Clinical Pathology (301-400) MCQs- Year 4 PMU

Descripción

Masters Pathoanatomy Test sobre Clinical Pathology (301-400) MCQs- Year 4 PMU, creado por Med Student el 15/01/2019.
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Resumen del Recurso

Pregunta 1

Pregunta
Parenchymal jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings
Respuesta
  • increased indirect bilirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobilinogen in the urine
  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stocks, both bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine
  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, increased bilirubin in the urine
  • none of the above

Pregunta 2

Pregunta
What is the common between fibrosis, sclerosis and cirrhosis?
Respuesta
  • the common is the increased development of connective tissue in the organ
  • the common is the lipid accumulation in the interstitium of the organ
  • the common is the fibrinoid degeneration of the organ
  • they are different processes and don’t have anything common between them

Pregunta 3

Pregunta
What is the clinical significance of hyalinosis of the pancreatic arteroles?
Respuesta
  • it can cause diabetes mellitus
  • it can cause pancreatic cancer
  • it can cause acute pancreatitis
  • hyalinosis in the pancreas is a physiological process related with ageing

Pregunta 4

Pregunta
Which stain is used to prove rheumatism in acute stage in a heart valve?
Respuesta
  • Prussian Blue
  • Toluidin-Blue
  • Congo-Red
  • Perls

Pregunta 5

Pregunta
Mucoid swelling can be seen in
Respuesta
  • Heart valves in rheumatism
  • Basedow’s dermopathy
  • Myxedema
  • All of the listed above

Pregunta 6

Pregunta
The necrosis which develops at the base of an acute or chronic active ulcer in the stomach or duodenum is
Respuesta
  • coagulative
  • caseous
  • fibrinoid
  • liquefactive

Pregunta 7

Pregunta
Indicate the correct statement(s) for nephrosclerosis arteriolosclerotica
Respuesta
  • it affects microscopically the afferent and efferent arterioles
  • it is a result of prolonged benign hypertention
  • it is a reversible process
  • the process is hyalinosis

Pregunta 8

Pregunta
What are the microscopic changes seen in the brain in benign long-term hypertension?
Respuesta
  • hyalinosis of the vessels’ walls
  • edema around vessels
  • accumulation of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the soft brain membranes
  • developments of specific granulomas in the brain tissue

Pregunta 9

Pregunta
The gross description: thick, hard, glassy whitish depositions, non-digestable by enzymes, is indicative for
Respuesta
  • steatonecrosis
  • liquefactive necrosis
  • hyalinosis
  • fibrinoid deposition

Pregunta 10

Pregunta
The following diseases are examples of amyloid depositions. Find the mistake!
Respuesta
  • Rheumatoid arthritis - AA amyloid
  • Multiple myeloma - AL amyloid
  • Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid gland - AA amyloid
  • Alzheimer’s disease - A4 amyloid

Pregunta 11

Pregunta
‘Sago spleen and lardaceous spleen’ are
Respuesta
  • gross appearance of the localized (sago-spleen)and generalized (lardaceous spleen) amyloidosis of the spleen
  • sago spleen is amyloidosis of the spleen, while lardaceous spleen is hyalinosis of the spleen
  • gross appearance of the spleen in Hodgkin’s lymphoma depending on the severity of the process
  • in lardaceous spleen the amyloid is deposited in the white pulp only, while in sago spleen both white and red pulp have amyloid deposition

Pregunta 12

Pregunta
Systemic amyloidosis is proven by a biopsy from?
Respuesta
  • gingiva
  • heart
  • fat tissue from abdominal wall
  • ileum

Pregunta 13

Pregunta
What type of calcification develops in the complicated atherosclerotic plaques?
Respuesta
  • metastatic
  • dystrophic
  • metabolic
  • physiological

Pregunta 14

Pregunta
Which are the causes for hypocalcaemia?
Respuesta
  • hypoparathyroidism
  • hyperparathyroidism
  • intoxication with vit. D
  • senile osteoporosis

Pregunta 15

Pregunta
What kind of gout can develop in a patient with leucemia?
Respuesta
  • gout caused by excessive consumption of meat and meat products
  • genetic gout caused by error in the metabolism of uric acid
  • renal injury because kidneys cannot excrete the excessive amount of uric acid
  • patients with leucosis never develop gout

