Pregunta 1
Pregunta
Which of the following is not an example of a PAMP?
Respuesta
-
Lipopolysaccharide
-
Lipoteichoic acid
-
Viral Genome (dsRNA)
-
DAMPs
-
Complement
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
What do PRRs do?
Respuesta
-
receptors on leukocytes that recognize PAMPS
-
receptors on infected cells that can be activated for cell death
-
specified subclass of PAMPS
-
Special proteins displayed on bacterial surfaces
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
What are some physical barriers that are part of the innate system?
Respuesta
-
skin
-
mucosa
-
stomach pH
-
lysozomes
-
natural body flora
-
macrophages
-
body fat
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
Which cells are involved in innate immunity?
Respuesta
-
macrophage
-
neutrophil
-
natural killer cell
-
dendritic cell
-
B-cell lymphocytes
-
T-cell lymphocytes
-
bone marrow cells
-
mast cells
-
thymus cellls
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
Which of the following isnt a granulocyte?
Respuesta
-
basophils
-
neutrophils
-
mast cells
-
eosinophils
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
Macrophages in the blood are known as monocytes.
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
Macrophages in CNS are known as macroglia.
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
What regarding Major Histocompability Complexes is true?
Respuesta
-
MHCI, MHCII, and MHCIII all serve different purposes in cell communication
-
all nucleated cells display MHC I
-
cytotoxic T cells interact with both MHC I and MHC II
-
MHC I recognizes antigens from the inside of the cell
-
MHC II is on all nucleated cells
-
MHC III recognizes antigens on the outside of cell
-
Helper T cells interact with MHC II
-
some complement proteins, cytokines, and enzymes displa MHC III
-
MHC I, MHC II, and MHC III all refer to the same receptor at different stages which is why they have very similar functions
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
Which statements regarding innate immunity are false?
Respuesta
-
C3 convertase leads to C3 cleaving into C3a and C3b
-
C3b leads to C5 convertase activating and cleaving into C5a and C5b
-
C5b--C9 activates Membrane-Attacking Complex
-
C5a and C3a are anaphalotoxins
-
C3b is opsonin and coats bacteria as complement
-
anaphylatoxins activate mast cell degranulation, releasing histamine and bradykinin
-
histamine and bradykinin lead to increased vascular permability and vasodilation
-
Membrane-Attacking Complex includes perforin and granzyme
-
Mannose-Binding Lectin, Classical, and Alternative all lead to the intial step of C3 convertase
-
Mannose-Binding Lectin, Classical, and Alternative all lead to the initial step of C5 convertase
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
What are TCRs?
TCRs, standing for [blank_start]T-cell receptors[blank_end], are on all T-cells and allow them to interact with other [blank_start]leukocytes[blank_end] or [blank_start]other cells[blank_end]. For example, the [blank_start]cytotoxic[blank_end] TCR interacts with a host cell's MHC [blank_start]I[blank_end] in order to kill it.
Respuesta
-
T-cell receptors
-
leukocytes
-
other cells
-
cytotoxic
-
I
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
There are 2 parts to adaptive immunity. The [blank_start]cell-mediated response[blank_end] occurs when an [blank_start]antigen-presenting cell[blank_end] arrives at the lymphnode and presents the antigen to the [blank_start]CD4+ T cells[blank_end] via [blank_start]MHC II[blank_end]. Specifically, [blank_start]CD4+ TH1[blank_end] will interact with the antigen-presenting cell. This interaction will lead to the chemokines [blank_start]IL-2[blank_end] and [blank_start]INF-gamma[blank_end] being releases, which activate and bring over the [blank_start]CD8+ killer[blank_end] T cells. The CD8+ killer T cell will then go off and bind to infected host cells via [blank_start]MHC I[blank_end] and initiate cell death. It does this via 2 ways: activating [blank_start]FAS ligand-receptor[blank_end] and the cytotoxic granule containing [blank_start]granzyme[blank_end] (which destroys cell inner stuff) and [blank_start]perforin[blank_end] (which punches holes.)
