Copy and Edit

SFPC 4

Description

Security
Arthur Casto
Quiz by Arthur Casto, updated more than 1 year ago
Arthur Casto
Created by Arthur Casto over 6 years ago
10693
3
0

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
ISCM strategy at this level is focused on ensuring that all system-level security controls are implemented correctly, operate as intended, produce the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system, and continue to be effective over time.
Answer
  • Tier 1
  • Tier 2
  • Tier 3

Question 2

Question
Which of the following are security-focused configuration management (SecCM) roles in risk management?
Answer
  • Ensuring that adjustments to the system configuration do not adversely affect the security of the information system
  • Establishing configuration baselines and tracking, controlling, and managing aspects of business development
  • Ensuring that adjustments to the system configuration do not adversely affect the organizations operations
  • Establishing a firm schedule for security patch updates every six months

Question 3

Question
This security Configuration Management (CM) control includes physical and logical access controls and prevents the installation of software and firmware unless verified with an approved certificate.
Answer
  • Configuration Change Control
  • Access Restrictions for Change
  • Configuration Settings
  • Least Functionality
  • Software Usage Restrictions
  • User-Installed Software

Question 4

Question
This security Configuration Management (CM) control ensures that software use complies with contract agreements and copyright laws, tracks usage, and is not used for unauthorized distribution, display, performance, or reproduction.
Answer
  • Configuration Change Control
  • Access Restrictions for Change
  • Configuration Settings
  • Least Functionality
  • Software Usage Restrictions
  • User-Installed Software

Question 5

Question
This security Configuration Management (CM) control involves the systematic proposal, justification, implementation, testing, review, and disposition of changes to the systems, including system upgrades and modifications.
Answer
  • Configuration Change Control
  • Access Restrictions for Change
  • Configurations Settings
  • Least Functionality
  • Software Usage Restrictions
  • User-Installed Software

Question 6

Question
This security Configuration Management (CM) control applies to the parameters that can be changed in hardware, software, or firmware components that affect the security posture and/or funtionality of the system, including registry settings, account/directory permission setting, and settings for functions, ports and protocols.
Answer
  • Configuration Change Control
  • Access Restrictions for Change
  • Configuration Settings
  • Least Functionality
  • Software Usage Restrictions
  • User-Installed Software

Question 7

Question
Which of the following describes the role of the National Industrial Security Program (NISP) in continuous monitoring?
Answer
  • The NISP ensures that requirements for continuous monitoring are undertaken by the government before any classified work may begin
  • The NISP ensures the partnership between the federal government and private industry places the burden of risk on the subcontractors.
  • The NISP ensures that restrictions on continuous monitoring activities are in place before any classified work may begin.
  • The NISP ensures that monitoring requirements, restrictions, and safeguards that industry must follow are in place before any classified work may begin.

Question 8

Question
Which of the following describes the relationship between configuration management controls and continuous monitoring?
Answer
  • The configuration management process ensures that patches are applied on systems once a year as a continuous monitoring activity.
  • Implementing information system changes almost always results in some adjustment to the system configuration that requires continuous monitoring of security controls.
  • The configuration management process ensures that a schedule for continuous monitoring is in place for anticipated future interconnected systems.

Question 9

Question
Which of the following is a role of risk management in continuous monitoring?
Answer
  • Risk management in continuous monitoring ensures that information security solutions are broad-based, consensus-driven, and address the ongoing needs of and risks to the government and industry.
  • Cybersecurity requirements are managed through the risk management framework while continuous monitoring activities address password changes and Help Desk tasks.
  • Risk management facilitates an organization-wide vision for security but does not impact continuous monitoring daily and weekly activities.

Question 10

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following describe continuous monitoring capabilities for detecting threats and mitigating vulnerabilities?
Answer
  • Conducting frequent audits
  • Not relying on firewalls to protect against all attacks
  • Disseminating a fillable form to information system owners to log suspicious activity
  • Reporting intrusion attempts

Question 11

Question
Which of the following describes how the Information System Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) strategy supports the Tier 2 MISSION/BUSINESS PROCESSES approach to risk management?
Answer
  • Tier 2 ISCM strategies focus on ensuring that all system-level security controls are implemented correctly, operate as intended, produce the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system, and continue to be effective over time.
  • Tier 2 ISCM strategies focus on the controls that address the establishment and management of the organization’s information security program, including establishing the minimum frequency with which each security control or metric is to be assessed or monitored.
  • Tier 2 ISCM strategies focus on high-level information security governance policy as it relates to risk to the organization as a whole, to its core missions, and to its business functions.

Question 12

Question
Which of the following is an example of how counterintelligence and cybersecurity personnel support continuous monitoring?
Answer
  • Counterintelligence and cybersecurity personnel test automated tools and make recommendations to industry and DoD organizations.
  • Through aggregation and analysis of Suspicious Network Activity via cyber intrusion, viruses, malware, backdoor attacks, acquisition of user names and passwords, and similar targeting, the DSS CI Directorate produces and disseminates reports on trends in cyberattacks and espionage.

Question 13

Question
Which of the following describes how audit logs support continuous monitoring?
Answer
  • Security auditing is a fundamental activity in continuous monitoring in order to schedule automatic security maintenance.
  • Security auditing is a fundamental activity in continuous monitoring in order to ensure access restriction controls are in place on an information system.
  • Security auditing is a fundamental activity in continuous monitoring in order to determine what activities occurred and which user or process was responsible for them on an information system.

Question 14

Question
Which of the following identifies how the Risk Management Framework (RMF) supports risk management?
Answer
  • The RMF process provides a flexible approach with decision-making at Tier 3.
  • The RMF process ensures that business process decisions can override user information system concerns.
  • The RMF process emphasizes continuous monitoring and timely correction of deficiencies.

