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Part 4: Final Exam Nursing 112 GBCC

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Final part 4
Tess Nicholson
Quiz by Tess Nicholson, updated more than 1 year ago
Tess Nicholson
Created by Tess Nicholson over 9 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
poverty, and feeding resistance are causes of ?
Answer
  • organic Failure to thrive
  • non-organic failure to thrive
  • idiopathic failure to thrive

Question 2

Question
Possible etiology of SIDS includes
Answer
  • sleeping on stomach
  • smoking
  • suffocation
  • hx of shoulder dystocia in labor
  • brainstem abnormality

Question 3

Question
Being treated with methadone instead of abusing heroin is the safest option for a durg-addicted mother during pregnancy
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 4

Question
On the finnegan (NAS) scoreing system the higher the score the better the baby is doing
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 5

Question
Causes of Postpartum hemorrhage include:
Answer
  • tone
  • tissue
  • tiredness
  • trauma
  • thrombosis

Question 6

Question
Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as any blood loss from uterus greater than _______ post vaginal birth and any blood loss greater than ______ post Csection
Answer
  • 500,200
  • 500,1000
  • 1000,250
  • 100,200

Question 7

Question
Medication given to contract the uterus that is contraindicated fore htn and cautioned with asthma is
Answer
  • pitocin (oxytocin)
  • postaglandin F2 (carboprost tromethamine)
  • methylergonovine (methergine)

Question 8

Question
suspect lacerations when bleeding persists but uterus is firm
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 9

Question
Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura is an autoimmune disorder and Von-Willebrand Disease is a _____________. They both can cause postpartum hemorrhage.
Answer
  • autoimmune
  • type of hemophilia
  • type of preeclampsia
  • condtion caused by eeclampsic seizure

Question 10

Question
Lower urinary tract infection is referred to as _________________- while an kidney infection is referred to as____________________
Answer
  • pyelonephritis, cystitis
  • thrombosis, cystitis
  • cystitis, pyelonephritis

Question 11

Question
Postpartum mood disorder are most liekly to occur after the _____________ but may occur anytime within ________________
Answer
  • 2nd week, 2nd year
  • 24 hours, 6 months
  • 4th week, 1 year
  • 8th week, 1 year

Question 12

Question
Interventions that help prevent DVT include all of the following EXCEPT
Answer
  • TED stockings
  • Early ambulation
  • avoid giving mg
  • anticoagulants

Question 13

Question
Select all the hallmark signs of delirium (4)
Answer
  • acute change/fluctuating mental state
  • Visual hallucinations
  • Inattention
  • Disorganized thinking
  • Altered LOC
  • Euphoria

Question 14

Question
The three I's in the THINK acronym for causes of delirium include
Answer
  • Independence
  • Infection
  • Intracranial pressure
  • Inflammation
  • Immobolization
  • Inattention

Question 15

Question
On the CAM assessment tool for Delirium a pt. must exhibit both Acute onset/ fluctuating course, and inattention, as well as at least 1 of the following.......
Answer
  • altered LOC and disorganized thought
  • violence and confusion
  • disorganized thought and panic
  • lethargy and confusion

Question 16

Question
A pt. with dementia during a mini mental exam states that you are holding a chicken when you hold up a pen and has incomprehensible speech for much of the interview...... You document these findings using which medical terminology
Answer
  • aphasia
  • agnosia
  • apraxia
  • loss of ability to think abstractly

Question 17

Question
A dementia pt has significant problems performing ADL's, suffers from apraxia and agiation, and follows caregive around for most of the day would most likely me in which stage of Alzheimer's Disease?
Answer
  • Stage 1 (mild)
  • Stage 2 (moderate)
  • Stage 3(severe)
  • End stage

Question 18

Question
Which medication is often given with cholinergic medications such as (donepezil, Aricept) to help slow Alzheimer's disease and decrease the GI effects associated with cholinesterase inhibitors?
Answer
  • tacrine (cognex)
  • rivastigmine (exelon)
  • memantine (namenda)
  • galantamine (razadyne)

Question 19

Question
A pt with a tisomy of the 21st chromosome will have: (pick 2)
Answer
  • Down syndrome
  • Patau syndrome
  • Edwards Syndrome
  • 47 chromosomes
  • 45 chromosomes

Question 20

Question
All of the following are symptoms associated with Down syndrome expect:
Answer
  • hyperflexibility
  • protruding abdomen
  • small low set ears
  • eyes slanted upward and outward
  • thyroid dysfunction
  • spasticity
  • excess skin of the neck

