11855839
Descripción
Test por Plymouth Med, actualizado hace más de 1 año
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Creado por Plymouth Med
hace casi 7 años
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Pregunta 1
Pregunta
What is characteristic of the Paget's disease?
Respuesta
-
increased osteoblast and osteoclast activity
-
"bone pain" generally in one area, commonly pelvis and spine
-
structurally disorganized bone matrix with both excessive bone mass and bone resorption
-
increased osteoblast but decreased osteoclast activity
-
uniform concentric rings of organized bone matrix
-
"bone pain" spreading out to different areas of the body
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
Osteoblasts mature into these cells [blank_start]osteocytes[blank_end] once trapped in the bone matrix; they activate bone formation via [blank_start]altered signalling[blank_end] and apoptosis.
Respuesta
-
osteocytes
-
altered signalling
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
What do osteoblasts do?
Respuesta
-
synthesize new bone matrix
-
absorb and resorb more bone matrix
-
control bone metabolism
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
What is characteristic of osteoclasts?
Respuesta
-
from hematopoeitic stem cells
-
acts as macrophages
-
resorb bone
-
make more bone matrix
-
acts as fibroblasts
-
from mesenchymal stem cells
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
Where would you have the most interstitial growth?
Respuesta
-
epiphysis
-
metaphysis
-
diaphysis
-
epiphyseal growth plates
-
periosteum
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
[blank_start]Interstitial[blank_end] growth is [blank_start]lengthening[blank_end] growth. This is due to increased number of matrix-depositing cells. [blank_start]Appositional[blank_end] growth is [blank_start]widening[blank_end] growth. This is due to increased matrix deposition by the same number cells.
Respuesta
-
Interstitial
-
Appositional
-
widening
-
lengthening
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
In terms of calcium metabolism, the thyroid releases what hormone?
Respuesta
-
calcitonin
-
TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone)
-
T4
-
T3
-
PTH (parathyroid hormone)
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
Calcitonin causes increased calcium deposition in bone by inhibiting bone resorption.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
What does parathyroid hormone do?
Respuesta
-
increase osteoclast activity
-
increase osteoblast activity
-
increase osteocyte activity
-
decrease osteoclast activity
-
decrease osteoblast activity
-
decrease osteocyte activity
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
Falling onto an outstretched hand/wrist causes what type of fracture most commonly?
Respuesta
-
scaphoid fracture
-
radial styloid fracture
-
humeral fracture
-
3rd metacarpal fracture
-
ulnar styloid process
-
lunate fracture
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
What are bones of the hand?
Respuesta
-
scaphoid
-
lunate
-
triquetrum
-
pisiform
-
trapezium
-
trapezoid
-
capitate
-
hamate
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
What nerve would you damage if you were to break the shaft of the humerus?
Respuesta
-
radial
-
axillary
-
musculocutaneous
-
medial
-
ulnar
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
If the radial nerve is damaged, how might it present?
Respuesta
-
wrist drop even with fully extended forearm/arm
-
inability to abduct arm
-
inability to flex elbow
-
inability to flex shoulder
-
Benedict claw with fully extended forearm/arm
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
What does the musculocutaneous innervate muscle-wise?
Respuesta
-
flexor muscles of the arm
-
flexor muscles of the forearm
-
extensor muscles of the arm
-
extensor muscles of the forearm
-
3.5 fingers of the hand
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
What does the axillary innervate muscle-wise?
Respuesta
-
deltoid, teres minor (shoulder muscles)
-
posterior arm flexor muscles
-
posterior forearm extensor muscles
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
What does the radial nerve NOT innervate muscle-wise?
Respuesta
-
posterior arm
-
posterior forearm
-
posterior medial 2 fingers of the hand
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
What does musculocutaneous innervate muscle-wise?
Respuesta
-
anterior forearm
-
anterior arm
-
anterior 3 medial fingers
-
posterior 3 medial fingers
-
posterior arm
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
What does ulnar nerve innervate muscle-wise?