Respuesta
-
cell-mediated response
-
humoral response
-
antigen-presenting cell
-
neutrophil
-
phagocytic cell
-
CD4+ T cells
-
THI cells
-
TH2 cells
-
CD8+ T cells
-
MHC II
-
MHC III
-
MHC I
-
CD4+ TH1
-
CD4+ TH2
-
IL-2
-
IL-3
-
IL-4
-
IL-5
-
IL-6
-
IL-10
-
INF-gamma
-
INF-alpha
-
INF-beta
-
INF-delta
-
Killer
-
TH II cells
-
TH I cells
-
mhc I
-
mhc II
-
FAS ligand-receptor
-
MAC
-
cell nephrosis
-
granzyme
-
lysozyme
-
enzymes
-
granulozome
-
perforin
-
puncturin
-
hydrogenase
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
The release of cytokines (in numerical order) [blank_start]IL-4[blank_end], [blank_start]IL-5[blank_end], and [blank_start]IL-10[blank_end] is part of the [blank_start]humoral[blank_end] response of adaptive immunity.
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
Humoral Response cannot happen without Cell-mediated BUT cell-mediated can happen without humoral having to happen
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
Which of the following are part of the humoral response?
Respuesta
-
clonal activation
-
clonal selection
-
clonal distribution
-
clonal expansion
-
B plasma secretory cells
-
class switch
-
T memory cells
-
B memory cells
-
CD4+ TH I cells
-
CD4+ TH II cells
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
Which statements regarding rolling adhesion are correct?
Respuesta
-
selectins allow the phagocytic cell to roll across the epithelial walls
-
integrins allow the phagocytic cell to roll across the epithelial walls
-
integrins allow the phagocytic cell to stop at the right place in the epithelium
-
selectins allow the phagocytic cell to stop at the right place in the epithelium
-
1L-8 enhances chemotaxis of phagocytic cells to site of injury/infection
-
diapedesis is transepithelial migration of the leukocyte
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
Which chemokines increase the adhesiveness of epithelial cells?
Respuesta
-
IL-1
-
IL-2
-
IL-3
-
IL-12
-
INF-GAMMA
-
INF-ALPHA
-
INF-BETA
-
TNF-ALPHA
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
Which blood results is O-?
Pregunta 18
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
O- is universal donor for blood and universal recipient for plasma
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
AB + is universal recipient for both plasma and blood
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
Breast milk jaundice lasts [blank_start]longer[blank_end] than physiological jaundice. It is when certain compounds within the breast milk lead to higher [blank_start]bilirubin[blank_end] levels. It usually sorts itself out. Breast milk jaundice is quite rare.
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
What are the types of jaundice?
Respuesta
-
Breastfeeding jaundice
-
Breastmilk jaundice
-
Physiological (Normal) Jaundice
-
Jaundice of Prematurity
-
Blood Group Incompatability
-
Hemolytic Disease of Newborn
-
Biliary Atresia
-
Jaundicemia
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
Physiological Jaundice occurs due to severe deficiency of erythrocyte decomposition and liver immaturity.
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
How would you treat a Rhesus negative woman about to be impregnated by a Rhesus positive man due to concerns of Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn?
Respuesta
-
Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins now to prevent Rhesus' Disease
-
Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins once pregnant to prevent Rhesus' Disease
-
Take Anti-D immunoglobulins throughout first trimester to prevent Rhesus' Disease
-
Begin Anti-D immunoglobulins third trimester to prevent Rhesus' Disease
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
Jaundice before 24 or 48 hours is [blank_start]abnormal[blank_end]. Jaundice between [blank_start]2-3 days[blank_end] to [blank_start]10-14 days[blank_end] is [blank_start]normal[blank_end]. Treatment isn't needed, but [blank_start]phototherapy[blank_end] (using UV light) can be helpful, especially for [blank_start]premature[blank_end] babies. Sometimes, a small amount of the [blank_start]matched blood[blank_end] is placed into the fetus to help speed up the process. Jaundice may last longer than that, which is [blank_start]abnormal[blank_end]. In which cases, [blank_start]surgical treatment[blank_end] and further investigation may be needed.