Question 15

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are key information provided in a security audit trail analysis?
Answer
  • Budgeting and cost controls not operating as intended
  • Unsuccessful accesses to security-relevant objects and directories
  • Successful and unsuccessful logons/logoffs
  • Denial of access for excessive logon attempts

Question 16

Question
Which of the following fundamental concepts does continuous monitoring support that means DoD information technology is managed to minimize shared risk by ensuring the security posture of one system is not undermined by vulnerabilities of interconnected systems?
Answer
  • Keep up-to-date inventories
  • Interoperability and operational reciprocity
  • Force users to use encryption

Question 17

Question
Which of the following ensures that a process is in place for authorized users to report all cybersecurity-related events and potential threats and vulnerabilities and initiates protective or corrective measures when a cybersecurity incident or vulnerability is discovered?
Answer
  • Program Manager/System Manager
  • Information System Owner
  • Information System Security Officer
  • User Representative

Question 18

Question
Which of the following are the initial steps for finding the Security Event Log on a computer running Windows 7?
Answer
  • Select Control Panel from the Windows Start menu and then select the Security Event Log
  • Select Control Panel from the Windows Start menu and then select Windows Log
  • Select Control Panel from the Windows Start menu and then select the Administrative Tools link
  • Select Control Panel from the Windows Start menu and then select the System and Security link

Question 19

Question
During which of the following Risk Management Framework steps does continuous monitoring take place?
Answer
  • Step 1, categorize the system
  • Step 4, assess the controls
  • Step 5, authorize the information system
  • Step 6, monitor the security controls

Question 20

Question
Which of the following describes the role of counterintelligence and cybersecurity in identifying threats to DoD information systems?
Answer
  • Counterintelligence and cybersecurity personnel ensure the contractor’s Information System Security Manager checks for unusual activity on a classified system at least once during the contract period of performance.
  • Counterintelligence and cybersecurity personnel share and report unauthorized accesses attempts, denial of service attacks, exfiltrated data, and other threats/vulnerabilities.
  • Counterintelligence and cybersecurity personnel ensure the contractor’s Information System Security Officer checks for unusual activity on a classified system at least once during the contract period of performance.

Question 21

Question
Given the information system continuous monitoring (ISCM) process, in which step is security-related information required for metrics, assessments, and reporting collected and, where possible, the collection, analysis, and reporting of data is automated?
Answer
  • Step 1: Define an ISCM strategy
  • Step 2: Establish an ISCM program
  • Step 3: Implement an ISCM program
  • Step 4: Analyze data and report findings
  • Step 5: Respond to findings
  • Step 6: Review and update the monitoring program

Question 22

Question
Which of the following configuration management controls supporting continuous monitoring activities focuses on configuring the IS to provide only essential capabilities to limit risk and to prevent unauthorized connection of devices, unauthorized transfer of information, or unauthorized tunneling?
Answer
  • Baseline Configuration
  • Least Functionality
  • Software Usage Restrictions
  • Information System Component Inventory

Question 23

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are requirements for audits as outlined in the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?
Answer
  • Audit trail contents must be protected against unauthorized access, modification, or deletion.
  • Audit trail analysis and reporting of security events must be performed annually.
  • Audit trail contents should be made accessible to the information system user upon written request.
  • Audit trail analysis and reporting of security events must be performed at least weekly.

Question 24

Question
Which of the following describes the how the patch management process integrates with security-focused configuration management (SecCM)?
Answer
  • The patch management process integrates with SecCM once a year when system maintenance is performed.
  • The patch management process integrates with SecCM on a regular basis when restrictions must be lifted so that all system users can download software updates.
  • The patch management process integrates with SecCM when performing a Security Impact Analysis to determine whether unanticipated effects from a patch resulted in a change to existing security controls.

Question 25

Question
The patch management process integrates with SecCM when performing a Security Impact Analysis to determine whether unanticipated effects from a patch resulted in a change to existing security controls.
Answer
  • Phase 1: Planning
  • Phase 2: Identifying and Implementing Configurations
  • Phase 3: Controlling Configuration Changes
  • Phase 4: Monitoring

Question 26

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are sources of information system change that security-focused configuration management (SecCM) addresses to mitigate risk?
Answer
  • New, enhanced, corrected, or updated hardware and software capabilities
  • Changing business functions
  • Help Desk tickets
  • Patches for correcting software flaws and other errors to existing components
  • New security threats

Question 27

Question
Which of the following requires that individual’s actions on an information system be auditable?
Answer
  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM), Chapter 1.
  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM), Chapter 3.
  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM), Chapter 5.
  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM), Chapter 8.

Question 28

Question
At what tier of the Risk Management Framework does continuous monitoring take place?
Answer
  • Tier 1 - the Organization level
  • Tier 2 - the Mission/Business Process level
  • Tier 3 - the Information System level

Question 29

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following describe how audit logs support continuous monitoring?
Answer
  • Audit logs are essential in continuous monitoring because they record system activity, application processes, and user activity.
  • Audit logs are essential in continuous monitoring because they will automatically defragment an information system to increase its speed and response time to user input.
  • Audit logs are essential in continuous monitoring because they can be used to detect security violations, performance problems, and flaws in applications.

Question 30

Question
Which of the following configuration management controls supporting continuous monitoring activities focuses on physical and logical access controls, workflow automation, media libraries, abstract layers, and change windows and supports auditing of the enforcement actions?
Answer
  • Least Functionality
  • User-Installed Software
  • Baseline Configuration
  • Access Restrictions for Change

Question 31

Question
Which of the following describes how the Information System Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) strategy supports the Tier 1 ORGANIZATION approach to risk management?
Answer
  • Tier 1 ISCM strategies focus on assessing and monitoring hybrid and common controls implemented at the system level.
  • Tier 1 ISCM strategies focus on how the organization plans to assess, respond to, and monitor risk as well as the oversight required to ensure that the risk management strategy is effective.
  • Tier 1 ISCM strategies focus on how ensuring that all system-level security controls (technical, operational, and management controls) are implemented correctly and operate as intended.

Question 32

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are requirements for audits as outlined in the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?
Answer
  • Audit trail contents must be protected against unauthorized access, modification, or deletion.
  • Audit trail contents should be made accessible to the information system user upon written request.
  • Audit records must address individual accountability with unique identification and periodic testing of the security posture by the ISSO or ISSM.

Question 33

Question
Which of the following identifies how the Risk Management Framework (RMF) supports risk management?
Answer
  • The RMF process provides a flexible approach to decision-making at Tier 3.
  • The RMF process ensures traceability and transparency across all levels of the organization.
  • The RMF process ensures that business process decisions can override user information system concerns.

Question 34

Question
Which of the following is a risk management role in continuous monitoring (CM)?
Answer
  • Determining whether a contractor should be allowed to monitor and assess their classified network activity.
  • Determining whether a contractor audit trail is a necessary indicator cyber defense
  • Addressing risks from an information system and platform information technology system perspective to ensure a process for analyzing threats and vulnerabilities is in place, defining the impact, and identifying countermeasures.

Question 35

Question
Which of the following Event Viewer Logs provides an audit of a user’s log-on events and are classified as successful or failed attempts?
Answer
  • Security event log
  • Setup event log
  • System event log
  • Forwarded event log

Question 36

Question
Which of the following describes the how the patch management process integrates with security-focused configuration management (SecCM)?
Answer
  • The patch management process integrates with SecCM on a regular basis when restrictions must be lifted so that all system users can download software updates.
  • The patch management process integrates with SecCM once a year when system maintenance is performed.
  • The patch management process integrates with SecCM when updating the baseline configuration to the current patch level and then testing and approving patches as part of the configuration change control process.