Respuesta
-
posterior forearm muscles
-
posterior arm muscles
-
anterior forearm muscles
-
anterior arm muscles
-
anterior medial 2 fingers
-
posterior lateral 2 fingers
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
If there is loss of elbow flexion (can't flex biceps), there is damage to the [blank_start]musculocutaneous[blank_end] nerve.
Respuesta
-
musculocutaneous
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
if there is shoulder weakness or you're unable to abduct shoulder, then there is damage to the [blank_start]axillary[blank_end] nerve.
Respuesta
-
axillary
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
A hand of benediction is sign of damage to the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve.
Respuesta
-
median
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
Being unable to abduct or adduct the last 2 fingers is indicative of damage to the [blank_start]ulnar[blank_end] nerve.
Respuesta
-
ulnar
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
What does the ulnar provide sensory innervation to?
Respuesta
-
posterior and anterior 1.5 medial fingers
-
posterior and anterior lateral 2.5 fingers
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
What does the median provide sensory innervation to?
Respuesta
-
anterior 3.5 lateral fingers
-
posterior 3.5 lateral fingers
-
anterior 1.5 lateral fingers
-
posterior 1.5 lateral fingers
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
What does radial nerve provide sensory innervation to?
Respuesta
-
lateral arm
-
posterior forearm
-
posterior hand
-
anterior hand
-
anterior forearm
-
medial arm
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
The axillary nerve innervates the...in sensory wise
Respuesta
-
regimental badge area
-
anatomical snuffbox area
-
radial styloid badge area
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
Musculocutaneous provides sensory innervation to lateral forearm down to the thenar prominence (at the base of the thumb.)
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
Numbness at the back of the wrist and hand is due to damage to the sensory innervation by the [blank_start]radial[blank_end] nerve.
Respuesta
-
radial
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
Damage to the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve will lead to parethesia to the lateral 3 anterior fingers.
Respuesta
-
median
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
Loss of sensation in the median of the hand and the medial first 2 fingers is damage to the [blank_start]ulnar[blank_end] nerve.
Respuesta
-
ulnar
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
Damage to the radial nerve leads to wrist drop. What are some pathologies in which the radial nerve gets hurt?
Respuesta
-
Radial nerve palsy
-
Saturday night nerve palsy
-
Humerus shaft fracture
-
Erb's palsy
-
Bell's palsy
-
Klumpke's palsy
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
How might you injure the axillary nerve?
Respuesta
-
dislocation of the humeral head
-
surgical neck of the humerus fracture
-
dislocation of the clavicle
-
pulling the deltoid muscle
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
You might harm the musculocutaneous nerve via a medial epicondyle fracture.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
A winged scapula is indicative of damage to the [blank_start]long thoracic nerve[blank_end] (spinal roots C5-C7.)
Respuesta
-
long thoracic nerve
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
The spinal roots of the musculocutaneous nerve are (in numerical order from least to greatest) are [blank_start]C5[blank_end], [blank_start]C6[blank_end], and [blank_start]C7[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
C5
-
C6
-
C7
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
The Axillary nerve is from the roots [blank_start]C5[blank_end] and [blank_start]C6[blank_end] (in numerical order.)
Respuesta
-
C5
-
C6
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
The radial nerve is from the spinal roots [blank_start]C5[blank_end] to [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
C5
-
T1
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
The ulnar nerve is from the spinal roots of [blank_start]C8[blank_end] and [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
C8
-
T1
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
The spinal roots of the median nerve is [blank_start]C5[blank_end] or [blank_start]C6[blank_end] to [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
C5
-
C6
-
T1
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
Which of these myotomes and action pairings are correct?
Respuesta
-
C4: shoulder elevation
-
C5: chicken abduction (wings)
-
C6: elbow flexion
-
C6: wrist extension
-
C7: elbow extension
-
C7: wrist flexion
-
C8: thumb extension (thumbs up)
-
T1: finger abduction (fanned fingers)
-
C6: wrist flexion
-
C6: elbow extension
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
What is true regarding Erb's palsy?