Respuesta
-
abnormal
-
normal
-
2-3 days
-
1 week
-
10-14 days
-
1 month
-
Normal
-
Abnormal
-
phototherapy
-
x-ray fluoroscopy
-
premature
-
late
-
matched blood
-
mother's blood
-
ab-normal
-
normaL
-
surgical treatment
-
wide spread antibiotics
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
What regarding hemolytic disease of the newborn is correct?
Respuesta
-
it is due to mixing of the fetus' blood and maternal blood during the first pregnancy
-
it is due to mixing of the fetus' blood and maternal blood during the second pregnancy
-
leads to hyperbilirubinemia
-
leads to anemia
-
if severe, can lead to multi-organ failure
-
if severe, can lead to hypoproteinemia
-
maternal antibodies will start attacking fetus' blood cells during first pregnancy
-
maternal antibodies will start attacking fetus' blood cells during second pregnancy
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
If Jaundice in the first 24 hours, why might it be due to?
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
If jaundice after 14 days, what may be a cause?
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
In gram staining, what type of microorganism stains purple?
Respuesta
-
Gram + bacteria
-
Gram - bacteria
-
Gram + virus
-
Gram - virus
-
Gram + fungus
-
Gram - fungus
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
Gram negative bacteria have LPS, thin cell wall, and stain red
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
A primary headache is a headache due to the condition itself and not another cause.
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
What is characteristic of a cluster headache?
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
what is NOT characteristic of migraine?
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
What is characteristic of tension headache?
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
How might you treat tension headache?
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
How might you treat and prevent migraines?
Respuesta
-
TRTMENT: NSAIDS
-
TRTMENT: paracetamol
-
TRTMENT: surgical intervention
-
TRTMENT: Triptans
ex: sumitriptan
-
PRVNT: Beta-blockers
-
PRVNT: Amitriptyline
(tricyclic antidepressant)
-
PRVNT: corticosteroids
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
How might you treat and prevent a cluster headache?
Respuesta
-
TRTMENT: give oxygen for 15 minutes
-
TRTMENT: triptans
-
PRVNT: Surgical intervention--> Occipital nerve block
-
PRVNT: Verapamil (calcium channel blocker)
-
TRTMENT: Verapamil (calcium channel blocker)
-
TRTMENT: Surgical intervention--> Occipital nerve block
-
PRVNT: triptans
-
PRVNT: give oxygen for 15 minutes
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
Morbillivirus is a single-stranded RNA which infects lower respiratory tract and lungs and leads to measles.
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
What is the MMR vaccine?
Respuesta
-
measles
-
rubella
-
mumps
-
roseola
-
rubiola
-
meningitis
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
Which of the following is not part of the presentation of measles?
Respuesta
-
Fever paired with a cough and coryza
-
blotchy pink rash: beginning at the back of the ear
-
Koplik spots
-
swelling around eyes and conjunctivitis
-
vomiting
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
Measles is a notifiable disease.
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
There is no fixxerup for measles. You can provide support via rest, drinking [blank_start]fluids[blank_end], [blank_start]antipyretics[blank_end] (reducing fever) etc. Because measles is [blank_start]contagious[blank_end], the child must stay at home until resolved illness.
Respuesta
-
fluids
-
antipyretics
-
contagious
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
If an immunosuppressed or pregnant person came into contact with an infectious measles person in the past 48 hours, what would you give?
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
This type of rash is characterisitic of....?
Respuesta
-
Measles
-
Mumps
-
Chicken Pox
-
Rubella
-
Roseola
-
Scarlet Fever
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
This severe edema of parotid glands is characteristic of what?