Pregunta 16

Pregunta
Which of the following microscopic descriptions most likely suggest kidney amyloidosis? The stain is H-E in all the described specimens
Respuesta
  • highly enlarged glomeruli, the capillary tufts filled almost all of the capsular space, capillary lumens are obliterated; pink homogeous substance is deposited also in the mesangium, in the basement membranes of the tubules and in the walls of the blood vessels
  • afferent and efferent arterioles have homogenously thick walls stained in pink, some of the glomeruli look smaller, with totally effaced structure and homogenously pink in color, while others may look normal in size, or even with compensatory hypertrophy
  • the interstitium shows chronic inflammatory reaction, the main change is seen in the kidney tubules which look dilated and filled with pinkish substance (these tubules look like thyroid follicles)
  • many glomeruli show crescent proliferations, encompassing 2/3 f the Bowman's space; the process ends with global sclerosis of the gomerulus

Pregunta 17

Pregunta
Which of the following stain(s) is used to prove amyloidosis?
Respuesta
  • Perls
  • Congo-Red
  • Van Gieson
  • Methyl violet

Pregunta 18

Pregunta
Mark the correct statement(s) for kidney alymoidosis
Respuesta
  • small, shrunken kidneys with granular surface and difficult decapsulation
  • enlarged pale kidneys with waxy texture
  • amyloidosis affects only one of the kidneys and doesn’t lead to chronic renal failure
  • kidney amyloidosis is reversible after the treatment of the primary disease and has very good prognosis

Pregunta 19

Pregunta
Granulomatous structures, consisting of uric acid crystals, lymphocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts and giant multinucleated cells type “foreign body” are characteristic for which disease?
Respuesta
  • tuberculosis
  • sarcoidosis
  • gout
  • brucellosis

Pregunta 20

Pregunta
Calcification of the aorta characterizes with
Respuesta
  • hard, rigid wall of the aorta
  • soft, elastic wall of the aorta
  • can be complicated with mural thrombosis and aneurysm
  • is a result of metabolic calcification

Pregunta 21

Pregunta
Renal complications of gout include
Respuesta
  • Uric crystals nephrolithiasis
  • Uric-acid infarction
  • Urate nephropathy
  • All of the listed above

Pregunta 22

Pregunta
What type of necrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis?
Respuesta
  • liquefactive necrosis
  • coagulative necrosis
  • caseous necrosis
  • steatonecrosis

Pregunta 23

Pregunta
Which of the following terms are used to describe liquefactive necrosis of the brain?
Respuesta
  • ramolicio cerebri
  • encephalomalacia
  • infarctus anemicus cerebri
  • hydrocephalus

Pregunta 24

Pregunta
What type of necrosis develops in the pancreas?
Respuesta
  • steatonecrosis/fat necrosis
  • coagulative necrosis
  • liquefactive necrosis
  • caseous necrosis

Pregunta 25

Pregunta
What type of necrosis develops in the specific granuloma in tuberculosis?
Respuesta
  • liquefactive necrosis
  • coagulative necrosis
  • caseous necrosis
  • steatonecrosis

Pregunta 26

Pregunta
Indicate the correct statement(s) for dyspasia
Respuesta
  • it is a process of disordered cellular development
  • it can develop in soft tissues
  • it can develop in tissues of epithelial origin
  • it is an adaptive process

Pregunta 27

Pregunta
Corpora amylacea can be seen microscopically in?
Respuesta
  • the glands of uterine mucosa
  • the glands of prostate
  • the kidney’s convoluted tubules
  • the follicles of thyroid gland

Pregunta 28

Pregunta
How does the hypertrophic myocardium look like grossly?
Respuesta
  • enlarged in size
  • smaller in size
  • papillary muscles are hypertrophic
  • increased heart weight

Pregunta 29

Pregunta
Hyperplasia of the endometrium can be
Respuesta
  • direct and indirect
  • typical and atypical
  • with formation of cysts or with formation of pseudo-cysts
  • diffuse and localized