Respuesta
-
damage to the upper part of the brachial plexus (C5 and C6)
-
damage to the lower part of the brachial plexus (C7 C8 and T1)
-
motorbike accidents can cause this
-
improper birthing techniques (pull baby's head against pelvic bones while labor) can cause this
-
landing on an outstretched arm from a big height can cause this
-
results in a "waiter's tip"
-
results in a "clawed hand"
-
damage to the axillary nerve
-
damage to the suprascapular nerve
-
damage to the musculocutaneous nerve
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
What is the myasthenia gravis?
Respuesta
-
At the neuromuscular junction, the body produces antibodies against the acetylcholine receptors
-
Intense morning sickness that needs anti-emetics as treatment
-
the gradual degradation of muscle fibers, starting from top of the head to bottom of the feet
-
loss of sensation in some or all motor units of certain muscles
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
How might myasthenia gravis present?
Respuesta
-
ptosis
-
fluctuating fatiguability
-
dysphagia
-
limb weakness
-
fever
-
constant fatigue
-
slow reaction times
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
How would you manage myasthenia gravis?
Respuesta
-
acetylcholine esterase inhibitors
-
acetylcholine reuptake enhancers
-
acetylcholine esterase activators
-
acetylcholine agonists
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
The [blank_start]abdominal aorta[blank_end] bifurcates into the [blank_start]right common illiac[blank_end] and the [blank_start]left common illiac[blank_end]. The right illiac again bifurcates into the [blank_start]internal illiac[blank_end] and the [blank_start]external illiac[blank_end]. The external illiac becomes the [blank_start]right femoral[blank_end], which is the deep artery of the right thigh. In the popliteal fossa, the right femoral becomes the right [blank_start]popliteal[blank_end] artery. The right popliteal further bifurcates into the [blank_start]right anterior tibial[blank_end] and the [blank_start]right posterior tibial.[blank_end] The right posterior tibial, which is the pulse felt at the ankle, becomes the [blank_start]posterior right fibular.[blank_end] The right anterior tibial becomes the right [blank_start]dorsalis pedalis[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
abdominal aorta
-
common thoracic aorta
-
right common illiac
-
right mesenephric
-
left common illiac
-
left mesenephric
-
internal illiac
-
internal femoral
-
external illiac
-
external femoral
-
right femoral
-
right fibular
-
popliteal
-
tibial
-
right anterior tibial
-
right anterior popliteal
-
right posterior tibial.
-
right posterior popliteal
-
posterior right fibular.
-
anterior right fibular.
-
dorsalis pedalis
-
dorsis plantaris
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
Which of the following could cause carpal tunnel syndrome?
Respuesta
-
pregnancy
-
rheumatoid arthiritis
-
repetitive use of hands
-
septic arhritis
-
osteomalacia
-
osteoporosis
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
Compression of the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve as it travels through the [blank_start]carpal[blank_end] [blank_start]tunnel[blank_end] in the wrist is Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.
Respuesta
-
median
-
carpal
-
tunnel
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
How does Carpal Tunnel Syndrome present?
Respuesta
-
numbness
-
parasthesia/pain over median nerve area
-
thumb muscle atrophy
-
worse at ngiht
-
worse at day
-
redness
-
swelling
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
What are management options of the carpal tunnel syndrome?
Respuesta
-
local corticosteroids
-
night time splinting
-
day time splinting
-
anabolic steroids
-
always surgical decompression
-
if severe surgical decompression
-
avoid further injury via strain
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
What are the nerves of the lower limb?
Respuesta
-
Femoral
-
Sciatic
-
Obturator
-
Common fibular
-
common fibular deep branch
-
common fibular superficial branch
-
tibial
-
sural
-
fibial
-
common femoral
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
The [blank_start]sural[blank_end] nerve only innervates sensory-wise. It innervates the skin of the [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]lateral[blank_end] foot.
Respuesta
-
sural
-
posterior
-
lateral
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
What does the sciatic innervate muscle-wise?