Question 37

Question
Which of the following describes the relationship between configuration management controls and continuous monitoring?
Answer
  • A well-defined configuration management process that integrates continuous monitoring ensures a firm schedule for security patch updates once a year.
  • A well-defined configuration management process that integrates continuous monitoring ensures the system baseline will not change.
  • A well-defined configuration management process that integrates continuous monitoring ensures that the required adjustments to the system configuration do not adversely affect the security of the information system.

Question 38

Question
Which of the following describes continuous monitoring capabilities for detecting threats and mitigating vulnerabilities?
Answer
  • Investigation of the reasoning behind access restrictions at all levels of the organization.
  • Investigation into events of unauthorized downloads or uploads of sensitive data; unexplained storage of encrypted data; and unauthorized use of removable media or other transfer devices.
  • Investigation into physical security breaches at the facility.

Question 39

Question
Which of the following describes continuous monitoring supports interoperability, operational resilience, and operational reciprocity?
Answer
  • Continuous monitoring capabilities can detect transmission of information to foreign IP addresses but cannot determine whether classification markings have been removed.
  • Continuous monitoring capabilities enable security professionals to make quick adjustments to access restriction controls.
  • Continuous monitoring capabilities and tools ensure cybersecurity products operate in a net-centric manner to enhance the exchange of data and shared security policies.

Question 40

Question
Which of the following would not be considered a possible indicator of recruitment?
Answer
  • Offer of financial assistance by a foreign national or stranger
  • Unreported or frequent foreign travel
  • Termination notice to go work for a competing company
  • Contact with an individual who is suspected of being associated with foreign intelligence

Question 41

Question
An unwitting insider is best described as:
Answer
  • a person who works overtime
  • a person with access to information who unknowingly reveals more than they should to persons without a need to know
  • a person with access to multiple Special Access Programs
  • a person who discusses their job with co-workers within the Sensitive Compartmented Information Facility (SCIF)

Question 42

Question
An insider threat could pose a threat to:
Answer
  • National security
  • Your job
  • Your company’s proprietary and research information
  • All of the above

Question 43

Question
Failure to report suspicious behaviors or possible insider threat indicators could result in punitive or disciplinary actions.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 44

Question
Exploitable weaknesses considered by a Foreign Intelligence Service when considering a source for recruitment may include:
Answer
  • Drugs or alcohol
  • Gambling
  • Adultery
  • Financial problems
  • All of the above

Question 45

Question
Known or suspected espionage should always be reported to the FBI.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 46

Question
Removing classification markings from a document is not necessarily considered a possible insider threat indicator and should not be reported to the security office unless there are other suspicious behaviors displayed.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 47

Question
If a coworker seeks additional information outside the scope of his or her responsibility, this is always a sign that the individual is an insider threat.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 48

Question
Elicitation is an effective means of information collection by an insider. When done well, elicitation can seem like simple small talk.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 49

Question
A coworker, who may be of Middle Eastern descent and often speaks in Farsi from his work telephone, is considered suspicious behavior and should always be reported to the security officer.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 50

Question
Collection methods of operation frequently used by Foreign Intelligence Entities to collect information from DoD on the critical technology being produced within the cleared defense contractor facilities we support include:
Answer
  • Unsolicited requests for information
  • Solicitation and marketing of services
  • Cyber Attacks
  • International conventions, seminars, and exhibits
  • All of the above

Question 51

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are examples of a “Security Anomaly” and should be reported?
Answer
  • Foreign officials claim they already knew about a program after the program was made public
  • Foreign officials reveal details they should not have known
  • An adversary conducts activities with precision that indicates prior knowledge
  • Media reports on current operations in the Middle East

Question 52

Question
To be an “Insider Threat” a person MUST knowingly cause malicious damage to their organization.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 53

Question
Personnel who fail to report CI Activities of concern as outlined in Enclosure 4 of DoD Directive 5240.06 are subject to appropriate disciplinary action under regulations.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 54

Question
The following actions can potentially reduce or compromise your network security and place in jeopardy the lives of our men and women:
Answer
  • Hacking
  • Inputting falsified corrupted data
  • Phishing
  • Introducing malicious code such as a virus, logic, or Trojan horse
  • All of the above

Question 55

Question
Cyber Vulnerabilities to DoD Systems may include:
Answer
  • Illegal downloads
  • Viruses
  • Weak passwords
  • Disgruntled or Co-opted employee
  • All of the above

Question 56

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. To minimize the ability of an Insider Threat to go undetected, you and your coworkers must:
Answer
  • Report all security infractions, violations, or suspicious activity to your supervisor and the Office of Security
  • Never log onto your computer network outside of normal working hours
  • Follow all security rules and regulations
  • Never gossip about any of your coworkers
  • Show up to work on time every day

Question 57

Question
DoD personnel who suspect a coworker of possible espionage should:
Answer
  • Call the FBI Hot Line
  • Report directly to your CI or Security Office
  • Start recording their conversations to gather evidence
  • Discuss situation with others to get second opinion

Question 58

Question
An adversary uses technical countermeasures to block a previously undisclosed or classified U.S. intercept technology. This is an example of:
Answer
  • An unidentified press release
  • A lucky guess
  • A paid source
  • A Security Anomaly

Question 59

Question
Offers or Invitations for cultural exchanges, individual-to-individual exchanges, or ambassador programs are indicators of this collection method:
Answer
  • Solicitation and Marketing of Services
  • International conventions, seminars, and exhibits
  • Elicitation
  • Visits to Department of Defense (DoD) or contractor facilities

Question 60

Question
This is used to collect documentation regarding FOCI, KMP Lists, SF-328 and other facility documents to the DSS.
Answer
  • Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
  • Electronic Facility Clearance (e-FCL) System
  • Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)
  • Electronic Questionnaires for Investigations Processing (e-QIP)

Question 61

Question
This is used by DSS to document Industrial security actions regarding contractor facilities.
Answer
  • Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
  • Electronic Facility Clearance (e-FCL) System
  • Joint Personnel Adjudicatoin System (JPAS)
  • Electronic Questionnaires for Investigations Processing (e-QIP)

Question 62

Question
Facility M has a facility security clearance at the Confidential level. It has not performed work on an active classified contract in 12 months but expects to begin performance of work on a classified contract next month. What action needs to be taken regarding its facility security clearance?
Answer
  • It should be downgraded
  • It should be revoked
  • It should be terminated
  • No action is necessary

