Question 1
Question
Which of the following is not safe during pregnancy?
Question 2
Question
Which of the following metabolic changes is not seen with use of loop diuretics?
Answer
-
Decrease in Ca
-
Decrease in K
-
Increase in Mg
-
Increase in Glucose
Question 3
Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of thiazides?
Answer
-
Hyponatremia
-
Metabolic alkalosis
-
Hypouricemia
-
Sexual dysfunction
Question 4
Question
Which of the following G IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists has a long half life and is irreversible?
Answer
-
ASA
-
Tirofiban
-
Abciximab
-
Eptifibatide
Question 5
Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of osmostic diuretics?
Question 6
Question
Which of the following is a characteristic of LMWH?
Answer
-
Low bioavailability
-
Monitored with PTT
-
Inexpensive
-
Renally excreted
Question 7
Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of Aliskiren?
Answer
-
Decrease in uric acid
-
Diarrhea
-
Abdominal pain
-
Angioedema
Question 8
Question
Which of the following is not correct regarding eplerenone?
Answer
-
It is more expensive than spironolactone
-
Less endocrine-related side effects than spironolactone
-
Lower chance of hyperkalemia
-
Higher affinity for aldosterone receptors
Question 9
Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of ACEI?
Answer
-
Cough
-
Hypotension
-
Gynecomastia
-
Hyperkalemia
Question 10
Question
Acetazolamide causes metabolic alkalosis because you excrete bicarbonate, and therefore it is best to administer this diuretic to metabolic acidic patients.
Question 11
Question
Which of the following are better to avoid with use of potassium-sparing diuretics?
Answer
-
ACEI
-
Lithium
-
Eplerenone
-
Amiloride
Question 12
Question
Choose which of the following you would administer to a CKD patient
Question 13
Question
Which of the following diuretics act on the distal convoluted tubule to block sodium reabsorption?
Answer
-
Aldosterone antagonists
-
Thiazides
-
Loop diuretics
-
CAIs
Question 14
Question
You always have drug interactions with NSAIDS with use of diurectics because they inhibit prostaglandins which antagonizes the action of diurectics
Question 15
Question
Which diuretic would you not want to use in a patient who has gout?
Question 16
Question
How does Conivaptan promote free water diuresis?
Answer
-
By stimulating cGMP resulting in vascular smooth muscle relaxation
-
By being excreted unchanged and causing water to be retained within the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle due to the freely permeable water
-
By blocking the epithelial sodium channels on principal cells and cause sodium excretion
-
By antagonizing vasopressing
Question 17
Question
Lisinopril antagonizes the AT1 receptor
Question 18
Question
Which of the following metabolic changes would you see with the use of a thiazide?
Answer
-
Increase Mg
-
Increase Ca
-
Decrease glucose
-
Increase in potassium
Question 19
Question
Hydrochlorthiazide is used more than chlorthalidone because it is more potent and research has shown that it produces a greater reduction in systolic blood pressure.
Question 20
Question
In which of the following conditions would not benefit from the use of vasopressin receptor antagonists?
Answer
-
Urinary frequency
-
CHF
-
cirrhosis
-
SIADH
Question 21
Question
Which of the following is a side effect Bosentan?
Answer
-
Epistaxis
-
Visual disturbances
-
Liver cirrhosis
-
Dyspepsia
Question 22
Question
Which of the following would require careful dosing in a renal failure patient?
Answer
-
Fondaparinux
-
Abciximab
-
Warfarin
-
Argatraban
Question 23
Question
Which of the following drug combinations would not be beneficial?
Question 24
Question
Liver toxicity is a side effect of tolvaptan?
Question 25
Question
Which of the following have short half-lives
Answer
-
UFH
-
Warfarin
-
ASA
-
Fondaparinux
-
Vorapaxar
-
Abciximab
-
Eptifibatide
-
Tirofiban
Question 26
Question
Why do we need to overlap warfarin and heparin or LMWH in a patient with a new VTE?
Answer
-
Because you want to deactivate antithrombin
-
It takes about 5 days to replace activated clotting factors with dysfunctional clotting factors
-
It takes about 5 days to replace Protein C and Protein S
-
You should never overlap warfarin with LMWH or UFH
Question 27
Question
Which of the following antiplatelets can cause dyspnea?