Respuesta
-
the posterior compartment of the thigh
-
the anterior compartment of the thigh
-
lateral compartment of the thigh
-
the medial compartment of the thigh
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
What does the femoral nerve innervate muscle-wise?
Respuesta
-
anterior thigh
-
posterior thigh
-
lateral thigh
-
medial thigh
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
What does the obturator nerve innervate muscle wise?
Respuesta
-
anterior thigh
-
posterior thigh
-
lateral thigh
-
medial thigh
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
What does the common fibular deep branch innervate muscle wise?
Respuesta
-
anterior leg
-
posterior leg
-
lateral leg
-
medial leg
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
What does the superficial branch of the common fibular innervate muscle-wise?
Respuesta
-
anterior leg
-
posterior leg
-
lateral leg
-
medial leg
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
What does the tibial nerve innervate muscle-wise?
Respuesta
-
posterior leg
-
anterior leg
-
medial leg
-
lateral leg
-
sole of the foot
-
top of the foot
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
The femoral nerve's sensory innervation includes the [blank_start]anterior[blank_end] thigh and [blank_start]medial[blank_end] leg.
Respuesta
-
anterior
-
medial
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
The obturator nerve's sensory innervation is the [blank_start]medial[blank_end] thigh.
Respuesta
-
medial
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
The [blank_start]deep[blank_end] branch of the common fibular's sensory innervation is the skin of the upper lateral leg.
Respuesta
-
superficial
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
The deep branch of the common fibular's sensory innervation is the [blank_start]lower[blank_end] [blank_start]lateral[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]dorsal[blank_end] foot.
Respuesta
-
dorsal
-
lower
-
lateral
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
Both the [blank_start]sciatic[blank_end] nerve (which bifurcates in the [blank_start]popliteal[blank_end] fossa into the [blank_start]tibial[blank_end] nerve and the common fibular nerve) and the [blank_start]tibial[blank_end] nerve innervate (sensory-wise) the [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] thigh and [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]plantar[blank_end] foot.
Respuesta
-
sciatic
-
popliteal
-
tibial
-
tibial
-
posterior
-
posterior
-
plantar
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
The sciatic nerve's spinal roots are [blank_start]L4-S3[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
L4-S3
-
L2-S3
-
L1-L2
-
L3-S2
-
L4-S2
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
Dorsiflexion is a sign of damage to what nerve?
Respuesta
-
tibial
-
deep branch of the common fibular
-
common fibular
-
femoral
-
sural
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
Inability to dorsiflex (so basically having a foot drop) is indicative of damage to what nerve?
Respuesta
-
common fibular
-
sciatic
-
femoral
-
sural
-
obturator
-
superficial branch of the common fibular
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
What movements does the femoral nerve allow?
Respuesta
-
flexion of hips
-
extension of the knee
-
extension of the hips
-
flexion of the knees
-
abduction of the leg
-
adduction of the leg
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
What innervates hip extension and knee flexion?
Respuesta
-
Inferior gluteal
-
sciatic nerve
-
superior gluteal
-
tibial
-
common fibular
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
The [blank_start]obturator[blank_end] nerve allows hip adduction. On the other hand, the [blank_start]superior[blank_end] [blank_start]gluteal[blank_end] nerve allows hip abduction.
Respuesta
-
obturator
-
superior
-
gluteal
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
What are the main types of arthritis?
Respuesta
-
osteoarthritis
-
inflammatory arthritis
-
septic arthritis
-
rheumatoid arthritis
-
crystal-induced arthritis
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
[blank_start]Primary[blank_end] osteoarthritis and [blank_start]secondary[blank_end] osteoarthritis are the two types of osteoarthritis.
Respuesta
-
Primary
-
secondary
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
The three types of inflammatory arthritis: rheumatoid, [blank_start]crystal-induced,[blank_end] and [blank_start]psoriatic[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
crystal-induced,
-
psoriatic
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
What are the two types of crystal-induced arthritis?