Pregunta 30

Pregunta
What are the complications of prostate hyperplasia?
Respuesta
  • urinary retention, frequent urinary tract infections
  • sexual dysfunction
  • transitional cell carcinoma
  • hydronephrosis

Pregunta 31

Pregunta
Which is the main complication after squamous metaplasia of the respiratory bronchial epithelium?
Respuesta
  • squamous carcinoma of the bronchus
  • chronic bronchitis
  • small-cell carcinoma
  • adenocarcinoma of the bronchus

Pregunta 32

Pregunta
Epistaxis and melena are examples for
Respuesta
  • edema
  • exudate
  • haemorrhages
  • venous congestion

Pregunta 33

Pregunta
What is hemascos?
Respuesta
  • blood in the urine
  • blood in the peritoneal cavity
  • blood in the excrement
  • blood vomiting

Pregunta 34

Pregunta
What is hematemesis?
Respuesta
  • blood vomiting
  • blood in the excrements
  • nose bleeding
  • bleeding from the lungs

Pregunta 35

Pregunta
What is hemoptoe
Respuesta
  • bleeding from the nose
  • bleeding from the lungs
  • blood vomiting
  • blood in the pleural cavity

Pregunta 36

Pregunta
Which of the following liver changes is reversible?
Respuesta
  • liver cirrhosis
  • liver cyanosis
  • nutmeg liver
  • liver amyloidosis

Pregunta 37

Pregunta
Pin-point hemorrhages in the brain have usually the following pathogenesis
Respuesta
  • per diapedesin
  • per rhexin
  • per diabrosin
  • all of the above

Pregunta 38

Pregunta
Can thrombosis develop after death?
Respuesta
  • yes, this is why we can see blood clots in the vessels after death
  • no, thrombosis is a pathological process which develops only during lifetime
  • it can develop both during life and after death
  • it develops in the agony preceding death

Pregunta 39

Pregunta
What is characteristic for the post-mortem blood clot?
Respuesta
  • dry, crumbly, layered structure
  • moist, homogenous structure
  • attached to the vessel’s wall
  • unattached to the vessel’s wall

Pregunta 40

Pregunta
Indicate types of embolism depending on the content of embolus
Respuesta
  • gas, air, amniotic
  • thromboembolism, fat embolism
  • arterial, venous
  • orthograde, retrograde, paradoxal

Pregunta 41

Pregunta
Indicate types of embolism according to the way of blood flow
Respuesta
  • gas, air, thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, parasite
  • orthograde, retrograde
  • arterial, venous
  • paradoxical

Pregunta 42

Pregunta
Indicate types of embolism according to the character of the obturated blood vessel
Respuesta
  • thromboembolism, amniotic, fat, gas, air embolism
  • arterial
  • venous
  • orthograde, retrograde, paradoxical

Pregunta 43

Pregunta
Is it possible to prevent embolism?
Respuesta
  • no, it is something we cannot control or prevent
  • yes, by using anticoagulants
  • yes, by exercise in bed ridden patient and early getting up from bed after operation
  • yes, by staying in bed without moving after operation

Pregunta 44

Pregunta
In which organ hemorrhagic infarction can develop?
Respuesta
  • in organs with nutritive and functional blood circulation
  • in organs with nutritive circulation only
  • in organs with many anastomoses
  • hemorrhagic infarction can develop in any organ

Pregunta 45

Pregunta
Indicate the organ(s) where hemorrhagic infarction is possible
Respuesta
  • liver
  • heart
  • lung
  • intestine

Pregunta 46

Pregunta
How can we prove amniotic embolism?
Respuesta
  • microscopically, by finding amniotic fluid in the left heart ventricle
  • grossly, by finding amniotic fluid in the right heart ventricle
  • microscopically, by finding amniotic particles such as lanugo, meconium etc. in the lungs
  • grossly, by finding amniotic particles in the lungs

Pregunta 47

Pregunta
Why does gas embolism develop?
Respuesta
  • because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially azotic oxide, caused by fast decompression
  • because of the dissolution of blood gases, especially type caused by fast compression
  • because the negative pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry
  • because the positive pressure of the opened blood vessels on the neck and head can lead to air entry