Answer
-
Prasugrel
-
Ticagrelor
-
Clopidogrel
-
Ticlopidine
Question 28
Question
Which of the following prostanoids can cause epistaxis?
Answer
-
Epoprosternol
-
Iloprost
-
Treprostinil (Remodulin)
-
Treprostinil (Tyvaso)
Question 29
Question
Which of the following is safe during lactation?
Answer
-
Dabigatran
-
Direct X inhibitors
-
Warfarin
-
Indirect X inhibitors
Question 30
Question
Which of the following antiplatelets can be used when a patient has had a cardiac event while taking clopidogrel?
Answer
-
Ticlopidine
-
Ticagrelor
-
Prasugrel
-
UFH
Question 31
Question
Which of the following antiplatelets is used with aspirin in post-ACS patients?
Answer
-
Ticagrelor
-
Ticlopidine
-
Prasugrel
-
Clopidogrel
Question 32
Question
Liver toxicity is a side effect of conivaptan
Question 33
Question
Which of the following antiplatelets is hardly used in clinical practice and can cause neutropenia?
Answer
-
Ticagrelor
-
Clopidogrel
-
Prasugrel
-
Ticlopidine
Question 34
Question
Which of the following antiplatelets is contraindicated for patients with a history of stroke/TIA?
Answer
-
Prasugrel
-
Ticagrelor
-
Clopidogrel
-
Ticlopidine
Question 35
Question
Ranolazine can be used ONLY in acute angina attacks
Question 36
Question
It is important to hold indirect factor X inhibitors for at least 48 hours
Question 37
Question
Why is it important to place a patient who develops HIT on another anticoagulant?
Answer
-
To decrease the platelet count.
-
To prevent a prothrombotic condition
-
To prevent bleeding.
-
To induce a prothrombotic condition
Question 38
Question
Which of the following is not part of the treatment for HIT?
Answer
-
Stop heparin products
-
Stop warfarin until platelet count is above 150,000
-
Use alternative anticoagulants
-
Give a high dose of warfarin when restarting
Question 39
Question
Which of the following drugs can cause serious cardiovascular and thromboemolic events if dose and hemoglobin range is not taken into account?
Answer
-
Calcitriol
-
ERAs
-
ESAs
-
Dopamine
Question 40
Question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of argatraban?
Question 41
Question
Which of the following is absolutely not safe during pregnancy?
Answer
-
Warfarin
-
Heparin/LMWH
-
Fondaparinux
-
IV DTIs
Question 42
Question
Which of the following is correct regarding warfarin?
Answer
-
It causes less GI bleeding than dabigatran
-
It causes more GI bleed than Rivaroxaban
-
It causes less GI bleeds than Apixaban
-
It causes less ICH in Direct Factor X inhibitors and Dabigatran
Question 43
Question
How long should one hold warfarin before major surgery
Answer
-
24 hours
-
48 hours
-
6 hours
-
5 days
Question 44
Question
Which of the following has no reversal agent or is irreversible?
Answer
-
LMHW
-
UFH
-
Warfarin
-
Rivaroxaban
Question 45
Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of Acetazolamide?
Answer
-
Metabolic acidosis
-
Kidney stones
-
Paresthesia
-
Hypernatremia
Question 46
Question
Which of the following is NOT a cause for concern of sodium nitroprusside-induce cyanide toxicity?
Question 47
Question
Which of the following is true about SELECTIVE beta blockers? Choose all that apply:
Answer
-
Safe to use in COPD patients
-
Has a slightly better metabolic effect
-
Loses selectivity at lower doses
-
Has little effect in patients with reversible airway disease
Question 48
Question
Which of the following is a correct rationale as to why we would use a beta blocker to treat MI/angina peri-operatively? Choose all that apply:
Answer
-
To decrease production of aqueous humor
-
To decrease HR
-
To decrease contractility
-
To decrease portal hypertension
-
To inhibit vasodilatation or arteriolar spasms over the cortex
-
To decrease oxygen demand
Question 49
Question
Which of the following is not a characteristic of fondaparinux?
Answer
-
It directly affects factor X
-
It is renally excreted
-
It has a long half-life, so not good for bridging with warfarin
-
There is still risk of HIT
Question 50
Question
The benefit to using calcitriol over vitamin D analogs is that it can decrease the chance of hypercalcemia and hyperphosphetemia.
