deters unauthorized entry by providing a psychological deterrence to intruders.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 79

Question
______________________ are formal agreements that provide security assistance between DoD activities and from local law enforcement agencies as well as mutual aid from local fire and medical services.
Answer
  • Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)
  • Physical Security Plans (PSP)
  • Memorandums of Understanding and Agreement (MOU/MOA)

Question 80

Question
When assessing an asset, you must determine the nature and the value of that asset and the degree of impact if the asset is damaged or lost.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 81

Question
FPCON _________ applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific target is imminent.
Answer
  • Normal
  • Alpha
  • Bravo
  • Charlie
  • Delta

Question 82

Question
There is a one for one correlation between Terrorist Threat Levels and force Protection Conditions.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 83

Question
The _____________________ develops and refines terrorism threat assessments and coordinates and disseminates threat warnings, reports, and summaries.
Answer
  • Defense Critical Infrastructure Protection (DCIP) Working Group
  • Antiterrorism Working Group (ATWG)
  • Threat Working Group (TWG)

Question 84

Question
Examples of oversight tools include day-to-day observations, surveys, staff assist visits, ______________, and the operational environment.
Answer
  • Policy manuals
  • Inspections
  • Executive Orders

Question 85

Question
_____________________ are based on information about terrorist groups such as their operational capability, intentions, activity, and the operational environment.
Answer
  • Continuity of Operations Plans (COOPs)
  • Counterterrorism measures
  • DoD Terrorist Threat Levels
  • Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs)

Question 86

Question
Although the DoD issues DoD-wide guidance for physical security planning and implementation, you should always consult ______________ for specific guidance.
Answer
  • Your component’s policies
  • Congressional legislation
  • Executive Orders

Question 87

Question
As a physical security specialist, you may assume different physical security roles or serve on different working groups, such as the ATWG, TWG, and DCIP.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 88

Question
_______________ can result from day-to-day observations or more formal oversight.
Answer
  • Inspection reports
  • Incident reports
  • Surveys

Question 89

Question
Antiterrorism physical security measures incorporate detection, deterrence, denial and ____________.
Answer
  • Documentation
  • Evaluation
  • Determination
  • Notification

Question 90

Question
The only factor that should be considered when selecting an Intrusion Detection System is the criticality of the asset.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 91

Question
What type of access control system uses verification of an acceptable form of identification such as the Common Access Card, or CAC?
Answer
  • Manual
  • Combination
  • Biometric
  • Physical
  • Mechanical
  • Automated

Question 92

Question
Controlled lighting is used when it is necessary to limit the brightness of the light.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 93

Question
What kind of light should be selected in order to enable the security guards to observe intruders at a considerable distance beyond the perimeter?
Answer
  • Glare projection
  • Emergency projection
  • Downside illumination
  • Standby illumination

Question 94

Question
Response forces ___________________________________ .
Answer
  • respond to alarms and incidents
  • dispatch response forces and mobile patrols
  • guard a high-priority resource
  • can cover large areas in a timely manner

Question 95

Question
The purpose of an intrusion detection system is to deter, detect, and _____________ intrusion.
Answer
  • Forbid
  • Prevent
  • Document
  • Thwart

Question 96

Question
A security system with a camera that captures an image, converts it to a video signal, and transmits it to a monitoring station defines _______________________ .
Answer
  • screening equipment
  • visual monitoring and deterrence
  • access control systems
  • closed circuit television (CCTV)

Question 97

Question
The central point for collecting the alarm status from the Premise Control Units (PCU s) handling the alarms under the control of an IDS is the _______________________________ .
Answer
  • Transmission line hub
  • Security technology and equipment installation
  • monitoring station

Question 98

Question
Biometric and non-biometric access control systems are examples of the __________________________ type of access control system.
Answer
  • Combination
  • Automated
  • Manual
  • Mechanical
  • Physical

Question 99

Question
What Security-in-Depth principle is illustrated by a vault with special controls to limit access to only some of the personnel that work within a secure facility?
Answer
  • control
  • area security
  • enclaving
  • separation

Question 100

Question
What type of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitoring provides local centralized monitoring?
Answer
  • Proprietary monitoring
  • Central station monitoring
  • Local monitoring
  • None of the above

Question 101

Question
A visitor with a record in the Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS) reflecting the appropriate level of access eligibility but who does not have a verified need-to-know for information protected within the controlled area would require ___________________________.
Answer
  • a visitor badge
  • an "escort required" visitor badge only
  • an "escort required" visitor badge and escort
  • a CAC and escort

Question 102

Question
A closed circuit television (CCTV) is an especially valuable security asset because it can be used effectively without establishing procedures and providing training in its use.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 103

Question
When is a security force response required?
Answer
  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) sensor is triggered.
  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is not reporting an alarm.
  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) protects a highly critical asset.
  • When an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) alarm notification is received.