Pregunta 48

Pregunta
What is needed for the development of hemorrhagic infarction the lung?
Respuesta
  • double circulation of the lung
  • thrombosis of a branch of a. broncialis
  • thrombosis of a branch of a. pulmonalis
  • chronic venous stagnation

Pregunta 49

Pregunta
What is the most common cause for the development of anemic infarction of the brain?
Respuesta
  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri anterior
  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri media
  • thrombosis or embolism of a. cerebri posterior
  • thrombosis or embolism of a. basillaris

Pregunta 50

Pregunta
What is the gross appearance of a previous anemic infarction of the brain?
Respuesta
  • fresh liquefactive necrosis
  • brain cyst
  • brain pseudocyst
  • irregular red-coloured area

Pregunta 51

Pregunta
Indicate the correct statements
Respuesta
  • gangrene of the appendix and gangrenous appendicitis are synonyms of one same disease
  • severe inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis leads to necrosis, while in gangrene of the appendix the necrosis is ischemic
  • gangrene of the appendix means necrosis of the appendix while gangrenous appendicitis means severe purulent inflammation of the appendix without necrosis
  • inflammation in gangrenous appendicitis is a primary process, while in gangrene the inflammation is secondary after the necrosis

Pregunta 52

Pregunta
The gross appearance “Ribbon-like fibrin deposits on the pericardium” describes
Respuesta
  • chronic pericarditis
  • fibrinous myocarditis
  • fibrinous pericarditis
  • acute pericarditis

Pregunta 53

Pregunta
Which are the cells that infiltrate the whole thickness of the appendix in phlegmonous appendicitis?
Respuesta
  • lymphocytes and plasma cells
  • basophils
  • neutrophils
  • giant multinucleated cells

Pregunta 54

Pregunta
What is typical for purulent lepto-meningitis?
Respuesta
  • hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by lymphocytes
  • hyperemic vessels, infiltration of the soft brain membranes by neutrophils
  • yellow-green exudate seen usually on the convex side of the brain
  • clear cerebro-spinal fluid

Pregunta 55

Pregunta
Hydatid cysts affect most commonly
Respuesta
  • the brain
  • the heart
  • the spleen
  • the liver

Pregunta 56

Pregunta
Which is the second most commonly affected organ by hydatid cysts?
Respuesta
  • brain
  • liver
  • lung
  • kidney

Pregunta 57

Pregunta
The following description indicates: Focal aggregates in the form of nodules of cells with phagocytic ability. The diameter of these nodules is no more than 1-2mm, in many cases they are seen only microscopically
Respuesta
  • granulomas
  • metastases
  • polyps
  • granulation tissue

Pregunta 58

Pregunta
What type of necrosis develops in the tuberculous granuloma?
Respuesta
  • caseous necrosis
  • liquefactive necrosis
  • coagulative necrosis
  • fibrinoid necrosis

Pregunta 59

Pregunta
Which of the following cells are seen in tuberculomas?
Respuesta
  • Giant cells type Langhans
  • Epitheloid cells
  • Tuton giant cells
  • Lymphocytes

Pregunta 60

Pregunta
The giant cells type Langhans are derived from
Respuesta
  • macrophages
  • epitheloid cells
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes

Pregunta 61

Pregunta
Which giant cells have specific peripheral arrangement of the nuclei like horse-shoe?
Respuesta
  • Tuton giant cells
  • Foreign body giant cells
  • Langhans giant cells
  • None of the above

Pregunta 62

Pregunta
In which stage of syphilis do the specific luetic granulomas develop?
Respuesta
  • first
  • second
  • third
  • they develop in all stages

Pregunta 63

Pregunta
What type of necrosis develops in luetic granulomas?
Respuesta
  • clay-like
  • caseus
  • liquefactive
  • coagulative

Pregunta 64

Pregunta
What type of necrosis develops in the cat-scratch disease?
Respuesta
  • caseous
  • coagulative
  • liquefactive
  • gummous

Pregunta 65

Pregunta
Mark the correct answer(s) about actinomycosis
Respuesta
  • has three stages of development
  • has cervical, abdominal and thoracic forms
  • grossly, granular substance might be seen in the pus
  • grossly, rubbery lesions with central necrosis are seen in the affected organs