Question 63

Question
In the case of a multiple facility organization, which facility should complete the SF-328?
Answer
  • The branch facility
  • Both the home office facility and the branch facility
  • The home office facility

Question 64

Question
Facility U has a facility security clearance at the Secret level. It has not performed work on an active classified contract in 12 months and does not expect to perform work on a classified contract in the near future. What action needs to be taken regarding its facility security clearance?
Answer
  • It should be revoked
  • It should be downgraded
  • It should be administratively terminated
  • No action is necessary

Question 65

Question
As long as a contractor has a bona fide classified procurement need, it can make the request for its own facility security clearance.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 66

Question
A business comprised of two separate and distinct companies that have formed a relationship where one company establishes or takes control of a smaller company is a _____.
Answer
  • Limited liability company
  • Multiple facility organization
  • Parent-Subsidiary
  • Partnership

Question 67

Question
Who evaluates information related to a prospective contractor facility?
Answer
  • Government Contracting Activity
  • Industrial Security Representative
  • PSMO-I

Question 68

Question
In addition to completing an SF-86, an individual being investigated for a personnel security clearance must also submit which form?
Answer
  • SF-312
  • Exclusion resolution
  • Fingerprint card
  • SF-328

Question 69

Question
A DD Form 441-1 is required to be executed for _____.
Answer
  • A division or branch within a multiple facility organization
  • A partnership
  • A limited liability corporation
  • A cleared parent company

Question 70

Question
Whose CAGE code should be provided in the sponsorship letter?
Answer
  • The government contracting activity sponsoring the facility security clearance request
  • There is no need to provide a CAGE code for any party in the sponsorship letter
  • The cleared prime contractor sponsoring the facility security clearance request and the uncleared contractor being sponsored, if it has one

Question 71

Question
A business that has one or more owners, usually known as members, which may be individuals or corporations, is a _____.
Answer
  • Sole proprietorship
  • Corporation
  • Limited liability company

Question 72

Question
If the sponsor is a cleared prime contractor, a copy of which document should be enclosed with the sponsorship letter?
Answer
  • KMP List
  • DD Form 441
  • DD Form 254

Question 73

Question
In a parent-subsidiary relationship where both the parent and the subsidiary require a facility security clearance, but only the subsidiary is required to store classified information, who must execute DD Form 441?
Answer
  • Only the subsidiary must execute DD Form 441.
  • Only the parent must execute DD Form 441.
  • Both the parent and the subsidiary must execute their own DD Form 441.

Question 74

Question
Which of the following is a secure website designed to facilitate the processing of standard investigative forms used when conducting background investigations?
Answer
  • JPAS
  • ISFD
  • e-QIP
  • e-FCL

Question 75

Question
Failure to submit paperwork for security clearance investigations for key management personnel in a timely manner may result in the discontinuance of the facility security clearance request process.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 76

Question
Why would an interim facility security clearance be granted instead of a final facility security clearance?
Answer
  • Because final eligibility determinations for all key management personnel have not yet been completed
  • Because all required documentation has not yet been completed
  • Because all FOCI factors have not yet been favorably adjudicated

Question 77

Question
When an uncleared parent with a cleared subsidiary does not require access to classified information, which of the following actions is required?
Answer
  • The parent must obtain a facility security clearance at a level equal to the level at which the subsidiary is cleared.
  • The parent will be formally excluded from all access to classified information.
  • No action is required.

Question 78

Question
The Facility Security Officer of a cleared contractor facility has recently retired. The new FSO is currently cleared but has no security experience. Does this need to be reported to the facility’s Industrial Security Representative as a change condition?
Answer
  • No, because the new FSO is already cleared, a report is not required
  • No, this does not need to be reported
  • Yes, this is a reportable change

Question 79

Question
Does being processed for a facility security clearance have a direct cost to the contractor?
Answer
  • No, the sponsoring activity is responsible for all costs associated with the facility security clearance process.
  • No, there is no direct cost to the contractor for being processed for a facility security clearance
  • Yes, the contractor must pay the government for services rendered during the facility security clearance request process.

Question 80

Question
A post office box is an acceptable address to include on the sponsorship letter for the uncleared contractor facility.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 81

Question
A contractor with a cleared facility recently sold some of its shares of stock, but the sale did not result in a change in majority ownership stakes. Does this need to be reported to the facility’s Industrial Security Representative as a change condition?
Answer
  • No, the sale of stocks is never a reportable change
  • No, this does not need to be reported
  • Yes, this is a reportable change

Question 82

Question
The evaluation of which of these identifies key management personnel?
Answer
  • Sponsorship Letter
  • Business structure
  • SF-328
  • DD Form 441

Question 83

Question
To be eligible for consideration for a facility security clearance, a contractor must be physically located within the U.S. or its territories.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 84

Question
Can a final facility security clearance be issued if all the key management personnel involved with the facility security clearance request process have not yet received final eligibility determinations for access to classified information?
Answer
  • No. All the involved key management personnel must have final personnel security clearance determinations in order for the facility to be issued a final facility security clearance.
  • Yes. A final facility security clearance may be issued as long as all the involved key management personnel have interim personnel security clearance determinations.
  • Yes. Personnel security clearance determinations for key management personnel are not required in order to be issued a facility security clearance.

Question 85

Question
_____ may terminate the DD Form 441 by written notice 30 days in advance of the requested termination.
Answer
  • The contractor
  • The government
  • Either the government or the contractor

Question 86

Question
Once a contractor has met all the eligibility requirements, which of the following are key evaluation areas examined when determining whether to issue a facility security clearance?
Answer
  • Sponsorship, bona fide classified procurement need, business structure
  • Legal entity organized under U.S. laws, company has reputation for integrity, FOCI factors sufficiently managed
  • Sponsorship, DD Form 441, key management personnel

Question 87

Question
Who works with a contractor facility to ensure that their security program meets NISP requirements?
Answer
  • Contract Officer
  • FCB Security Specialist
  • Industrial Security Representative

Question 88

Question
Within a multiple facility organization, only the home office facility is required to have a CAGE code.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 89

Question
Which of the following statements is true?
Answer
  • Invalidation of a facility security clearance does not prevent a contractor from receiving new contracts.
  • Invalidation of a facility security clearance is a final terminating action revoking all privileges associated with an active clearance.
  • Invalidation of a facility security clearance is an interim measure allowing a contractor to correct negative security circumstances.