Question 104

Question
Conveyor belt style x-ray machines are classified as what type of screening equipment?
Answer
  • Pedestrian
  • Fixed
  • Intrusive
  • Portable

Question 105

Question
What are the types of screening equipment most frequently used by the Department of Defense (DoD)?
Answer
  • Fixed and portable
  • Portable and closed circuit television (CCTV)
  • Detection and reporting

Question 106

Question
What Intrusion Detection System (IDS) operational phase is activated when the Premise Control Unit (PCU) receives signals from sensors in a protected area and incorporates these signals into a communications scheme?
Answer
  • Response/Assessment
  • Detection
  • Dispatch
  • Reporting

Question 107

Question
What is the preferred method of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitoring?
Answer
  • Central station monitoring
  • Proprietary monitoring
  • Remote monitoring
  • Local monitoring

Question 108

Question
What type of access control system is a card swipe, with or without a personal identification number, or PIN?
Answer
  • Combination
  • Physical
  • Manual
  • Automated
  • Biometric

Question 109

Question
What type of lighting is used when additional lighting is necessary and may be activated by alarm or motion detector?
Answer
  • Standby lighting
  • Surface lighting
  • Emergency lighting
  • Continuous lighting

Question 110

Question
What are signs, barriers, and fences used for in perimeter protection systems?
Answer
  • Deterring unlawful or unauthorized entry
  • Establishing legal boundaries
  • Preventing all types of penetration
  • Integrating protection assets
  • Preventing observation from outside

Question 111

Question
Active barrier systems define perimeters and ensure only authorized personnel are permitted access.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 112

Question
When are static observation posts used?
Answer
  • When continuous surveillance is required.
  • To cover large areas in a timely manner.
  • To monitor alarms and respond to emergencies.
  • To monitor entry to a facility or secure area.

Question 113

Question
The use of _____________________ provides security personnel the ability to visually monitor multiple areas simultaneously.
Answer
  • access control
  • closed circuit television (CCTV)
  • a visual deterrent system
  • screening equipment

Question 114

Question
What does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) detect?
Answer
  • Only unauthorized intrusions
  • A change in the state of an indoor detection device by a change in outdoor environmental devices
  • A change in state of detection devices that may require further investigation
  • Prevention of an unauthorized intrusion

Question 115

Question
While both Class V and Class VI GSA-approved containers offer protection against covert and surreptitious entry, only Class V containers offer protection against forced entry.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 116

Question
What is the purpose of the warning label on GSA-approved containers manufactured beginning April 2007?
Answer
  • Warns against storing classified information with sensitive materials such as money and weapons
  • Warns against storing unclassified information in the container
  • Warns against unapproved modification of the container

Question 117

Question
In AA&E storage facilities, why must drainage structures be secured if they cross the fence line and meet certain size requirements?
Answer
  • To prevent rats from infesting the facility
  • To prevent anyone from crawling into the area
  • To prevent water from backing up into the facility

Question 118

Question
Unauthorized entrance into restricted areas is subject to prosecution.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 119

Question
Which is NOT approved for the open storage of classified information?
Answer
  • Storage closet
  • Secure room
  • Vault

Question 120

Question
Which DoD-mandated practice reduces protection, storage, and inventory costs?
Answer
  • Consolidate AA&E storage facilities
  • Categorize and store AA&E by security risk categories
  • Demilitarize/dispose of obsolete and unserviceable AA&E

Question 121

Question
You can find construction standards for vaults and secure rooms in DoD facilities by reviewing _________________.
Answer
  • the NISPOM
  • ICS 705
  • DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, Information Security Program

Question 122

Question
DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, Information Security Program Which of the following statements is true about locks and keys for security containers?
Answer
  • Keys may be stored in your desk drawer as long as it locks.
  • Key-operated locks may not be used on storage containers securing classified material.
  • Locks and keys should be afforded the same level of protection as the material or information being secured.

