All Pathophysiology Clicker questions

Descripción

NCLEX Nursing Test sobre All Pathophysiology Clicker questions, creado por Alison Coffey el 08/03/2019.
Alison Coffey
Test por Alison Coffey, actualizado hace más de 1 año
Alison Coffey
Creado por Alison Coffey hace más de 5 años
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Resumen del Recurso

Pregunta 1

Pregunta
Where does transcription take place?
Respuesta
  • Cytoplasm
  • Endoplasmic reticulum
  • Nucleus
  • Lysosomes

Pregunta 2

Pregunta
Where does translation take place?
Respuesta
  • Cytoplasm
  • Endoplasmic reticulum
  • Nucleus
  • Lysosomes

Pregunta 3

Pregunta
At the end of mitosis, how many chromosomes are there?
Respuesta
  • 23
  • 46
  • 52
  • 21

Pregunta 4

Pregunta
Which statement is true for meiosis?
Respuesta
  • Meiosis occurs from the splitting of haploid cells.
  • Meiosis creates 22 pairs of homologous chromosomes
  • Meiosis creates somatic cells
  • Meiosis creates gametes

Pregunta 5

Pregunta
What is this an example of: blonde hair, blue eyes, pale skin, short stature.
Respuesta
  • Genotype
  • Phenotype

Pregunta 6

Pregunta
What is this an example of: sickle cell disease or Down's Syndrome
Respuesta
  • Genotype
  • Phenotype

Pregunta 7

Pregunta
Which statement is true about X-linked recessive?
Respuesta
  • The trait is seen more in females
  • The father always gives the trait to the son
  • Females cannot carry the trait
  • The gene is passed from affected father to all daughters.

Pregunta 8

Pregunta
Who has a higher Total Body Water (TBW) percentage compared to body weight?
Respuesta
  • 9 month old child
  • 25 year old adult
  • 50 year old obese adult
  • 1 year old obese infant
  • 50 year old adult

Pregunta 9

Pregunta
Females have more body fat compared to males. Males have more muscle mass compared to females. Who will have a higher total body water (TBW)?
Respuesta
  • Males
  • Females

Pregunta 10

Pregunta
[blank_start]What[blank_end] is the main determinant of osmolality...which is also the most common type of solute in extracellular fluid?
Respuesta
  • Sodium

Pregunta 11

Pregunta
[blank_start]Potassium[blank_end] is the most common type of solute in the intracellular fluid.
Respuesta
  • Potassium

Pregunta 12

Pregunta
The [blank_start]sodium-potassium pump[blank_end] helps maintain balance of sodium and potassium. This requires [blank_start]ATP[blank_end].
Respuesta
  • sodium-potassium pump
  • ATP

Pregunta 13

Pregunta
If you block the venous system, such as in a blood clot, which statement is true about pressure in the VENOUS SYSTEM?
Respuesta
  • Oncotic pressure increases
  • Oncotic pressure remains neutral
  • Hydrostatic pressure increases
  • Hydrostatic pressure decreases

Pregunta 14

Pregunta
A person takes in 1500mL and voids 1500mL. Which statement is true?
Respuesta
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated

Pregunta 15

Pregunta
A person takes in 3000mL and voids 1500mL. Which statement is true?
Respuesta
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated

Pregunta 16

Pregunta
A patient is admitted with congestive heart failure and you hear crackles in the lungs. Which statement reflects this patient's fluid status?
Respuesta
  • They are hydrated
  • Decreased fluid volume
  • Fluid volume excess

Pregunta 17

Pregunta
In a person with high blood sugar, such as a diabetic, which statement is likely true for their fluid status?
Respuesta
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated

Pregunta 18

Pregunta
In a patient with tachycardia and hypotension, which of the following statements is likely true regarding their fluid status.
Respuesta
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated

Pregunta 19

Pregunta
Patient complaining of thirst with poor skin turgor
Respuesta
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated.