Pregunta 66

Pregunta
Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma. Lack of necrosis, abundance of epitheloid cell, Langhans cells, collagen fibres, Shaumann bodies
Respuesta
  • tuberculosis
  • sarcoidosis
  • rheumatism
  • syphilis

Pregunta 67

Pregunta
Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a grauloma: Gummous necrosis, surrounded by epitheloid cells, single Langhans cells, abundance of plasma cells, less lymphocytes, fibroblasts
Respuesta
  • tuberculosis
  • sarcoidosis
  • rheumatism
  • syphilis

Pregunta 68

Pregunta
The sulfur granule is characteristic for
Respuesta
  • tuberculosis
  • felinosis
  • actinomycosis
  • leprosy

Pregunta 69

Pregunta
Mark the correct diagnosis according to the following microscopic description of a granuloma. Fibrinoid necrosis, surrouned by abundant lymphocytes, plasma cells, many cells of Anichkov and pathognomonic cells of Aschoff
Respuesta
  • tuberculosis
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • syphilis
  • rheumatism

Pregunta 70

Pregunta
What histological changes could be seen in thyroid in Hashimoto thyroiditis
Respuesta
  • unchanged
  • infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells
  • fibrosis
  • formation of lymph follicles

Pregunta 71

Pregunta
The histological changes in Hashimoto thyroiditis affect
Respuesta
  • entire thyroid gland
  • markedly focal

Pregunta 72

Pregunta
The thyroid follicles in Hashimoto thyroiditis are
Respuesta
  • unchanged
  • dilated
  • polymorphous
  • smaller

Pregunta 73

Pregunta
What is hyper-granulation?
Respuesta
  • mature connective tissue
  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix/scar
  • greater amount of granulation tissue
  • none of the above

Pregunta 74

Pregunta
What Is a scar?
Respuesta
  • hypertrophic granulation tissue
  • mature connective tissue
  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix
  • none of the above

Pregunta 75

Pregunta
What is a keloid?
Respuesta
  • hypertrophic tumor-like cicatrix
  • mature connective tissue
  • greater amount of granulation tissue
  • none of the above

Pregunta 76

Pregunta
Which stain can be used to prove of scarring (cicatrix) of the heart?
Respuesta
  • Van Gieson
  • Perls
  • Congo Red
  • PAS

Pregunta 77

Pregunta
Which of the following could not be seen in rheumatoid nodules?
Respuesta
  • Fibrinoid necrosis
  • Epitheloid cells
  • Langhans cells
  • Lymphocytes

Pregunta 78

Pregunta
Indicate the correct statement(s) for the polyarteriitis nodosa
Respuesta
  • it is an autoimmune disease
  • it affects mostly the elastic arteries
  • there is accumulation of glucosaminoglycans in the vessel walls which can be demonstrated with metachromasia with Toluidin Bleu
  • the branches of the pulmonary arteries are affected

Pregunta 79

Pregunta
Anaphylactic hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Respuesta
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Hashimoto thyroiditis
  • Allergic rhinitis
  • Bronchial asthma

Pregunta 80

Pregunta
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Respuesta
  • Hashimoto thyroiditis
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Allergic rhinitis
  • Nodosal poyarteriitis

Pregunta 81

Pregunta
Immune complexes mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Respuesta
  • polyartheriitis nodosa
  • rheumatoid arthritis
  • hemolytic anemia
  • tuberculosis

Pregunta 82

Pregunta
Cell mediated hypersensitivity reactions are related to
Respuesta
  • Tuberculosis
  • Polyarteriitis nodosa
  • Bronchial asthma
  • Hashimoto thyroiditis

Pregunta 83

Pregunta
Which is the most common way of metastasizing of epithelial tumors?
Respuesta
  • by lymphatics (lymphogenic metastases)
  • with blood (hematogenic metastases)
  • by cerebrospinal fluid
  • none of the above

Pregunta 84

Pregunta
What is papilloma?
Respuesta
  • malignant tumor of the covering epithelium
  • benign tumor of glandular epithelium
  • benign tumor of cover type epithelium
  • benign soft tissue tumor