Question 123

Question
Certain non-GSA-approved security containers are approved for storage of classified information in the DoD.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 124

Question
The design goal for an AA&E storage facility is that is must meet or exceed 10 minutes of resistance to _________________ entry.
Answer
  • covert
  • surreptitious
  • forced

Question 125

Question
Why should you categorize, store, and protect AA&E by security risk categories?
Answer
  • To reduce overall protection costs
  • To save space
  • To identify obsolete AA&E

Question 126

Question
Storage containers and facilities protect valuable, sensitive, and classified information by ________________.
Answer
  • consolidating no longer needed classified information
  • delaying unauthorized entry
  • preventing all unauthorized entry

Question 127

Question
If you need to know the manufacture date of a GSA-approved container, on which label would you find that information?
Answer
  • Number label
  • GSA-approved label
  • Warning label
  • Test certification label
  • Container identification label

Question 128

Question
Which of these statements is true about storage of Confidential information?
Answer
  • Supplemental protection is not normally required when storing Confidential information in an approved storage container.
  • Supplemental protection is always required when storing Confidential information regardless of which storage container is used.
  • Supplemental protection is usually required when storing Confidential information in a secure room.

Question 129

Question
Storage containers and facilities are not only important to our national security, but also to the safety of the general public.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 130

Question
For AA&E SRC III & IV, if no IDS is present Security Force checks during non-duty hours is required.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 131

Question
Storage containers or facilities will always provide enough protection for certain types of information or material on their own.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 132

Question
To store classified information, you may only use Class V or Class VI GSA-approved containers as the other classes of containers may no longer be used.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 133

Question
What is considered an additional measure for AA&E storage?
Answer
  • IDS
  • Communications
  • CCTV
  • Security Forces

Question 134

Question
There are certain times when you must change the combination on locks securing classified information. Which of the following is not a time when you must change the combination?
Answer
  • When the container is taken out of service
  • When the container or lock has been subject to possible compromise
  • When anyone with knowledge of the combination no longer requires access
  • Prior to going on extended leave

Question 135

Question
Which group uses the same set of storage requirements based on security risk categories?
Answer
  • Arms and ammunition
  • Arms and explosives
  • Ammunition and explosives

Question 136

Question
What items can a Nuclear Storage Facility store?
Answer
  • Nothing
  • Weapons
  • Precious metals
  • Money

Question 137

Question
Perimeter lighting in AA&E storage facilities is _________________________.
Answer
  • Determined by DoD Components
  • A good best practice
  • Required

Question 138

Question
Which of these statements is true about storage of Secret information?
Answer
  • Supplemental protection is not required when storing Secret information in a vault.
  • Supplemental protection is always required when storing Secret information.
  • Supplemental protection is never required when storing Secret information in a secure room.

Question 139

Question
What do the classes of GSA-approved containers represent?
Answer
  • Which ones are approved for the storage of classified information
  • The types of sensitive material for which each container is approved
  • Varying degrees of protection against different types of unauthorized entry

Question 140

Question
Who uses SCIFs?
Answer
  • The intelligence community
  • Only those who have a Top Secret clearance
  • Anyone who stores classified information

Question 141

Question
If you needed to find information on physical security standards for SCIFs, which reference would you consult?
Answer
  • ICD 705
  • The NISPOM
  • DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4

Question 142

Question
For storage of classified you may use which GSA-approved containers?
Answer
  • Only containers with black labels
  • Containers with any GSA-approved label
  • Only containers with red labels

Question 143

Question
Which of the following is an example of a locking device?
Answer
  • Bolt
  • Cylinder
  • Key

Question 144

Question
You are considering locking solutions for your facility. When assessing the life safety aspect of the solution, which of the following must be considered?
Answer
  • fire alarms on doors
  • keeping intruders out
  • emergency exit from a locked door

Question 145

Question
The use of a master key system is not acceptable in ____________.
Answer
  • barracks
  • general office areas
  • secure areas

Question 146

Question
Which of the following must you do when opening an electromechanical lock such as the X-07, X-08, X-09, and X-10?
Answer
  • Count the number of dial rotations in between each number in the combination.
  • Turn the dial and stop it when you see the correct number displayed on the LCD.

Question 147

Question
All locks consist of three components, one of which is an operating mechanism. Which of the following is NOT one of the other two components?
Answer
  • Locking device
  • Switching device
  • Securing device

Question 148

Question
Which of the following should you do before changing a combination?
Answer
  • Try the combination three times
  • Call your FSO
  • Lock drawer in open position

Question 149

Question
The lock you are using has an LCD rather than a dial with imprinted numbers. You are using _______________________.
Answer
  • an electromechanical combination lock
  • a combination padlock
  • a mechanical combination lock

Question 150

Question
Under Federal Specification FFL-2937, only the S&G 2740 is approved for use as a mechanical combination lock.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 151

Question
Which of the following is not a locking device for a key-operated lock?
Answer
  • Bolt
  • Pin
  • Latch

Question 152

Question
Which type of cylinder provides a locking solution that minimizes the rekeying burden?
Answer
  • Rim cylinder
  • Interchangeable core cylinder
  • Mortise cylinder

Question 153

Question
When assessing the life safety aspect of a locking solution for a facility door, which of the following must be considered?
Answer
  • The door must be locked to prevent unauthorized entry, but allow those inside to exit through the door without unlocking it.
  • The door must be locked to prevent unauthorized entry and exit.
  • The door must be unlocked so that those inside can exit without having to unlock the door.