Question 21

Question
CHromosomal abnormalities of structure include:
Answer
  • Cri Du Chat syndrome
  • Down Syndrome
  • Fragile x syndrome
  • Huntington's

Question 22

Question
Find 4 answers associated with autosomal dominant inheritance
Answer
  • an abnormal gene overshadows the normal gene to produce the triat
  • children have 50 % change being affected
  • breast/ovarian cancer
  • huntington's
  • hemophilia
  • no male to male transmission

Question 23

Question
You are explaining to parents who are both carriers for cystic fibrosis about how CF is transmitted. The best way to explain the risk is to say?
Answer
  • "your children will all be carriers"
  • "Your children will have 50% chance of having CF"
  • "Your children will have a 50% change of being a carrier and a 25% change of having CF"
  • "Your female children will be carriers"

Question 24

Question
Can a man with hemophilia pass on this trait to his son?
Answer
  • no
  • yes

Question 25

Question
All the following are conditions associated with Multifactorial inheritance except:
Answer
  • cleft palate
  • heart defect
  • dislocated hips
  • htn
  • color blindness
  • heart disease

Question 26

Question
In diet for phenylketonuria (PKU) a pt should avoid all of the following expect:
Answer
  • meat
  • cheese
  • nuts
  • fruit

Question 27

Question
a pt has blood in the front chamber of his eye and is suffering from increased sensitivity to light. Use medical terminology to describe these conditons
Answer
  • myopia
  • hyperopia
  • hyphema
  • photophobia
  • sympathetic opthalmia

Question 28

Question
A pt with hyperopia will have an easiest time seeing objects placed...
Answer
  • in the periphery
  • far away
  • close to him
  • in the center field of vision

Question 29

Question
In macular degneration ___________- vision is lost; in glaucoma ___________ vision is lost
Answer
  • central, peripheral
  • Far, near
  • peripheral, central
  • Top of field of, bottom field of

Question 30

Question
Which form of glaucoma is considered a medical emergency
Answer
  • closed angle
  • open angle
  • macular angle
  • Charles Bonnet syndrome

Question 31

Question
A prostaglandin medication used to treat glaucoma by increasing the outflow of aqueous humor; may change pigment of the eye...
Answer
  • timolol (timoptic)
  • bimodidne (tartrate)
  • latanoprost (xalatan)
  • mannitol (osmitrol)

Question 32

Question
Your patient has a perscription for pilocarpine (pilocar) a miotic agent written to be aminstered OD; how would you administer this medication?
Answer
  • both ears
  • left eye
  • once daily
  • Both eyes

Question 33

Question
Which of the following is a beta blocker used in the treatment of glaucoma
Answer
  • timolol (timoptic)
  • mannitol (osmitrol)
  • acetazolomide (diamox)
  • latanoprost (xalatan)

Question 34

Question
Sensorineural hearing impairment might involve cranial nerve 8 (vestibulocochlear)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 35

Question
Symptoms of Otitis media include all of the following expect
Answer
  • pain
  • fluid in ear
  • fever
  • common cold
  • sudden attacks of dizziness

Question 36

Question
To administer ear drops to a 6 year old...
Answer
  • up and back
  • down and back

Question 37

Question
Meniere"s Disease is characterized by (pick 4)
Answer
  • sudden attacks of dizziness
  • tinnitus
  • pressure in ear
  • progressive deafness
  • fever

Question 38

Question
Medications given to treat vertigo include
Answer
  • meclizine (antivert)
  • droperidol (inpasine)
  • osmitrol (mannitol
  • diazepam (valium)

Question 39

Question
Interventions for Meniere's DIsease (pick 4)
Answer
  • low na diet
  • diuretics
  • antihistamines
  • smoking cessation
  • removing adenoids

Question 40

Question
Anorexia is associated with:
Answer
  • fear of obesity
  • loss of at least 25% of original bw
  • amenorrhea
  • refusal to maintian healthy body weight

Question 41

Question
Fluoxetine (prozac) is fda approved for depression and anxiety as well as:
Answer
  • bulimia
  • anorexia nervosa
  • BED

Question 42

Question
Obesity is defined as __________ over upper limit of normal and morbid obesity is ____________ over ideal
Answer
  • 50,90
  • 10,60
  • 20,100
  • 100,300

Question 43

Question
A biliopancreatic Diversion Duodenal switch procedure is associated with weight loss and what?
Answer
  • rapid improvement of diabetes
  • dumping syndrome
  • may return to work in 7 days

Question 44

Question
Gastricplication and POSE are associate with all of the following expect?
Answer
  • reversable
  • less invasive
  • restrictive
  • involve cutting and stapling of bowel
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