Pregunta 20

Pregunta
Patient has pitting edema
Respuesta
  • They are hydrated
  • They are dehydrated
  • They are over hydrated

Pregunta 21

Pregunta
Who is at higher risk for dehydration?
Respuesta
  • An obese infant < 1 year
  • An obese 30 year old
  • An obese 50 year old
  • An obese 70 year old

Pregunta 22

Pregunta
Which is a complication of edema?
Respuesta
  • Wounds heal slowly
  • Weight loss
  • Temperature increases
  • Decreased Blood Pressure

Pregunta 23

Pregunta
What happens when you give a person who is dehydrated a hypertonic solution?
Respuesta
  • Decreased capillary oncotic pressure
  • Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
  • Intracellular dehydration
  • Extracellular dehydration

Pregunta 24

Pregunta
What type of solution would you use to treat someone who is dehydrated?
Respuesta
  • Hypertonic
  • Hypotonic
  • Isotonic

Pregunta 25

Pregunta
A patients pH is 7.31. This is:
Respuesta
  • Acidosis
  • Alkalosis
  • Normal

Pregunta 26

Pregunta
Which is fastest at acid-base compensation?
Respuesta
  • The lungs
  • The kidneys
  • The heart

Pregunta 27

Pregunta
Your patient has the following results from an ABG test: pH 7.14, PaCO2 52, HCO3 25. Which of the following describes this patient?
Respuesta
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis

Pregunta 28

Pregunta
Your patient has the following results from an ABG test: pH 7.14, PaCO2 41, HCO3 18. Which of the following describes this patient?
Respuesta
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis

Pregunta 29

Pregunta
I can have hypoxemia but not be anemic.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 30

Pregunta
I can be anemic and not be hypoxic.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 31

Pregunta
I can have hypoxia without being anemic.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 32

Pregunta
You can never have hypoxemia, anemia, AND hypoxia.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 33

Pregunta
Which is an example of an acute inflammation?
Respuesta
  • Syphilis
  • Tuberculosis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Infection

Pregunta 34

Pregunta
Who is the first WBC responder to a site of injury?
Respuesta
  • Lymphocytes
  • Monocytes
  • Basophils
  • Neutrophils

Pregunta 35

Pregunta
Which of the following statements is not true about B and T lymphocytes?
Respuesta
  • Lymphocytes are part of the adaptive immunity
  • They endow the body with long-term immunity
  • Lymphocytes make up 20-35% of circulating WBCs
  • They are the first line of defense

Pregunta 36

Pregunta
Which of the following is not a WBC?
Respuesta
  • Platelets
  • Monocytes
  • T-cells
  • Granulocytes

Pregunta 37

Pregunta
Hematologic cancers like leukemia cause:
Respuesta
  • Leukopenia
  • Leukocytosis
  • Lymphoma
  • Hemoptysis

Pregunta 38

Pregunta
Which cells make antibodies?
Respuesta
  • Cytotoxic cells
  • Monocytes
  • T-cells
  • B-cells

Pregunta 39

Pregunta
What occurs during multiple myeloma?
Respuesta
  • Increase in osteoblast activity
  • Increase in osteoclast activity
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Decreased GI absorption

Pregunta 40

Pregunta
Allergies are which type of hypersensitivity?
Respuesta
  • Type I
  • Type II
  • Type III
  • Type IV

Pregunta 41

Pregunta
What laboratory test determines what medication will destroy an organism?
Respuesta
  • Urinalysis?
  • Complete blood count
  • Culture and sensitivity
  • Antibody titer

Pregunta 42

Pregunta
An overreaction of the immune systems is also called:
Respuesta
  • Lymphoma
  • Leukemia
  • Leukopenia
  • Hypersensitivity reaction

Pregunta 43

Pregunta
Which test is the earliest indicator for HIV?
Respuesta
  • ELISA
  • CD4 count
  • CD8 count
  • RNA assay

Pregunta 44

Pregunta
How is cholesterol obtained?
Respuesta
  • Liver and gall bladder synthesis
  • Liver synthesis only
  • Diet and gall bladder synthesis
  • Diet and liver synthesis

Pregunta 45

Pregunta
Which of the following accurately identifies risk factors for cardiovascular disease?
Respuesta
  • Male gender, Family history of CV disease, Obesity, history of tobacco use
  • Family history of CV disease, history of autoimmune disease, female gender
  • Female gender, history of tobacco use, low stress
  • Male gender, history of tobacco use, lack of exercise, history of traumatic brain injury