Question 51
Question
Which of the following are nonselective beta blockers? Choose all that apply:
Answer
-
Atenolol
-
Carvedilol
-
Propranolol
-
Metoprolol
-
Nadolol
-
Timolol
-
Labetalol
-
Satelol
Question 52
Question
Which of the following diuretics is the most potent?
Question 53
Question
Which of the following is correct regarding warfarin reversal agents?
Answer
-
PCC are more efficient than FFP
-
PCC is usually given in a large volume
-
FFP and PCC are given with Vitamin K
-
FFP has larger risk of thrombosis
Question 54
Question
Which of the following is a side effect of hydralazine ONLY?
Question 55
Question
Which of the following would you never want to give with nitrates due to their drug interaction?
Answer
-
Prostanoids
-
ERAs
-
Hydralazine
-
PDE-5 drugs
Question 56
Question
Which of the following prostanoids can cause sepsis?
Answer
-
Epoprostenol
-
Treprostinil (Remodulin)
-
Iloprost
-
Trerostinil (Tyvaso)
Question 57
Question
Which of the following prostanoids can cause severe hypotension?
Answer
-
Epoprostenol
-
Treprostinil (Remodulin)
-
Treprostinil (Tyvaso)
-
Ilioprost
Question 58
Question
Treprostinil (Tyvaso) is an inhaled prostenoid
Question 59
Question
Which of the following are NOT safe to use during pregnancy? Choose all that apply:
Answer
-
PDE-5 drugs
-
Sodium nitroprusside
-
ERAs
-
Prostenoids
-
Riociguat
Question 60
Question
Which of the following antiplatelets works by inhibiting ADP receptor?
Answer
-
GP IIb/IIIA inhibitors
-
Vorapaxar
-
P2Y12 inhibitors
-
ASA
Question 61
Question
Why are endothelin receptor antagonists used as a cardiac drug?
Answer
-
It's ability to block ETB receptor
-
Because of its vasoconstricting effects
-
Because of its ability to release NO to cause vasodilation
-
It's ability to block ETA receptor
Question 62
Question
Which of the following causes an increase in INR?
Question 63
Question
Nitrate tolerance can be fixed by having a nitrate-free period lasting from 4-8 hours
Question 64
Question
How do calcium-channel blockers cause decrease in contractility, SA node rate, and AV node conduction velocity?
Answer
-
By blocking sodium influx, causing calcium overload through the sodium/calcium exchanger
-
Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in arterial smooth muscle leading to decrease in afterload
-
Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in venous smooth muscle leading to decrease in afterload
-
Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in venous smooth muscle leading to decrease in preload
Question 65
Question
When using dihydropyridines, one must be careful when using it with digoxin and beta blockers, as this may cause additive negative effects on cardiac conduction
Question 66
Question
Which of the following is correct regarding nitrates and their mechanism of action?
Answer
-
They cause arterial dilation
-
They are denitrated to NO, increasing cGMP and causing increase in dilation
-
They are denitrated to NO, decreasing cGMP and causing increase in dilation
-
Releases NO from the drug itself, causing vasodilation
Question 67
Question
Which of the following is a reason for loss of response to ESA therapy?
Answer
-
Hypertension
-
Benign process
-
Iron deficiency
-
Pure white cell aplasia
Question 68
Question
Which of the following adrenergic agonists can cause a decrease in renal blood flow as an adverse effect?
Answer
-
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
-
Dobutamine and Epinephrine
-
Norepinephrine and Dopamine
-
Phenylephrine and Dobutamine
Question 69
Question
Which of the following adrenergic agonists can cause reflex bradycardia?
Answer
-
Dobutamine
-
Epinephrine
-
Phenylephrine
-
Dopamine
Question 70
Question
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of alpha-1 adrenergic blockers?
Answer
-
Floppy Iris Syndrome
-
Prolonged QT interval
-
Bradycardia
-
Orthostatic hypertension
Question 71
Question
ARBs are not used as first line therapy despite the less occurrence of side effects.
Question 72
Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics?
Answer
-
GI symptoms
-
Ototoxicity
-
Metabolic acidosis
-
Hyperkalemia
Question 73
Question
Which of the following IV iron products can alter magnetic resonance imaging studies?