Question 90

Question
Of the following assessments, which are used to help complete the threat assessment summary? (Select all that apply)
Answer
  • History assessment
  • Operations assessment
  • Intent assessment
  • Collection capabilities assessment

Question 91

Question
Poor tradecraft practices are an example of a/an ______ vulnerability.
Answer
  • Information
  • Operational
  • Equipment
  • Facility

Question 92

Question
Analyzing an asset in an unprotected state first and then analyzing the asset considering the current countermeasures is called ______ analysis.
Answer
  • Vulnerability
  • Risk
  • Threat
  • Regressive

Question 93

Question
When measuring an impact and assigning a value to an undesirable event, which one of the following SME interview questions will help guide you?
Answer
  • What undesirable events regarding a particular asset concern the asset owner?
  • Could significant damage to national security or loss/injury to human life occur as a result of this event?
  • What critical/valuable equipment is located at this site? Why is it critical or valuable?
  • Where are the assets located?

Question 94

Question
________________ is the least expensive countermeasure to implement?
Answer
  • Manpower
  • Equipment
  • Written Procedure

Question 95

Question
The ability of each existing countermeasure to prevent or minimize a specific type of attack defines what vulnerability criteria?
Answer
  • Quantity
  • Undesirable event
  • Effectiveness
  • Quality

Question 96

Question
One step in regressive analysis is reevaluating an asset’s vulnerabilities.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 97

Question
The fifth and final step in the risk management process is to determine countermeasure options. Which of the following is the goal of this step?
Answer
  • To identify potential countermeasures for reducing an asset’s vulnerabilities and overall risk to the asset
  • To identify the value of assets and the degree of impact if they are damaged or lost
  • To identify vulnerabilities

Question 98

Question
The criteria used to determine the level of vulnerability include which of the following? (Select all that apply)
Answer
  • Last testing of the vulnerability
  • Effectiveness of countermeasures
  • Quantity
  • Quality

Question 99

Question
After you’ve completed all other steps, what final chart would you use to summarize and record your information in order to get the total cost for all countermeasures?
Answer
  • Intent Assessment Chart
  • Collection Capability Assessment Chart
  • Threat Assessment Summary Chart
  • Countermeasure Analysis Chart

Question 100

Question
When performing a countermeasures cost benefit analysis, which two of the following are good questions to ask?
Answer
  • To what degree does the option delay, deter, detect, defend, or destroy?
  • Is the option available from several contractors?
  • How does the asset value compare to proposed cost of protection?
  • What are the methods an adversary might use to destroy an asset?

Question 101

Question
Criminal, terrorist, insider, and natural disasters are examples of categories of ______.
Answer
  • Threats
  • Vulnerabilities
  • Countermeasures
  • Assets

Question 102

Question
Persons , facilities, materials, information, and activities are categories of ______.
Answer
  • countermeasures
  • assets
  • vulnerabilities
  • threats

Question 103

Question
The smaller the risk area shared by assets, threats, and vulnerabilities, the higher the risk level.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 104

Question
One way to describe asset value is:
Answer
  • What is the potential for an event to take place?
  • What is the capability of a specific threat?
  • What is the impact of an undesirable event?
  • What is the level of weakness at the site?

Question 105

Question
Risk management is defined as the process of selecting and implementing ______ to achieve an acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.
Answer
  • countermeasures
  • procedures
  • assets
  • policies

Question 106

Question
When determining an adversary’s history, the fact that the adversary might attempt an attack at a foreseeable future event is irrelevant.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 107

Question
The time to implement and oversee the countermeasure, the time to prepare for its implementation, and any time required for follow-up and evaluation have no impact when determining the cost of a countermeasure.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 108

Question
Which of the following statements defines an adversary?
Answer
  • Intended plans that may pose a threat to an asset.
  • The identification of an asset’s threats.
  • Any individual, group, organization, or government that conducts activities, or has the intention and capability to conduct activities detrimental to assets.
  • Any indication, circumstance, or event with the potential to cause the loss of, or damage to an asset.

Question 109

Question
What is the risk rating of an asset with an impact of 10, a threat rating of .12 and a vulnerability rating of .40?
Answer
  • 32
  • 48
  • 1
  • 5

Question 110

Question
When determining an adversary’s capability, which of the following collection methods includes resources such as newspapers, internet, magazines, and conventions, FOIA requests, seminars, and exhibits?
Answer
  • IMINT
  • HUMINT
  • SIGINT
  • OSINT

Question 111

Question
You should use the intent, capability, and history charts to create the Threat Assessment Summary Chart.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 112

Question
You are the one who decides what constitutes an acceptable level of risk for an organization’s assets.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 113

Question
The formula R=I [T x V] is used for calculating a risk rating. What risk factors do R, I, T, and V represent?
Answer
  • return, impact, threat, vulnerability
  • risk, impact, threat, vulnerability
  • return, importance, threat, vulnerability
  • risk, importance, threat, vulnerability

Question 114

Question
There are six steps in the analytical risk management process. True or false?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 115

Question
When determining the cost associated with a loss, only monetary loss is considered in the risk management process. True or false?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 116

Question
An asset can be defined as anything that ______. (Select all that apply)
Answer
  • Has a weakness
  • Is of value
  • Requires protection

Question 117

Question
The five general areas open to potential asset vulnerabilities include: human, operational, information, facility, and equipment. True or false?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 118

Question
Which of the following is NOT a good interview question for determining an adversary’s history?
Answer
  • Has the adversary attacked or exploited assets and personnel before?
  • Does the adversary have the weapons or tools for exploiting or attacking an asset?
  • Has the adversary been suspected of attacking or exploiting assets?
  • Might some foreseeable event cause the adversary to attempt an attack in the future?

Question 119

Question
Different perspectives to any terrorist event include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • The terrorist perspective that feels killing innocent people is morally justified to achieve objectives.
  • The victim perspective that sees terrorist acts as criminal and immoral.
  • The military perspective that feels that all terrorist events are evil and warrant retaliatory action.
  • The general public perspective that either supports or opposes the terrorist causes.