Pregunta 46

Pregunta
When blood flows from a larger area of vessel diameter to a smaller area of diameter, blood pressure:
Respuesta
  • Increases
  • Decreases
  • Does not change

Pregunta 47

Pregunta
Stimulation of the SNS does what to heart rate?
Respuesta
  • Decreases it
  • Increases it
  • Does not change

Pregunta 48

Pregunta
Cardiac output is determined by:
Respuesta
  • PVR and HR
  • HR and BP
  • BP and pulse pressure
  • PVR and BP

Pregunta 49

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT considered a secondary cause of HTN?
Respuesta
  • Coarctation of the aorta
  • Brain tumor
  • Pneumonia
  • Chronic kidney disease

Pregunta 50

Pregunta
Which client meets the definition of orthostatic hypotension?
Respuesta
  • Client 1: BP laying 130/90, Standing 121/90
  • Client 2: BP laying 118/80, standing 120/80
  • Client 3: BP laying 140/90, standing 130/80
  • Client 4: BP laying 112/76, standing 112/70

Pregunta 51

Pregunta
Which of the following is true regarding aortic dissection?
Respuesta
  • Females are more affected than males
  • Males are more affected than femals
  • Both sexes are affected equally by the condition

Pregunta 52

Pregunta
What is the most common symptom of Peripheral Artery Disease?
Respuesta
  • Intermittent claudication
  • Chest Pain
  • Difficulty breathing
  • Cyanotic extremeties

Pregunta 53

Pregunta
Which of the following statements is true regarding circulation?
Respuesta
  • The pulmonary system is high pressure and the systemic system is low pressure.
  • Both systems are low pressure
  • The pulmonary system is low pressure and the systemic system is high pressure
  • Both systems are high pressure

Pregunta 54

Pregunta
Which statement best differentiates cardiac afterload from cardiac preload?
Respuesta
  • Cardiac afterload is the volume of blood in the heart at the end of diastole
  • Cardiac afterload is the amount of resistance that the ventricle must overcome
  • Cardiac afterload is the factor that affects cardiac output
  • Cardiac afterload is the amount of blood that enters the right atrium

Pregunta 55

Pregunta
Which symptom is present in right sided heart failure?
Respuesta
  • Blood in the lungs
  • Respiratory problems
  • Cyanosis
  • Edema in ankles and feet

Pregunta 56

Pregunta
Which symptom is present in left sided heart failure?
Respuesta
  • Cyanosis
  • Ascites
  • Leg edema
  • Swelling in hands

Pregunta 57

Pregunta
How is systolic dysfunction different from diastolic dysfunction?
Respuesta
  • In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle has difficulty ejecting blood out of the chamber.
  • In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle has difficulty relaxing and is unable to expand fully
  • In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle pumps out insufficient blood volume.
  • In systolic dysfunction, the ventricle has low blood volume.

Pregunta 58

Pregunta
Which lobe would a patient most commonly aspirate into, due to its anatomical position?
Respuesta
  • RML
  • RLL
  • LLL
  • LUL

Pregunta 59

Pregunta
Each hemoglobin molecule can carry [blank_start]4[blank_end] oxygen molecules
Respuesta
  • 4

Pregunta 60

Pregunta
When PO2 falls below [blank_start]60[blank_end] mmHg, hemoglobin quickly drops off all oxygen molecules.
Respuesta
  • 60

Pregunta 61

Pregunta
Ventilation-perfusion mismatching occurs wen air cannot flow into an alveolus or blood flow around an alveolus is altered. One of the most common etiologies for this is:
Respuesta
  • Pneumonia
  • Pulmonary Embolism
  • Atelectasis
  • Pulmonary hypertension

Pregunta 62

Pregunta
The most common virus to cause community acquired pneumonia is:
Respuesta
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Mycoplasma
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

Pregunta 63

Pregunta
Hospital Acquired Pneumonia is a common cause of mortality for hospital patients. What is the most common microbe in this type of pneumonia?
Respuesta
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Mycoplasma
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Klebsiella