Respuesta
-
gout
-
pseudogout
-
rheumatoid
-
psoriatic
-
none of the above
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
What is a degenerative disease that affects the joints, often due to wear and tear of articular cartilage?
Respuesta
-
osteoarthritis
-
synovitis
-
crepitus
-
joint stiffness
-
subarticular sclerosis
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
How might osteoarthritis present?
Respuesta
-
joint stiffness in the evening/morning
-
generally worse after walking
-
palpable bony swelling on the hands' interphalangeal joints
-
reduced range of motion
-
crepitus in the joints
-
insomnia
-
generalized swelling around major joints
-
locked joints
-
synovitis
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
An X-ray investigation of osteoarthritis will show...
Respuesta
-
reduced joint space
-
subarticular sclerosis
-
osteophytes
-
bony cysts
-
glued up joint space
-
cartilage cysts
-
osteocytes
Pregunta 76
Pregunta
For osteoarthritis, the only management is supportive/palliative.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 77
Pregunta
What is an autoimmune disease that also ends in joint destruction?
Respuesta
-
rheumatoid arthritis
-
septic arthritis
-
osteoarthritis
-
gout
Pregunta 78
Pregunta
What is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?
Respuesta
-
specific joint pain in the morning
-
specific joint pain in the evening
-
joints affected symetrically
-
joint inflammation
-
joints affected asymetrically
Pregunta 79
Pregunta
All of these are part of the management of rheumatoid arthritis BUT
Respuesta
-
NSAIDs
-
physiotherapy
-
Methtrexate
-
DMARDs
-
Antibiotics followed by corticosteroids
Pregunta 80
Pregunta
Which of the following regarding the investigation of rheumatoid arthritis is true?
Respuesta
-
will find rheumatoid factor in serum
-
x-ray will reveal bone erosion
-
x-ray will reveal reduced joint space
-
periarticular osteopenia
-
visible deformity
-
x-ray will reveal
-
excessive bone growth
Pregunta 81
Pregunta
The deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints is a type of arthritis called [blank_start]gout[blank_end]. This usually happens if there are high levels of [blank_start]uric[blank_end] acid in the blood. The risk factors are [blank_start]obesity[blank_end] and [blank_start]purine[blank_end] (one of the building blocks of DNA) rich food. The most common occurence is at the big [blank_start]toe[blank_end] joint. Symptoms include [blank_start]synovitis[blank_end] (swelling of the joint), [blank_start]malaise[blank_end] (general ill-feeling), and [blank_start]tophi[blank_end] [blank_start]lumps[blank_end] (crystals.) These crystals are visible under polarized light microscopy. The primary way to test for this is to take [blank_start]aspirate[blank_end] fluid in the joint, gram stain it to rule out septic arthritis, and test the fluid for levels of uric acid.
Respuesta
-
gout
-
uric
-
purine
-
obesity
-
toe
-
synovitis
-
malaise
-
tophi
-
lumps
-
aspirate
Pregunta 82
Pregunta
The treatment plan is for what?
1. NSAIDs
2. Colchicine
3. Corticosteroids
Respuesta
-
chronic gout
-
acute gout
-
goutisis
-
pseudogout
Pregunta 83
Pregunta
Other than lifestyle changes to reduce urate levels, we give those with [blank_start]chronic[blank_end] [blank_start]gout[blank_end] the drug allopurinol.
Respuesta
-
gout
-
chronic
Pregunta 84
Pregunta
Accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate crystals in joints causes pseudogut as well.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 85
Pregunta
What is of clinical importance regarding septic arthritis?
Respuesta
-
medical emergency
-
take the aspirate fluid in join and gram stain it
-
take a blood culture (full blood count) and see if there's a high amount of leukocytes
-
take a blood culture (full blood count) and see if there's a high amount of c-reactive protein
-
x-ray will show increased joint space
-
x-ray will show decreased joint space
-
chronic/gradual development
-
to manage, should drain aspirate fluid
-
to manage, should give antibiotics
-
presents like an infection plus reduced joint functionality and synovitis
Pregunta 86
Pregunta
Prostacyclin is prostaglandin [blank_start]12[blank_end], which is produced by the [blank_start]epithelium[blank_end]. Prostacyclin prevents excess [blank_start]platelet[blank_end] [blank_start]aggregation[blank_end] during the platelet plug.