Respuesta
-
mumps
-
measles
-
chicken pox
-
roseola
-
rubella
-
scarlet fever
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
How might mumps present?
Respuesta
-
starts off generic: malaise, fever, headache
-
can lead to orchiditis
-
vomitting and cold sweats
-
Koplik spots
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
The only way to manage mumps is to keep the child out of school to avoid infectious spread.
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
Which immunoglobulin is involved in innate immunity, can act as BCR, can cross the placenta, is nonspecific and is a pentamer?
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
Which immunoglobulin is in breast milk and helps infants until their immune system is capable?
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergy?
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
Which is the small Y-shaped specific immunoglobulin?
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
IgD is the only BCR of the five imunoglobulins.
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
How might Rubella present?
Respuesta
-
lymphadenopathy
-
initially very similar presentation to a normal cold
EX: anorexia, malaise, eye irritation, minor fever
-
rash spreading from ears--> trunk/abdomen--> extremities
-
rash dissapears within 1-3 days
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to what complication for the child later on?
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
Rubella is managed by keeping child home to avoid infectious spread, fluids, rest, and antipyretics.
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
Chickenpox is caused by [blank_start]varicella zoster[blank_end]. It is most infectious 1-2 days [blank_start]before[blank_end] the rash appears and then stays contagious until after the rash disappears. It is a [blank_start]very itchy vesicle[blank_end] kind of rash that accompanies malaise, headache, and [blank_start]abdominal pain[blank_end]. There is no cure, but healthy individuals can be given a [blank_start]Calamine[blank_end] lotion for the itchiness. If a pregnant or immunodeficient person isn't vaccinated against chicken pox, give her the [blank_start]antibodies[blank_end]. If a pregnant or immunodeficient person develops the chickenpox rash, give them [blank_start]Aciclovir[blank_end].
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
Shingles, most common in elderly with [blank_start]weakened[blank_end] immunity, is like the adult version of chicken pox (although adults can still also get chicken pox.) It's caused by the [blank_start]herpes[blank_end] zoster. Its characteristic difference is that the rash does not pass the [blank_start]midline[blank_end] and is limited to one [blank_start]dermatome[blank_end] (region of sensory innervation.) The patient may report [blank_start]pain[blank_end] in the area before the rash appears. Management is mainly supportive: analgesic, rest, fluids, etc. If highly severe, [blank_start]aciclovar[blank_end] is given. Not having chicken pox in childhood or getting the vaccination places you at a [blank_start]greater[blank_end] risk of getting shingles later on.
Respuesta
-
weakened
-
herpes
-
midline
-
dermatome
-
pain
-
aciclovar
-
greater
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
What bacteria causes scarlet fever?
Respuesta
-
streptococcus pyogens
-
diptheria bacillus
-
clostridium difficile
-
pasteurella multocida
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
Scarlet fever is not a notifiable disease
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
How might scarlet fever present?
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
Investigation of scarlet fever is done via [blank_start]throat swab[blank_end] and culture. Management is [blank_start]penicillin[blank_end] for [blank_start]10[blank_end] days. If allergic to penicillin, [blank_start]azithromycin[blank_end] is the alternative. Management should also include symtomatic treatment: ex: [blank_start]paracetamol[blank_end]. As scarlet fever is highly contagious, person must stay home until illness resolves.
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
Which bacteria are always gram +?
Respuesta
-
staphylococcus
-
streptococcus
-
bacillus
-
diplococci
-
Spiral spirochetes
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
What regarding clostridium difficile is correct?
Respuesta
-
opportunic pathogen
-
gram + bacteria
-
gram - bacteria
-
usually due to broad spectrum antibiotic usage
-
presents as abdominal pain and diaarea
-
management:
1. oral metronidazole for 10-14 days
2. if not responding efficiently enough, oral vancomycin
-
management:
1. oral vancomycin for 10-14 days
2. if not responding efficiently enough, oral metronidazole
-
presents as abdominal pain and diarrhoea and abdominal edema
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
What regarding glandular fever is correct?