Pregunta 64

Pregunta
Right ventricular failure caused by pulmonary disease is also known as:
Respuesta
  • Aortic stenosis
  • Cyanosis
  • Cor pulmonale
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy

Pregunta 65

Pregunta
A spirometer measures the amount of air moved into and out of the lungs. The maximal amount of air exhaled is called:
Respuesta
  • FEV-1
  • FVC
  • Tidal Volume
  • FEV-1/FVC ratio

Pregunta 66

Pregunta
The most common cause of pulmonary edema is:
Respuesta
  • Left ventricular heart failure
  • Right ventricular heart failure
  • Pleural effusion
  • Pulmonary embolism

Pregunta 67

Pregunta
Playing tennis is more likely to cause a:
Respuesta
  • Strain
  • Sprain

Pregunta 68

Pregunta
Playing football is more likely to cause a:
Respuesta
  • Strain
  • Sprain

Pregunta 69

Pregunta
Which diagnostic test is best to see soft tissue damage?
Respuesta
  • Ultrasound
  • CT
  • X-Ray
  • MRI

Pregunta 70

Pregunta
What is true of bursitis?
Respuesta
  • It is caused by overuse of the tendon
  • It is caused by damage of the ligaments and bone
  • It is caused by underuse of the muscles
  • It is caused by inflammation of the bursa

Pregunta 71

Pregunta
Where are you more likely to see melanomas?
Respuesta
  • Face
  • Back of hands
  • Forearms
  • Lower Legs

Pregunta 72

Pregunta
What is the difference between allergic dermatitis and irritant dermatitis?
Respuesta
  • Irritant dermatitis is contagious to others if they have an open wound.
  • Irritant dermatitis is an immunological inflammatory process
  • Allergic dermatitis is the most common type of dermatitis
  • Allergic dermatitis initiates a cell-mediated response

Pregunta 73

Pregunta
Your patient is a 20 year old male who just started a new running program. What type of fracture would you expect to find?
Respuesta
  • Stress fracture
  • Insufficiency fracture
  • Pathological fracture
  • Tendinopathy

Pregunta 74

Pregunta
If our osteoclasts work faster than our osteoblasts as you get older, you are at risk for:
Respuesta
  • Increased bone production
  • Fractures
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Compartment syndrome

Pregunta 75

Pregunta
A 78 year old female has a fracture of her pelvis. The likely cause is:
Respuesta
  • Trauma
  • Exercise
  • Osteoporosis
  • Osteoarthritis

Pregunta 76

Pregunta
What type of fracture would you expect from a 78 year old female with osteoporosis?
Respuesta
  • Open
  • Pathologic
  • Subluxation
  • Greenstick

Pregunta 77

Pregunta
Your patient with a right hand fracture is complaining of severe right hand pain and has numbness and tingling. You suspect:
Respuesta
  • This is a normal process of healing
  • Compartment syndrome
  • The fracture has increased
  • An altered inflammatory response leading to excessive fluid accumulation

Pregunta 78

Pregunta
A 56 year old male with a recent history of a right hip repair after a fall is admitted for SOB and tachycardia. What do you think is occurring?
Respuesta
  • A pneumothorax?
  • Hemorrhagic anemia
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Pulmonary embolism

Pregunta 79

Pregunta
You overhear the doctor say the patient has a dowager's hump. You know that this is:
Respuesta
  • A life threatening condition
  • The same as kyphosis
  • The same as a bursae
  • Caused by tendonitis

Pregunta 80

Pregunta
Lice can "jump or fly" so just being around someone puts you at risk for getting lice.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 81

Pregunta
The number one cause of a hemorrhagic stroke is:
Respuesta
  • Heart valve defect
  • Smoking
  • Diabetes
  • Hypertension

Pregunta 82

Pregunta
Which of the following symptoms would you almost always see if your patient developed a subarachnoid hemorrhage?
Respuesta
  • Blurred vision
  • Decreased blood pressure
  • Worst headache of their life
  • Upper extremity paralysis

Pregunta 83

Pregunta
Select all of the following risk factors for a stroke:
Respuesta
  • Family history
  • Hypertension
  • Previous stroke
  • Cancer
  • Obesity
  • High Cholesterol
  • Heavy alcohol use
  • Diabetes Mellitus
  • Diabetes Insipidus
  • Atrial Fibrillation