Respuesta
-
12
-
epithelium
-
platelet
-
aggregation
Pregunta 87
Pregunta
[blank_start]Thrombocytoplenia[blank_end] is when there are too few platelets in the body. It can be treated with [blank_start]thrombopoietin[blank_end], which will increase the platelet number. It takes [blank_start]6[blank_end] days for progress to be apparent though.
Respuesta
-
Thrombocytoplenia
-
thrombopoietin
-
6
Pregunta 88
Pregunta
Platelets only adhere to smooth epithelial surfaces.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 89
Pregunta
[blank_start]Von[blank_end] [blank_start]Willebrand[blank_end] Disease is when a person is missing vWF and therefore have difficulty with [blank_start]hemostasis[blank_end] (the stopping of bloodloss.)
Respuesta
-
Willebrand
-
Von
-
hemostasis
Pregunta 90
Pregunta
If there is a suspicion of liver disease, one should check if [blank_start]coagulation[blank_end] is affected because it very well could be.
Respuesta
-
coagulation
Pregunta 91
Pregunta
Coagulation can be affected in:
diseases affecting [blank_start]protein[blank_end] [blank_start]formation[blank_end]
[blank_start]genetic[blank_end] diseases of the clotting [blank_start]factors[blank_end]
Respuesta
-
protein
-
formation
-
genetic
-
factors
Pregunta 92
Pregunta
There are 2 coagulation pathways: they meet up at factor [blank_start]10[blank_end].
The intrinsic pathway begins with factor [blank_start]12[blank_end]. This is when the [blank_start]inside[blank_end] of the blood vessel gets damage without any necessary external damage. Ex: [blank_start]hypertension[blank_end] (erodes.)
The extrinsic pathways begin with factor [blank_start]3[blank_end]. Damage from [blank_start]outside[blank_end] to the blood vessel. Usually accompanies tissue damage.
Respuesta
-
10
-
12
-
3
-
hypertension
-
inside
-
outside
Pregunta 93
Pregunta
The outside aspect of a scab is called an [blank_start]eschar[blank_end].
Respuesta
-
eschar
Pregunta 94
Pregunta
What is true regarding vitamin K?
Respuesta
-
produces anticoagulant protein c
-
produces coagulant protein z
-
produces anticoagulant protein s
-
produces factor 7
-
produces factor 9
-
produces prothrombin
-
produces factor 10
-
produces fibrinogen
-
produces factor 5
Pregunta 95
Pregunta
Vitamin K helps with bone metabolism by increasing calcification.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 96
Pregunta
Vitamin K is from kale and kiwi.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 97
Pregunta
Vitamin K is stored in muscle
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 98
Pregunta
The "tea and toast" diet is associated with vitamin [blank_start]B[blank_end][blank_start]12[blank_end] deficiency. Patients can present as [blank_start]weakness[blank_end], paresthesia (tingliness), and [blank_start]irritability[blank_end]. Vegetarians and [blank_start]vegans[blank_end] often have this. B12 helps make the [blank_start]myelin[blank_end] [blank_start]sheath[blank_end] in neurons.
Respuesta
-
B
-
12
-
weakness
-
irritability
-
myelin
-
sheath
-
vegans
Pregunta 99
Pregunta
[blank_start]Allodynia[blank_end] is when the patient complains that "everything" is painful, even stimuli that are not usually painful.
Respuesta
-
Allodynia
Pregunta 100
Pregunta
[blank_start]Hyperalgesia[blank_end] is when you have an increased pain response to painful stimulus.