Question 120

Question
A state-supported terrorist group operates:
Answer
  • As a recognized religion or radical offshoot
  • Independently, but receives some support from governments
  • Primarily by the support of a state or country
  • Autonomously, receiving no support from any governments

Question 121

Question
Which of the following is considered a common characteristic of terrorist groups?
Answer
  • Operating overtly
  • Being rurally based
  • Being highly mobile
  • Considering tactical success as mission success

Question 122

Question
Training conducted in a clandestine fashion at the cell level by members of the terrorist group within the targeted country is considered ______________________.
Answer
  • External training
  • Revolutionary training
  • Militaristic training
  • Internal training

Question 123

Question
Internal training
Answer
  • Having positive contact with the captor
  • Accepting the situation as not long-term since authorities will come to the rescue
  • Seeing the captor's human qualities

Question 124

Question
A dirty bomb ______________________. (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • Upon detonation will produce mass casualties but will not penetrate a building
  • Is used by terrorists to frighten people and make the land around the explosion unusable for a long period of time
  • Combines conventional explosives with radioactive materials

Question 125

Question
To minimize the insider threat, practice:
Answer
  • Awareness, Prevention, and Deterrence
  • Mitigation, Reaction, and Destruction
  • Detection, Protection, and Action

Question 126

Question
Which of the following statement(s) are true?
Answer
  • A Vulnerability Assessment should focus only on WMD.
  • It is an annual requirement to receive a Higher Headquarters Vulnerability Assessment.
  • The Commander uses a Vulnerability Assessment to determine the susceptibility of assets to attack from threats.
  • All of the above.

Question 127

Question
During a Risk Assessment, which element(s) must be considered to make well-informed decisions?
Answer
  • Vulnerability
  • Asset Criticality
  • Threat
  • All of the above

Question 128

Question
A typical AT program organization includes the following members: (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • DTRA
  • The ATO and the Installation Commander
  • Antiterrorism Executive Committee
  • The Threat Working Group

Question 129

Question
Security functions that must be performed for a physical security system to protect DoD assets include ______________________.
Answer
  • Threat delay
  • Threat detection
  • Threat response
  • All of the above

Question 130

Question
When placing vehicle barriers, consider __________________
Answer
  • Location
  • Aesthetics
  • Safety

Question 131

Question
Which of the following are examples of temporary barriers? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • Berms
  • Jersey barriers
  • Ropes

Question 132

Question
DoD AT Construction Standards: (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • Specify design criteria for incorporating threat-based AT requirements
  • Provide minimum construction requirements for new construction and major renovations
  • Mandate Services and/or Agencies establish AT guidelines for new construction to counter terrorism threat capabilities

Question 133

Question
An AT plan ______________________. (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • Is written from the Service or Agency level down to the Installation level for permanent operations or locations
  • Contains all of the specific measures that need to be taken in order to establish and maintain an AT program
  • Is incorporated in operation orders for temporary operations or exercises

Question 134

Question
Which paragraph of the AT plan lists the specific tasks for each subordinate unit?
Answer
  • Execution
  • Annexes
  • Situation
  • Mission

Question 135

Question
Which paragraph of the AT plan defines the requirements for supporting the AT Plan?
Answer
  • Execution
  • Annexes
  • Mission
  • Administration and Logistics

Question 136

Question
The ATO is ______________________. (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • Responsible for making decisions regarding requirement funding
  • Responsible for continuously documenting funding requirements
  • The expert within an organization for generating, prioritizing, and appropriately documenting AT requirements

Question 137

Question
Which funding category does a resource fall in if it is important to the mission, but has a low vulnerability?
Answer
  • Need to fund
  • Should fund
  • Must fund

Question 138

Question
Which of the following are reasons a future captor may have for selecting potential victims?
Answer
  • The amount of money the U.S. Government offers for hostages
  • The victims' nationality
  • The victims' value to their families
  • The victims' financial resources

Question 139

Question
Immediately upon capture, the victim must decide to resist the captor, escape the situation, or surrender and cooperate with the captor. Which of the following will influence the victim's decision?
Answer
  • The victim's self-defense and survival skills
  • The victim's personal wealth
  • The number of captors
  • Whether or not the captors are armed

Question 140

Question
A captor will exert control and dominance over a hostage by:
Answer
  • Confiscating a hostage's personal items, such as a watch or wallet
  • Isolating a hostage from any human contact
  • Providing a hostage with regular meals
  • Taking all of a hostage's life quality aids, such as glasses or hearing aids

Question 141

Question
Which of the following are symptoms that a hostage may be experiencing Stockholm syndrome?
Answer
  • Receiving insufficient nourishment
  • Perceiving the captor as a victim of circumstance versus an aggressor
  • Being belligerent towards the captor
  • Identifying with the captor

Question 142

Question
Which of the following may be reasons for a hostage situation ending with little to no harm to the hostage?
Answer
  • The hostages become combative with the captors.
  • Authorities may achieve a successful negotiation with the captors resulting in the release of the hostage.
  • Hostages remain uncooperative with the captors.

Question 143

Question
The anger and frustration hostage survivors experience may sometimes be directed toward the:
Answer
  • DoD
  • Rescuers
  • Themselves
  • U.S. Government

Question 144

Question
Training related to the Code of Conduct is conducted at different levels based on:
Answer
  • The amount of sensitive information the Service member has.
  • A potential captor's assessment of the Service member's usefulness.
  • The Service member's tenure in the military.
  • The Service member's susceptibility to capture.

Question 145

Question
Specific guidance for captured U.S. military personnel applies to situations in which they:
Answer
  • Have been released
  • Are on assignment
  • Have been captured
  • All of the above

Question 146

Question
What techniques should a victim use to try and avoid unnecessary violence during capture?
Answer
  • Hide materials indicating affiliation with the U.S. Government for leverage.
  • Resist panicking.
  • Anticipate the captor's efforts to create confusion.
  • Catch the captor off guard in hopes of escaping.

Question 147

Question
There are several techniques hostages can use to help them survive a hostage situation. They should:
Answer
  • Vary their voice levels so their captors do not hear them speaking.
  • Maintain a regular exercise routine.
  • Remain realistic about their situation and not make future plans for themselves.
  • Remain constantly alert for any sign of being rescued.

Question 148

Question
If a hostage senses or realizes a rescue attempt is imminent, the hostage should:
Answer
  • Prepare to escape the situation as soon as there is an opportunity to do so.
  • Drop to the floor.
  • Remain still until rescuers provide instructions.
  • Motion to rescuers so that they are easily identified.

Question 149

Question
Techniques for helping a hostage survivor return to a daily routine include:
Answer
  • Limiting contact with the press.
  • Refraining from making public statements about the captor.
  • Speaking openly about the rescue with reporters.
  • Being accessible to the press to discuss being held hostage and rescued.

Question 150

Question
Symptoms exhibited when suffering from the Stockholm Syndrome include:
Answer
  • Refusing to assist the captor
  • Losing touch with reality
  • Hindering rescue efforts
  • Suffering from long-term emotional instability

Question 151

Question
Which of the following statements illustrate the correct application of the DoD Code of Conduct?
Answer
  • During capture, Service members should resist their potential captors in an effort to break free.
  • As a hostage, Service members should not, under any circumstances, support or encourage their captors.
  • Service members on assignment in an area prone to terrorist activity shall follow the appropriate counter-terrorism measures.
  • As a hostage, Service members should accept release regardless of the consequences of such action.