Pregunta 84

Pregunta
If a patient had a TIA, which statement is always true?
Respuesta
  • They had an ischemic episode
  • They had ischemia
  • They had a blood clot but then it moved
  • Irreversible damage has occurred

Pregunta 85

Pregunta
You are taking care of a newly admitted patient who had neural tissue death on CT scan, but all of his symptoms have resolved. What is the best answer to tell him about his diagnosis?
Respuesta
  • He had a TIA because his symptoms resolved
  • He had an ischemic attack with death of brain tissue
  • He had a stroke with death of brain tissue
  • He had a TIA which is lack of oxygen to the brain

Pregunta 86

Pregunta
Your patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage has issues with their CSF because of:
Respuesta
  • Limited reabsorption
  • Decreased production
  • Constricted blood vessels
  • Impaired venous system

Pregunta 87

Pregunta
According to the TNM system, stage the following: A 2.5 cm tumor in the R breast, palpable lymph nodes, and a CT scan that reveals metastasis in the liver.
Respuesta
  • T1, N0, M0
  • T2, N1, M1
  • T1, N1, M1
  • T2, N0, M1

Pregunta 88

Pregunta
Cancer cells are suited for metastasis because they secrete:
Respuesta
  • Proto-oncogenes
  • Endothelin
  • Von Willebrand factor
  • Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor

Pregunta 89

Pregunta
This form of lung cancer grows rapidly, and often has already metastasized when the patient presents to their PCP
Respuesta
  • Lung cancer in situ
  • Small cell lung cancer
  • Non-small cell lung cancer

Pregunta 90

Pregunta
An individual who smoked 2 packs per day from age 20-60 has a(n) [blank_start]80[blank_end] pack year history.
Respuesta
  • 80

Pregunta 91

Pregunta
Both BRCA1 and BRCA2 have defective ________.
Respuesta
  • Tumor suppressor genes
  • Proto-oncogenes
  • Oncogenes
  • Both A and B

Pregunta 92

Pregunta
Most breast cancer lesions are found in this quadrant of the breast
Respuesta
  • Upper Inner
  • Upper Outer
  • Lower Inner
  • Lower Outer

Pregunta 93

Pregunta
Which of the following accurately depicts symptoms of liver cancer?
Respuesta
  • Weight gain, fever, increased appetite, pulmonary edema
  • Weight loss, increased appetite, vision changes
  • Weight loss, fever, ascites, jaundice
  • Weight loss, chest pain, dyspnea

Pregunta 94

Pregunta
The most common GI disorder in the US is:
Respuesta
  • GERD
  • IBD
  • Pyloric Stenosis
  • Cirrhosis

Pregunta 95

Pregunta
GERD is most commonly present in which patient populations?
Respuesta
  • Infants and adults over 40
  • Infants and teenaged children
  • Adults over 40 and patients with neuro disorders
  • Adults over 65 years old

Pregunta 96

Pregunta
Your patient is admitted for Upper GI bleed. Their SBP has decreased from 132 to 110 and their heart rate has increased from 84 to 108. You can anticipate the provider will order as the priority intervention:
Respuesta
  • Fluids to prevent impending shock
  • Platelets to help blood clot
  • H2 blockers for stomach acid secretion
  • Albumin to pull fluid

Pregunta 97

Pregunta
You are assigned to care for a patient that will be admitted for a chronic upper GI bleed. What signs and symptoms or findings will you expect?
Respuesta
  • Increased BP and elevated Hgb
  • Decreased BP and bradycardia
  • Decreased BP and flushed skin
  • Decreased BP and fatigue

Pregunta 98

Pregunta
A patient says, "I have had abdominal pain, bloating, visual changes, and bone pain over the past 3-6 months." On assessment, the nurse finds: weight loss and suspects an autoimmune hypersensitivity disorder. Which test does the nurse recommend for further confirmation?
Respuesta
  • Serology celiac panel
  • CT of abdomen
  • Ultrasound
  • Barium contrast series