Answer
-
Iron dextran
-
Ferric gluconate
-
Ferumoxytol
-
Ferric carboxymaltose
Question 74
Question
Which of the following IV iron products can cause an anaphylactic reaction?
Answer
-
Iron dextran
-
Ferric gluconate
-
Ferumoxytol
-
Ferric carboxymaltose
Question 75
Question
Iron sucrose is given in divided doses, about 10 dialysis sessions
Question 76
Question
Which of the following is not a side effect of loop diuretics?
Answer
-
Hypomagnesemia
-
Hypocalcemia
-
Hypernatremia
-
Ototoxicity
Question 77
Question
Which of following phosphate binders can cause metabolic acidosis?
Answer
-
Calcium carbonate
-
Calcium acetate
-
Renagel
-
Renvela
Question 78
Question
Aliskiren inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
Question 79
Question
Ranolazine inhibits myocardial cell sodium/calcium exchanger, preventing ischemia-induced contractile dysfunction and delaying the onset of angina
Question 80
Question
Which of the following a Class I drug?
Answer
-
Propafenone
-
Propranolol
-
Amiodarone
-
Diltiazem
Question 81
Question
Dronedarone is a
Question 82
Question 83
Question
Which is the best drug for use in patients with CHF or structural heart disease?
Answer
-
Flecainide
-
Propafenone
-
Amiodarone
-
Verapamil
-
Dofetilide
Question 84
Question
Choose all that would be used for cardioversion of atrial fibrillation.
Answer
-
Dofetilide
-
Ibutilide
-
Verapamil
-
Procainamide
-
Lidocaine
-
Digoxin
Question 85
Question
Which of the following is a side effects of Amiodarone?
Question 86
Question
Which of the following has beta-blocking activity?
Answer
-
Propafenone
-
Flecainide
-
Ibutilide
-
Procainamide
Question 87
Question
Which of the following does NOT rely on renal function for elimination
Answer
-
Sotalol
-
Dofetilide
-
Digoxin
-
Amiodarone
Question 88
Question
How does adenosine function in stress testing?
Answer
-
Causes vasodilation in healthy arteries, revealing the diseased coronary arteries
-
Causes vasoconstriction in healthy arteries, revealing the diseased coronary arteries
-
Causes vasodilation in diseased arteries, revealing the healthy coronary arteries
-
Causes vasoconstriction in diseased arteries, revealing healthy coronary arteries
Question 89
Question
Which of the following is correct regarding digoxin?
Answer
-
Inhibits potassium channels, decreasing intracellular potassium
-
Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase, increasing sodium concentration thereby increasing calcium concentration
-
Causes negative inotropic effects
-
Causes positive dromotropic/chronotropic effects
Question 90
Question
Choose which of the following is true for Amiodarone
Answer
-
Shorter half life than dronedarone
-
Slightly more effective than dronedarone in Afib patients
-
High risk of side effects
-
More GI side effects
-
I2 in structure and effects thyroid
-
Does not have negative inotropic effects
-
Cannot be used for CHF
Question 91
Question
How do calcium channel blockers work as antiarrhythmics?
Answer
-
They dilate arterial smooth muscle
-
Mostly effects the sodium channels in atrial and ventricular tissues and Purkinjie fibers
-
Acts on the SA and AV node
-
Blocks sodium channels
Question 92
Question
Which of the following is correct regarding the use of beta blockers perioperatively?
Answer
-
Should be continued in patients who are already on a beta blocker
-
Use of them perioperatively in any situation is standard of practice
-
Perioperative beta blockage started within one day or less before noncardiac surgery decreases risk of stroke, death, hypotension, and bradycardia
-
It is not a clinical contreversy
Question 93
Question
Which of the following drugs should you be cautious due to chance of developing QT prolongation?
Answer
-
Dronedarone
-
Beta-blockers
-
Felcainide
-
Digoxin
Question 94
Question
Which of the following drug classes could cause Torsades de Pointes?
Answer
-
Beta blockers
-
Class IA drugs
-
Class IB drugs
-
Calcium channel blockers
Question 95
Question
Which of the following drugs can be used for ventricular arrhythmias?
Answer
-
Propafenone
-
Digoxin
-
Dofetilide
-
Ibutilide
Question 96
Question
Which of the following CANNOT be used for cardioversion?
Answer
-
Dofetilide
-
Ibutilide
-
Propafenone
-
Verapamil