Question 152

Question
If a terrorist group is labeled state-directed:
Answer
  • The group is primarily supported by a country or state
  • The group is usually an insurgent movement
  • Activities are conducted at the direction of the state
  • The group may be an element of the state's security organization

Question 153

Question
Terrorist groups labeled by their political affiliation:
Answer
  • Are considered to be political extremists
  • Have suicidal members
  • Have a charismatic leader who preaches a form of exclusivity
  • Consist of young members, generally between 19 and 35 years old

Question 154

Question
Which of the following are considered common characteristics of terrorist groups?
Answer
  • Highly mobile
  • Operate covertly
  • Urban based
  • Militarily stronger than their opposition

Question 155

Question
Which of the following statements are true?
Answer
  • To achieve a chaotic atmosphere, a terrorist group will disrupt lines of communication.
  • Terrorist groups will encourage foreign investments to boost and strengthen their country’s economy.
  • Attacks against a state government’s security forces are used to erode public confidence.
  • Major acts or a successful terrorist campaign can attract additional support for the group’s cause.

Question 156

Question
Which of the following terrorist group goals is generally accomplished through skyjacking and hostage taking?
Answer
  • Satisfying vengeance
  • Turning the tide in a Guerrilla War
  • Causing an overreaction
  • Release of incarcerated comrades

Question 157

Question
An intelligence cell of a terrorist group:
Answer
  • Collects target-specific information
  • Is comprised of people who conduct kidnappings
  • Recruits new members
  • Provides OPSEC

Question 158

Question
When an operative travels abroad to a training camp, then returns home to put their training into practice, this is considered:
Answer
  • Internal training
  • External training
  • Survival training
  • Communications training

Question 159

Question
Which of the following are considered common goals of terrorist groups?
Answer
  • Obtaining money and equipment
  • Release of imprisoned comrades
  • Creating a safe environment for their people
  • Influencing government decisions, legislations, or elections

Question 160

Question
The number, size, and the overall structure of the terrorist group cells depends on:
Answer
  • Goals of the terrorist group
  • The security in the group's operating area
  • The abilities of the group's communication network
  • Media publicity of the group

Question 161

Question
Training conducted in a clandestine fashion at the cell level by members is referred to as:
Answer
  • External training
  • Internal training
  • Revolutionary training
  • Militaristic training

Question 162

Question
Which of the following statement(s) pertaining to terrorist operations are true?
Answer
  • Terrorist operations are relatively easy to execute because they are relatively easy to command, control, and support.
  • To ensure a sound operation, terrorists rehearse the operation in an environment mirroring the target location.
  • Terrorists select multiple targets as potential locations for the actual operation.
  • Terrorist operations are designed to impact only direct victims.

Question 163

Question
Terrorists gather information on security measures and observable routines.
Answer
  • Phase II: Intelligence Gathering and Surveillance
  • Phase IV: Pre-Attack Surveillance and Planning
  • Phase V: Attack Rehearsal
  • Phase VII: Escape

Question 164

Question
Terrorists deploy into the target area.
Answer
  • Phase I: Broad Target Selection
  • Phase IV: Pre-Attack Surveillance and Planning
  • Phase V: Attack Rehearsal
  • Phase VI: Actions on the Objectives

Question 165

Question
Terrorists determine the weapon or attack method.
Answer
  • Phase II: Intelligence Gathering and Surveillance
  • Phase III: Specific Target Selection
  • Phase IV: Pre-Attack Surveillance and Planning
  • Phase VI: Actions on the Objectives

Question 166

Question
Terrorists collect information from media and internet research.
Answer
  • Phase I: Broad Target Selection
  • Phase III: Specific Target Selection
  • Phase IV: Pre-Attack Surveillance and Planning
  • Phase VI: Actions on the Objectives

Question 167

Question
Skyjacking
Answer
  • The forceful seizure of an aircraft, its passengers, and cargo.
  • The unlawful seizure and detainment of a person, where the person is usually held for ransom.
  • The most common type of terrorist attack because of the relatively low risk of injury to the terrorist.
  • One of the oldest terrorist tactics, it means murdering someone in a surprise attack, usually with small arms or bombs.

Question 168

Question
Assassination
Answer
  • The most common type of terrorist attack because of the relatively low risk of injury to the terrorist.
  • The unlawful seizure and detainment of a person, where the person is usually held for ransom.
  • The forceful seizure of an aircraft, its passengers, and cargo.
  • One of the oldest terrorist tactics, it means murdering someone in a surprise attack, usually with small arms or bombs.

Question 169

Question
Kidnapping
Answer
  • The forceful seizure of an aircraft, its passengers, and cargo.
  • The unlawful seizure and detainment of a person, where the person is usually held for ransom.
  • The most common type of terrorist attack because of the relatively low risk of injury to the terrorist.
  • One of the oldest terrorist tactics, it means murdering someone in a surprise attack, usually with small arms or bombs.

Question 170

Question
Bombing
Answer
  • The forceful seizure of an aircraft, its passengers, and cargo.
  • The unlawful seizure and detainment of a person, where the person is usually held for ransom.
  • The most common type of terrorist attack because of the relatively low risk of injury to the terrorist.
  • One of the oldest terrorist tactics, it means murdering someone in a surprise attack, usually with small arms or bombs.

Question 171

Question
Raid
Answer
  • The forceful seizure of a surface vehicle, its passengers, and/or its cargo.
  • A surprise attack by a small armed force on a previously defined target.
  • The seizure of a facility to include taking all persons inside hostage.
  • A sudden attack made from a concealed position on a previously defined target.

Question 172

Question
Ambush
Answer
  • The forceful seizure of a surface vehicle, its passengers, and/or its cargo.
  • A surprise attack by a small armed force on a previously defined target.
  • The seizure of a facility to include taking all persons inside hostage.
  • A sudden attack made from a concealed position on a previously defined target.

Question 173

Question
Hijacking
Answer
  • The forceful seizure of a surface vehicle, its passengers, and/or its cargo.
  • A surprise attack by a small armed force on a previously defined target.
  • The seizure of a facility to include taking all persons inside hostage.
  • A sudden attack made from a concealed position on a previously defined target.

Question 174

Question
Hostage Barricade
Answer
  • The forceful seizure of a surface vehicle, its passengers, and/or its cargo.
  • A surprise attack by a small armed force on a previously defined target.
  • The seizure of a facility to include taking all persons inside hostage.
  • A sudden attack made from a concealed position on a previously defined target.