Question 154

Question
RIsk Management is defined as the process of selecting and implemeting ________________________ to achieve an acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.
Answer
  • Assets
  • Countermeasures
  • Procedures
  • Threats

Question 155

Question
Select the correct order of steps in the Risk Management Process.
Answer
  • Identify Assets, Identify Threats, Assess Vulnerabilities, Assess Risks, Determine Countermeasures
  • Identify Threats, Assess Vulnerabilities, Identify Assets, Determine Countermeasures, Assess Risks
  • Assess Vulnerabilities, Identify Assets, Determine Countermeasures, Identify Threats, Assess RIsks
  • Determine Countermeasures, Assess RIsks, Assess Vulnerabilities, Identify Assets, Identify Threats

Question 156

Question
A key and lock custodian should change or rotate locks at least _____________.
Answer
  • monthly
  • annually
  • quarterly

Question 157

Question
Which of the following statements is true?
Answer
  • You may not change a combination without a commercial locksmith.
  • You may never allow a commercial locksmith to change your combination.
  • You may allow a commercial locksmith to change your combination under certain circumstances.

Question 158

Question
Susan Johnson knows the combination to a security container and Susan lost her clearance today, but she was not terminated from her job. What must happen?
Answer
  • The combination on that security container must be changed.
  • Nothing must happen. Susan knows she’s no longer authorized and will not access the storage container.
  • The security container must be replaced.

Question 159

Question
Which electromechanical lock uses battery power?
Answer
  • S&G 2740B
  • X-10
  • X-08

Question 160

Question
Which of the following is the purpose of a lock’s switching device?
Answer
  • To allow or deny entry into a container or area
  • To authorize the locking device to open
  • To keep the area or container secured

Question 161

Question
You need to decide what type of locking system to use for a storage closet. The closet does not hold classified or sensitive information, but you want to deter entry. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?
Answer
  • A padlock
  • A built-in lock

Question 162

Question
The two primary types of locks used within DoD are ___________ and key locks.
Answer
  • Biometric
  • Encoded
  • Voice activated
  • Combination

Question 163

Question
Which statement best describes the relationship between a locking solution’s level of protection and its cost and labor effort?
Answer
  • Locking solutions do not have a correlation between level of protection and cost and labor effort; it simply depends on the specific solution.
  • Locking solutions that provide a higher level of protection are more costly, but less labor-intensive.
  • Locking solutions that provide a higher level of protection are more costly and labor-intensive.

Question 164

Question
Using birth dates when changing combination numbers is acceptable as long as you don’t use your own.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 165

Question
Pin tumblers are most commonly employed on _______ locks?
Answer
  • combination
  • tubular
  • cylinder

Question 166

Question
What is not a responsibility of the Key Custodian?
Answer
  • Audit Keys monthly
  • Change or rotate locks quarterly
  • Audit Locks monthly
  • Keep key control register

Question 167

Question
Which of the following is the switching device for a key-operated lock?
Answer
  • bolt
  • cylinder
  • key

Question 168

Question
Which of the following is a disadvantage to using a master key system?
Answer
  • The cost to re-key all of the locks in the system.
  • It is harder to pick the locks.
  • It is harder to copy the locks.

Question 169

Question
The S&G 2937 lock is an example of which type of combination lock?
Answer
  • mechanical
  • padlock
  • electromechanical built-in

Question 170

Question
Many building codes require a facility’s exit doors to contain which of the following devices?
Answer
  • An access card
  • Emergency egress hardware
  • A padlock

Question 171

Question
You are making a decision about the locking system to be used in a bulk storage area that contains classified information. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?
Answer
  • A built-in lock
  • An approved padlock

Question 172

Question
You need to review the requirements that electromechanical locks meet. Which of the following specifications should you reference?
Answer
  • Federal Specification FF-L-2740B
  • Federal Specification FF-P-110
  • Federal Specification FF-L-2937

Question 173

Question
Which of the following is authorized by the DoD for securing conventional arms, ammunition, and explosives (AA&E)?
Answer
  • X-10 lock
  • Combination padlock
  • S&G 833C