Pregunta 85

Pregunta
Indicate the correct characteristic(s) for papilloma
Respuesta
  • it has tree-like stroma covered by differentiated stratified squamous epithelium
  • it has tree-like stroma covered by undifferentiated squamous epithelium with signs of cell atypia
  • stroma and parenchyma are difficult to distinguish
  • it doesn’t have a capsule

Pregunta 86

Pregunta
What is the term used for malignant tumors of cover type epithelium?
Respuesta
  • adenocarcinoma
  • papilloma
  • carcinoma
  • sarcoma

Pregunta 87

Pregunta
What is the term used for malignant tumors of glandular type epithelial origin?
Respuesta
  • adenocarcinoma
  • adenoma
  • carcinoma
  • carcino-adenoma

Pregunta 88

Pregunta
What is the term used for benign tumors of glandular type epithelial origin?
Respuesta
  • papilloma
  • adenoma
  • teratoma
  • adenocarcinoma

Pregunta 89

Pregunta
Point the correct statement(s) about basal cell carcinoma
Respuesta
  • it develops only on the skin
  • it can develop at any place with squamous epithelium
  • it characterizes with early lymphogenic and hematogenic metastases
  • very often it recurs at the same place after surgery

Pregunta 90

Pregunta
Keratinized squamous cell carcinoma
Respuesta
  • develops only on the skin
  • can develop at any place with squamous epithelium
  • is highly undifferenciated malignant tumor
  • is a tumor composed of more differenciated cells with keratin production

Pregunta 91

Pregunta
What kind of structures are the cancer perls?
Respuesta
  • accumulation of keratin produced by more differentiated malignant cells originating from squamous epithelium
  • pink-coloured homogenous substance located in the centre of the tumor nests
  • accumulation of mucus produced by highly undifferentiated malignant cells located in the centre of the tumor nests
  • pink homogenous substance that accumulates in the stroma of the tumor

Pregunta 92

Pregunta
The gross appearance of which tumor is called “ulcus rodens”?
Respuesta
  • squamous cell carcinoma
  • melanoma
  • basal cell carcinoma
  • adenocarcinoma

Pregunta 93

Pregunta
Squamous cell carcinoma develops in the lung after
Respuesta
  • acute bronchitis
  • chronic bronchitis accompanied by metaplasia
  • bronchial asthma
  • inhalaton of a foreign body

Pregunta 94

Pregunta
Papillary carcinoma of the urinary bladder arises from
Respuesta
  • squamous epithelium
  • transitional epithelium
  • glandular epithelium
  • smooth musculature

Pregunta 95

Pregunta
What is carcinoma in situ?
Respuesta
  • malignant tumor limited to the epithelium above the basal membrane
  • malignant tumor destroying the basal membrane but spreading no more than 5mm below it
  • benign tumor limited to the basal membrane
  • benign tumor of a great size compressing the surrounding tissues

Pregunta 96

Pregunta
Which staining is used for proving mucus production from gelatinous adenocarcinoma?
Respuesta
  • Congo red
  • Toluidin bleu, metachromasia is demonstrated
  • PAS reaction with amylase control
  • Van Gieson

Pregunta 97

Pregunta
Pericanalicular and intracanalicular are types of
Respuesta
  • Ductal carcinoma of the breast
  • Paget’s disease
  • Renal cell carcinoma
  • Fibroadenoma

Pregunta 98

Pregunta
Kruckenberg tumors are
Respuesta
  • metastases from colon adenocarcinoma in the ovaries
  • metastases from pancreatic adenocarcinoma in the ovaries
  • metastases from gastric carcinoma in the ovaries
  • metastases from hepatocellular carcinoma in the ovaries

Pregunta 99

Pregunta
Pleomorphic adenoma could be seen mainly
Respuesta
  • in the parotid gland
  • in the minor salivary glands
  • in the stomach
  • in the thyroid gland

Pregunta 100

Pregunta
Indicate the correct statements about fibroadenoma of the breast
Respuesta
  • capsulated and lobulated tumor
  • non-capsulated malignant tumor with invasive growth
  • microscopically it has two types - intracanalicular and pericanalicular
  • seen in older women
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