Respuesta
-
Hyperalgesia
Pregunta 101
Pregunta
Primary healing is when you actively bring together both edges of the wound to stimulate heealing.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 102
Pregunta
Secondary healing is when you leave the wound alone to heal
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 103
Pregunta
Warfarin is given following
Respuesta
-
a prothrombin time test
-
a K reductase time test
-
a Synacthen test
-
a plasmin time test
-
a water deprifation test
Pregunta 104
Pregunta
Warfarin is an anticoagulant.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 105
Pregunta
Warfarin works essentially by blocking the enzyme [blank_start]vitamin[blank_end] [blank_start]K[blank_end] [blank_start]reductase[blank_end], and thus blocks all the stuff said vitamin makes. It is prescribed for heart conditions--such as [blank_start]atrial[blank_end] [blank_start]fibrillation[blank_end]--and for thrombotic conditions--[blank_start]deep[blank_end] [blank_start]vein[blank_end] thrombosis and [blank_start]pulmonary[blank_end] embolisms are the classics. Also, it is given post [blank_start]orthopedic[blank_end] surgery.
Respuesta
-
vitamin
-
K
-
reductase
-
atrial
-
fibrillation
-
deep
-
vein
-
pulmonary
-
orthopedic
Pregunta 106
Pregunta
Vitamin K enhances the functionality of Warfarin.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 107
Pregunta
Antithrombin III deficiency is a hereditary, relatively harmless, and common condition.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 108
Pregunta
DVT and pulmonary embolisms are both complications of Antithrombin III deficiency.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 109
Pregunta
Warfarin acts on the thrombus by dissolving it.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 110
Pregunta
TPA ([blank_start]tissue[blank_end] [blank_start]plasminogen[blank_end] [blank_start]activator[blank_end]) is used in drugs dealing with thrombotic problems. It [blank_start]dissolves[blank_end] the clot.
Respuesta
-
tissue
-
plasminogen
-
activator
-
dissolves
Pregunta 111
Pregunta
What causes Hemophilia A?
Respuesta
-
Factor 8 deficiency
-
Factor 9 deficiency
-
Factor 12 deficiency
-
Factor 5 deficiency
Pregunta 112
Pregunta
What is Hemophilia B due to?
Respuesta
-
Factor 7 deficiency
-
Factor 5 deficiency
-
Factor 9 deficiency
-
Factor 11 deficiency
Pregunta 113
Pregunta
[blank_start]Vasculogenesis[blank_end] is the formation of new blood vessels completely from scratch from [blank_start]endothelial[blank_end] precursor cells.
Respuesta
-
Vasculogenesis
-
endothelial
Pregunta 114
Pregunta
Myofibroblasts need a lot of extracellular matrix.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 115
Pregunta
Mature tissue contains [blank_start]dense[blank_end] collagen (collagen [blank_start]I[blank_end]) and blood channels. It is [blank_start]acellular[blank_end] connective tissue.
Respuesta
-
dense
-
I
-
acellular
Pregunta 116
Pregunta
What is true regarding Hypertrophic scars?
Respuesta
-
following physical injury
-
can be itchy
-
slightly raised
-
limit ability to move
-
appear shiny
Pregunta 117
Pregunta
What is true regarding contracture scars?
Respuesta
-
extremely tight skin
-
can limit ability to move
-
common with burns
-
shiny
-
very fine white line
Pregunta 118
Pregunta
What is true regarding keloid scars?
Respuesta
-
really noticeable
-
raised
-
shiny
-
usually after minor skin damage
-
not raised
-
fine white line
-
itchy
Pregunta 119
Pregunta
Sunken scars have a [blank_start]pitted[blank_end] kind of appearance. An example: [blank_start]chickenpox[blank_end] scars.
Respuesta
-
pitted
-
chickenpox
Pregunta 120
Pregunta
Scar treatment is often unecessary.
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 121
Pregunta
Which of these are ways to treat scars?
Respuesta
-
topical silicone gel
-
pressure dressings
-
steroids
-
make- up
-
cosmetic surgery
-
plastic surgery
-
flucloxacillin
-
acupuncture
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