Question 174

Question
You need to secure classified information. Which of these locks could you use?
Answer
  • X-10 electromechanical lock
  • S&G 2740B
  • S&G 8077 padlock
  • All of these locks

Question 175

Question
In the Risk Management Process, Assets can be assigned to each of the following categories:
Answer
  • Information
  • Activities and Operations
  • Security
  • People

Question 176

Question
Which of the following are undesirable events that can adversely affect an asset?
Answer
  • Access controls
  • Loss of classified documents
  • Terrorist bombing
  • Unauthorized access to sensitive computer files

Question 177

Question
In the Risk Management Process, a _____________ rating indicates that a compromise to assets would have serious consequences resulting in loss of classified or highly sensitive data that could impair operations affecting nation interest for a limited period of time
Answer
  • Medium
  • Low
  • High
  • Critical

Question 178

Question
Which of the following are examples of threats?
Answer
  • Terrorists
  • Insiders
  • Natural Disasters
  • All of the above

Question 179

Question
A threat may include which of the following?
Answer
  • The intention and capability of an adversary to undertake detrimental action against an asset owners interest.
  • Potential vulnerabilities related to specific assets and their undesirable actions.
  • Any indication, or event with the potential to cause loss or damage to an asset.

Question 180

Question
Which of the following are general areas of potential vulnerabilities?
Answer
  • Operational
  • Facility
  • Security
  • Human
  • Information

Question 181

Question
Compute this Risk Assessment formula: Risk = Impact x (Threat x Vulnerability) Impact = 75 Threat = 0.6 Vulnerability = 0.5
Answer
  • 225
  • 75.1
  • 22.5
  • 738

Question 182

Question
Which of the following are categories of countermeasures in the Risk Management Process?
Answer
  • Security
  • Manpower
  • Procedures
  • Equipment

Question 183

Question
Risk Management is the process of selecting and implementing security countermeasures to achieve an acceptable level of risk at any cost.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 184

Question
Capability refers to an adversary's ability to act as a potential threat.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 185

Question
What common vulnerability areas might an adversary exploit?
Answer
  • Assets at risk of visual observation
  • Information leaks
  • Physically stored equipment
  • All of the above

Question 186

Question
Wireless computer networks are an example of a vulnerability in which category?
Answer
  • Human
  • Operational
  • Informational
  • Facility
  • Equipment

Question 187

Question
Which property control systems are an example of a vulnerability in which category?
Answer
  • Human
  • Operational
  • Informational
  • Facility
  • Equipment

Question 188

Question
Which of the following are important roles of the NISP in Continuous Monitoring?
Answer
  • to establish organizational business practices
  • to ensure that cleared industry safeguards classified information and information systems
  • to protect critical assets
  • to thwart foreign adversaries and insider threats to information systems

Question 189

Question
This guidance requires that individuals' actions on a classified contractor information system be auditable.
Answer
  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
  • National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication (NIST SP)
  • DoD Policy and Guidance

Question 190

Question
These policies and guidance establishes the requirement for a continuous and integrated capability to monitor and audit for threats and vulnerabilities from internal and external sources.
Answer
  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
  • National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication (NIST SP)
  • DoD Policy and Guidance

Question 191

Question
This publication provides detailed guidance on the development and implementation of an Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) program and security-focused configuration management.
Answer
  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
  • National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication (NIST SP)
  • DoD Policy and Guidance

Question 192

Question
Which of the following identify how the RMF supports risk management?
Answer
  • The RMF process ensures that business process decisions can override user information system concerns.
  • The RMF process provides a flexible approach with decision-making at tier 3.
  • The RMF process ensures traceability and transparency across all levels of the organization,
  • The RMF process emphasizes continuous monitoring and timely correction of deficiencies,

Question 193

Question
An Information Systems Owner (ISO) categorizes systems at this RMF level:
Answer
  • Tier 1
  • Tier 2
  • Tier 3

Question 194

Question
The Program Manager/System Manager (PM/SM) enforces RMF authorizations decisions at this level:
Answer
  • Tier 1
  • Tier 2
  • Tier 3

Question 195

Question
ISCM strategy at this level is focused on the controls that address the establishment and management of the organization's information security program, including establishing the minimum frequency with which each security control or metric is to be assessed or monitored.
Answer
  • Tier 1
  • Tier 2
  • Tier 3

Question 196

Question
ISCM strategy at this level is focused on high-level information security governance policy as it relates to risk to the organization as a whole, to its core missions, and to its business functions.
Answer
  • Tier 1
  • Tier 2
  • Tier 3
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