Question 175

Question
The deliberate weakening of another entity through subversion, obstruction, disruption, and/or destruction.
Answer
  • Environmental Destruction
  • Seizure
  • Sabotage
  • Threats/Hoaxes

Question 176

Question
The destruction of oil fields or attacks on oil tankers.
Answer
  • Environmental Destruction
  • Seizure
  • Sabotage
  • Threats/Hoaxes

Question 177

Question
An active shooter is an individual actively engaged in killing or attempting to kill people in a confined and populated area.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 178

Question
During an active shooter situation, you should:
Answer
  • Hide
  • Scream
  • Evacuate
  • Take Action

Question 179

Question
When law enforcement arrives, you should:
Answer
  • Immediately raise hands and spread fingers
  • Ask for help
  • Remain calm, and follow officers’ instructions
  • Point to where the active shooter is

Question 180

Question
Which of the following are sources of insider security problems?
Answer
  • Maliciousness
  • Disdain of security practices
  • Carelessness in protecting DoD information
  • Ignorance of security policy and security practices
  • All of the above

Question 181

Question
“Insider threat” is that an insider will, by acts of commission or omission, intentionally or unintentionally, use their authorized access to do harm to the security of the U.S.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 182

Question
The terrorist’s objectives are controlled and/or condoned by an established state.
Answer
  • Sub-Revolutionary
  • Establishment
  • Revolutionary

Question 183

Question
The terrorist’s objectives are to overthrow the existing government, particularly in the area of operations.
Answer
  • Sub-Revolutionary
  • Establishment
  • Revolutionary

Question 184

Question
The terrorist’s objectives are to influence an unwilling government or group into making political, social, or economic changes.
Answer
  • Sub-Revolutionary
  • Establishment
  • Revolutionary

Question 185

Question
The terrorist threat level that indicates that anti-U.S. terrorists are present with limited operational activity.
Answer
  • High
  • Significant
  • Moderate
  • Low

Question 186

Question
FPCON BRAVO will apply when:
Answer
  • A general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists
  • An increased threat of terrorist activity exists
  • A terrorist attack has occurred
  • Intelligence indicates some form of terrorist activity is likely

Question 187

Question
RAM is the random use of various protective measures in order to:
Answer
  • Rehearse procedures
  • Frustrate terrorist planning
  • Replace FPCON
  • Heighten unit awareness

Question 188

Question
Perspectives to any terrorist event are:
Answer
  • The terrorist perspective that feels killing innocent people is morally justified to achieve objectives
  • The victim perspective that sees terrorist acts as criminal and immoral
  • The general public perspective that either supports or is against the terrorist causes
  • The military perspective that feels that all terrorist events are evil and warrant retaliatory action

Question 189

Question
Which of the following methodology factors did the DoD take into account?
Answer
  • Terrorist Targets
  • Terrorist History
  • Terrorist Capabilities
  • Terrorist Intentions

Question 190

Question
A terrorist threat level is:
Answer
  • Identified as High, Significant, Moderate, or Low
  • Identified as NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO, CHARLIE, or DELTA
  • The random use of various security measures normally employed at higher force protection conditions in order to rehearse procedures
  • An intelligence community judgment about the likelihood of terrorist attacks on U.S. interests

Question 191

Question
Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs) are:
Answer
  • An intelligence community judgment about the likelihood of terrorist attacks on U.S. interests
  • Identified as Normal, Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, or Delta
  • A system of protective measures used by DoD installations and organizations to guard against and deter terrorist attacks

Question 192

Question
A terrorist threat level is ________________. (Select all that apply)
Answer
  • An intelligence community judgment about the likelihood of terrorist attacks on US interests.
  • Identified as NORMAL, ALPHA, BRAVO, CHARLIE, or DELTA.
  • Identified as High, Significant, Moderate, or Low.

Question 193

Question
Which of the following are consider common goals of terrorist groups?
Answer
  • Releasing imprisoned comrades
  • Influencing government decisions, legislations, or elections
  • Obtaining money and equipment
  • All of the above

Question 194

Question
The number, size, and overall structure of terrorist group cells depend upon ________________________.
Answer
  • The goals of the terrorist group
  • The security in the group’s operating area
  • The number of members in the terrorist group
  • The abilities of the group’s communication network

Question 195

Question
Which of the following statements are true regarding terrorist operations? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • Terrorist operations are difficult to execute due to the large group of individuals to train and command.
  • Terrorists select multiple targets as potential locations for the actual operation.
  • Terrorist operations are always designed on the defensive.
  • Terrorist rehearse the operation in an environment mirroring the target location or in the target location itself.

Question 196

Question
Why might a potential captor take a victim hostage? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • For the publicity the situation would generate
  • Because the victim drives and expensive car
  • Because the victim is in the wrong place at the wrong time
  • Because the victim may be a source of trouble otherwise

Question 197

Question
If a hostage senses or realizes a rescue attempt is imminent, the hostage should:
Answer
  • Motion to rescuers so they are easily identified
  • Prepare to escape the situation as soon as there is an opportunity to do so
  • Drop to the floor and remain still until rescuers provide instructions
  • All of the above

Question 198

Question
Chemical agents are:
Answer
  • Nerve agents, such as sarin, that interfere with the functioning of the nervous system
  • Likely to be used in large quantities by terrorist
  • Substances that are created by plants and animals that are poisonous to humans
  • Identifiable with the sudden onset of symptoms

Question 199

Question
Which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • There is no antidotal treatment for nerve agent poisoning.
  • A sudden onset of symptoms is a characteristic of chemical agents.
  • Terrorists will likely use small quantities of chemical agents in a highly populated area where the potential for exposure is the greatest.

Question 200

Question
Which of the following are potential indicators of an insider threat?
Answer
  • Copying Files
  • Unusual work hours
  • Taking short trips
  • Unexplained affluence
  • All of the above
Show full summary Hide full summary

Want to create your own Quizzes for free with GoConqr? Learn more.

Similar

CCNA Security Final Exam
Maikel Degrande
Security Guard Training
Summit College
ISACA CISM Exam Glossary
Fred Jones
Security
annelieserainey
Securities Regulation
harpratap_singh
2W151 Volume 1: Safety and Security - Quiz 7
Joseph Whilden J
Security Quiz Review
Rylan Blah
Security Policies
indysingh7285
2W151 Volume 1: Safety and Security - Quiz 6
Joseph Whilden J
Security (2)
Daniel Freedman
Certified Security Compliance Specialist
jnkdmls
Browse Library