Pregunta 99

Pregunta
Which is the most common etiologic agent of gastroenteritis in adults?
Respuesta
  • Escherichia coli (E.Coli)
  • Candida albicans
  • Norovirus
  • Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori)

Pregunta 100

Pregunta
Pancreatitis is commonly caused by
Respuesta
  • Cigarette smoking
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Biliary tract disease and alcohol abuse
  • Hyperlipidemia and HTN

Pregunta 101

Pregunta
Which is a normal urine output?
Respuesta
  • 10-30 mL/hr
  • 30-60 mL/hr
  • 400 mL per hour for 4 hours
  • 100 mL/hr

Pregunta 102

Pregunta
Which of the following are not common manifestations of a UTI
Respuesta
  • Fever
  • Urgency
  • Confusion in the elderly
  • Dysuria

Pregunta 103

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a sign of nephrotic syndrome?
Respuesta
  • Hypertension
  • Low oncotic pressure
  • Ascites
  • Urinary obstruction
  • Pleural effusion

Pregunta 104

Pregunta
Which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of renal colic?
Respuesta
  • Proteinuria
  • Nausea
  • Pain
  • Fever

Pregunta 105

Pregunta
If someone says they have flank pain, this is associated with:
Respuesta
  • Problem with the liver
  • Problem with the kidney
  • Problem with a small bladder
  • Problem with chronic back pain

Pregunta 106

Pregunta
Who is the least likely to get a UTI?
Respuesta
  • Spinal cord injury patient
  • Someone with kidney stones
  • An elderly women
  • A person with pneumonia
  • Diabetic patient

Pregunta 107

Pregunta
Who is more at risk for UTI?
Respuesta
  • Men
  • Women

Pregunta 108

Pregunta
What lab values would you expect with glomerulonephritis?
Respuesta
  • Increase serum creatinine, decrease GFR
  • Increase serum creatinine, increased GFR
  • Decreased serum creatinine, decreased GFR
  • Decreased serum creatinine, increased GFR

Pregunta 109

Pregunta
In acute kidney injury, which type of acid base abnormality would you expect to see?
Respuesta
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis

Pregunta 110

Pregunta
What happens with fluid and electrolytes shifts with chronic kidney injury?
Respuesta
  • Intracellular dehydration
  • Decreased extracellular fluid
  • Increased extracellular fluid

Pregunta 111

Pregunta
Glomerular filtration rate does not provide information on the cause of the kidney disease.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 112

Pregunta
Endocrine disorders are easy to diagnose by the clinical manifestations.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 113

Pregunta
When can someone develop a goiter?
Respuesta
  • Thyroid hypofunction
  • Thyroid hyperfunction
  • Either thyroid hypo/hyperfunction
  • None of the above

Pregunta 114

Pregunta
What is this a picture of?
Respuesta
  • Goiter
  • Exophthalamous
  • Graves dermopathy

Pregunta 115

Pregunta
What is this a picture of?
Respuesta
  • Goiter
  • Exophthalmous
  • Graves Dermopathy

Pregunta 116

Pregunta
What is this a picture of?
Respuesta
  • Goiter
  • Exophtalmous
  • Graves Dermopathy

Pregunta 117

Pregunta
In primary adrenal insufficiency, adrenal cortical hormone levels are:
Respuesta
  • High
  • Low
  • Not affected

Pregunta 118

Pregunta
In primary adrenal insufficiency, how much damage has occurred to the adrenal glands before it is diagnosed?
Respuesta
  • 20%
  • 40%
  • 60%
  • 90%

Pregunta 119

Pregunta
Cushing disease and Cushing syndrome are the same thing.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 120

Pregunta
Cushing disease refers to:
Respuesta
  • Increased cortisol due to a thyroid tumor
  • Increased cortisol due to medications
  • Increased ACTH due to a tumor
  • Decreased cortisol due to medications

Pregunta 121

Pregunta
The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is:
Respuesta
  • Increased cortisol due to a tumor
  • Increased cortisol due to medications
  • Increased ACTH due to a tumor
  • Decreased cortisol due to medications

Pregunta 122

Pregunta
Why is the TSH elevated with hypothyroidism?
Respuesta
  • Due to positive feedback
  • Due to negative feedback
  • Due to hypothalamus not working
  • Due to adrenal glands not working