Respuesta
-
Epstein-barr virus found in the saliva of infected people
-
presentation includes Lymphadenopathy
-
presentation includes sore throat and enlarged tonsils
-
only supportive management possible
-
investigation: an unusual increased amount of lymphocytes
-
antiviral treatment and supportive management possible
-
antipyretics given
-
presentation includes rash covering neck and abdomen
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
What is true regarding Lyme disease?
Respuesta
-
It is due to a parasite and bacterial infection
-
it is due to a bacterial infection
-
it is due to a parasite
-
has no characteristic rash
-
has characteristic "bull's eye" rash
-
will present as fever, lethargy, and myalgia
-
disease can lead to joint pathology, heart and neuro pathology
-
the disease can lead to respiratory failure, lower intestines pathology, and appendicitis
-
will present as fever, vomittting, and diarrhea
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
What is meningitis?
Respuesta
-
inflammation of the meninges
-
infection of the cerebrospinal fluid
-
inflammation of the blood-brain barriers
-
autoimmune reaction against neurons of the central nervous system
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
Which of these causes meningitis?
Respuesta
-
streptococcus pneumonia
-
neisseria meningitidis
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
How does meningitis present?
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
Doxycycline, an antibiotic, is given as management for [blank_start]Lyme's disease[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
Lyme's disease
-
Meningitis
-
Chicken pox
-
Glandular Fever
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
Doxycycline, an antibiotic, is given as management for [blank_start]Lyme's disease[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
Lyme's disease
-
Meningitis
-
Chicken pox
-
Glandular Fever
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
Intravenous ceftriaxone is given as management for [blank_start]meningitis[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
meningitis
-
scarlet fever
-
glandular fever
-
Lyme's disease
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
Benzylpenicillin is given intramuscularly if there is a community danger of meningitis break out.
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
How might the CSF appear normally?
Respuesta
-
clear and colorless
-
murky and yellowish
-
.2-.4 protein concentration
-
<.2 protein concentration
-
60-80% plasma glucose
-
50-75% plasma glucose
-
no organisms
-
natural microflora present
-
high amount of lymphocytes
-
few amount of lymphocytes
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
If the CSF has cloudy murky appearance with increased protein concentration, high amount of neutrophils, plenty of organisms, reduced glucose, and high pressure, is it a bacterial, viral, or TB infection[blank_start]?[blank_end]
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
What does viral infected CSF appear like?
Respuesta
-
increased protein concentration
-
clear and colorless look
-
normal glucose
-
higher opening pressure
-
lesser glucose
-
decreased protein concentration
-
high amount of lymphocytes
-
high amount of neutrophils
-
many organisms
-
no organisms
Pregunta 76
Pregunta
What is true regarding management of meningitis?
Respuesta
-
medical emergency: do ABCD survey
-
Lumbar puncture at L3/L4
-
Lumbar Puncture at L1/L2/L3/L4
-
Ceftriaxone 4mg intravenously
-
Blood culture if not spinal tap
-
Blood culture and spinal tap
-
Ceftriaxone 4mg orally
Pregunta 77
Pregunta
A [blank_start]contraindication[blank_end] is when a type of treatment backfires and ends up harming the person.
Pregunta 78
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an example of contraindications to lumbar puncture?
Respuesta
-
shock
-
convulsions
-
coagulation abnormalities
-
infection over site of puncture
-
decreased intracranial pressure
-
extensive purpura
Pregunta 79
Pregunta
Sides of the tongue drain to the submandibular nodes?
Pregunta 80
Pregunta
where does back of the tongue and middle strip drain to lymph wise?
Respuesta
-
deep cervical
-
submandibular
-
submental
-
retropharyngeal
Pregunta 81
Pregunta
Tip of the tongue does NOT drain to submental.