Pregunta 123

Pregunta
Which of the following is not a reason people can get SIADH
Respuesta
  • Cancer
  • Traumatic brain injury
  • Tylenol
  • Pneumonia

Pregunta 124

Pregunta
Which disease would have a urine [Na] that is high?
Respuesta
  • SIADH
  • DI
  • Addison's disease
  • Hyperthyroidism

Pregunta 125

Pregunta
Which disease would have a serum [Na] that is high?
Respuesta
  • SIADH
  • DI
  • Addison's disease
  • Hyperthyroidism

Pregunta 126

Pregunta
Which disease would you expect hyponatremia?
Respuesta
  • Grave's Disease
  • Addison's Disease
  • Hashimotos

Pregunta 127

Pregunta
A person who is thin and young can only have Type I Diabetes.
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 128

Pregunta
Which of the following accurately identifies the metabolic syndrome?
Respuesta
  • Elevated waist circumference, increased HDL, reduced triglycerides
  • Reduced HDL, elevated triglycerides, and increased waist circumference
  • Reduced HDL and waist circumference with increased BP
  • Elevated triglycerides, decreased waist circumference, decreased BP

Pregunta 129

Pregunta
The best test to assess a patient's glucose level over the past few months is:
Respuesta
  • Finger stick test while in the office
  • Basic metabolic panel
  • Hemoglobin A1C
  • Complete Blood Count

Pregunta 130

Pregunta
All of the following are complications of DM except:
Respuesta
  • Diabetic retinopathy
  • Renal disease
  • Increased susceptibility to infection
  • Increased incidence of cholelithiasis

Pregunta 131

Pregunta
All of the following are true regarding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation, except:
Respuesta
  • DIC is most commonly caused by sepsis and shock
  • DIC causes severe bleeding
  • DIC causes blood clotting
  • DIC is diagnosed by a high platelet count

Pregunta 132

Pregunta
Which of the following is one way sickle cell anemia can cause disease?
Respuesta
  • Sickled cells occlude the blood vessels preventing transportation of oxygen to tissues and organs
  • Sickled cells cause vasodilation, leading to hypotension
  • Red blood cells affected by sickle cell anemia have a longer than average lifespan, which results in a deterioration of oxygen carrying capacity
  • Sickled cells do not cause secondary complications, such as stroke and myocardial infarcion

Pregunta 133

Pregunta
A patient is suspected of having systemic lupus erythmatous. The nurse monitors her, knowing that which of the following is one of the initial characteristic signs of SLE?
Respuesta
  • Low temperature reading
  • Weight gain
  • Elevated RBC's
  • Rash on the face and across the bridge of the nose

Pregunta 134

Pregunta
How do you develop shingles?
Respuesta
  • Receiving the varicella vaccine
  • Through exposure to someone with shingles in the blister phase and subsequently contracting the varicella zoster virus
  • Varicella zoster virus
  • All of the above

Pregunta 135

Pregunta
Dilated cardiomyopathy can cause heart failure due to?
Respuesta
  • Left ventricle atrophy
  • Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
  • Increased systolic dysfunction
  • Thickening of the cardiac ventricle walls

Pregunta 136

Pregunta
What is the most common cause of mitral valve prolapse?
Respuesta
  • Middle age
  • Excess valve tissue
  • Stiffening of the valve
  • Bacterial or viral infection within the valve

Pregunta 137

Pregunta
In ventral septal defect, children may initially present with hypertrophy of the:
Respuesta
  • Liver
  • Right ventricle
  • Left ventricle
  • Spleen

Pregunta 138

Pregunta
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a combination of four cardiac defects. Which of the four is least responsible for the hypoxia that results from the condition?
Respuesta
  • Pulmonary artery stenosis
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy
  • Ventral septal defect
  • Overriding large ascending aorta

Pregunta 139

Pregunta
What is the primary cause of inflammation in endocarditis?
Respuesta
  • Valve malfunction
  • Normal wear and tear
  • Bacterial vegetations
  • Heart murmurs

Pregunta 140

Pregunta
Which of the following is a risk factor for Chlamydia?
Respuesta
  • Unprotected sexual intercourse
  • Swimming in public pools and freshwater lakes
  • Receiving a blood transfusion
  • Sharing a beverage with someone who has chlamydia

Pregunta 141

Pregunta
Herpes Simplex Virus 2 can be transmitted:
Respuesta
  • When you have genital sores
  • When you have sores in your mouth
  • When you don't have sores
  • From mother to fetus
  • All of the above

Pregunta 142

Pregunta
What is the body's response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection in the lungs?
Respuesta
  • Pulmonary capillary damage leads to alveolar injury
  • Macrophages release enzymes that cause lung tissue necrosis
  • Hyperglycemia results, leading to diabetic ketoacidosis
  • Fluid builds up in the alveoli, impairing oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange, leading to hypoxia

Pregunta 143

Pregunta
Cystic Fibrosis mainly affects which body system?
Respuesta
  • Circulatory
  • Respiratory
  • Digestive
  • Nervous
  • B and C

Pregunta 144

Pregunta
When Bordetella pertussis is inhaled, the pertussis toxin is released. What does this toxin do to the airways?
Respuesta
  • Large toxins cause airway obstruction in the alvioli
  • Dilates airways
  • Causes airway inflammation
  • Causes pulmonary edema

Pregunta 145

Pregunta
What are some common causes of gout?
Respuesta
  • Excessive alcohol consumption
  • Family history
  • Purine rich diet
  • Active Lifestyle
  • A, B, and C

Pregunta 146

Pregunta
Which is not a typical symptom of psoriasis?
Respuesta
  • Bleeding gums
  • Red, thickened patches of skin
  • Silver white scales
  • Flaky skin

Pregunta 147

Pregunta
Huntington disease is...
Respuesta
  • Caused by a genetic defect in which the DNA unnecessarily repeats the CAG sequence
  • An autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disease
  • An X-linked dominant disease, more common in males
  • A disorder of the central nervous system that affects movement and occurs primarily in children

Pregunta 148

Pregunta
The following is not among early or late clinical problems associated with with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis:
Respuesta
  • Difficulties with ADLs
  • Dyspnea and associated breathing problems
  • Slurred speech
  • High urine output

Pregunta 149

Pregunta
Diane is 70 years old and was recently diagnosed with Alzheimer's Disease. It was identified as the "early stage" and she is very worried about the diagnosis since she witnessed her mother experience the disease as well. What changes in the brain would we see in Diane?
Respuesta
  • An increase in brain size
  • Neurofibrillary tangles and beta-amyloid plaques in the brain
  • Increased cellular communication and repair
  • Decrease in pineal gland size

Pregunta 150

Pregunta
Which of the following scenarios would NOT lead to peritonitis?
Respuesta
  • A case of untreated appendicitis
  • Pneumothorax following pneumocystic pneumonia infection
  • Unhygienic peritoneal dialysis
  • An infected fallopian tube

Pregunta 151

Pregunta
What is not true about neonatal jaundice?
Respuesta
  • Most babies experience some form of jaundice
  • The skin turns yellow due to build-up of bilirubin in the blood
  • Most babies are still jaundiced after one month of age
  • If the baby is not eating well, they have a higher risk of the condition

Pregunta 152

Pregunta
Why is mid-back pain associated with pyelonephritis and not a lower urinary tract infections?
Respuesta
  • Inflammation of the kidneys causes tenderness mid-back
  • Pyelonephritis is more common in older adults
  • Increased urination causes back pain
  • Mid-back pain is not associated with pyelonephritis

Pregunta 153

Pregunta
What is the difference between Cushing's disease and Cushing's syndrome?
Respuesta
  • Cushing's Syndrome is caused by hyperactive adrenal gland, secreting excess cortisol
  • Cushing's Syndrome can result from Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
  • Cushing's Disease is a result of an ACTH-secreting pituitary tumor, resulting in excess cortisol
  • Both A and C

Pregunta 154

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an effect of elevated parathyroid hormone secretion?
Respuesta
  • Serum calcium is increased due to bone resorption
  • Intestinal absorption of calcium is decreased
  • Extra calcium is built up in the kidneys, causing stones
  • Excretion of calcium through urination is decreased
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