2402614
Descripción
Test por Reuben Moore, actualizado hace más de 1 año
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Creado por Reuben Moore
hace más de 9 años
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|
Pregunta 1
Pregunta
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
Respuesta
-
The 0 degree line of latitude passes through Greenwich England.
-
Line of longitude cross the equator at right angles.
-
Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
What is the approximate latitude and longitude of Cooperstown Airport?
***Refer to printed full sized reference****
Respuesta
-
47 Degrees 25 minutes North - 98 Degrees 6 minutes West.
-
47 Degrees 55 minutes North - 98 Degrees 6 minutes West.
-
47 Degrees 25 minutes N -99 Degrees 54 minutes West.
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a ?
Respuesta
-
Visual checkpoint used to identify position for initial callup to Norfolk Approach Control.
-
Compulsory reporting point for Hampton Roads Airport.
-
Compulsory reporting point for Norfolk Class C airspace.
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
What type of military flight operations should pilot expect along IR 644?
***Refer to Hard copy PDF***
Respuesta
-
VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots.
-
Instruments training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.
-
IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
Respuesta
-
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
-
Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.
-
High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is?
Respuesta
-
126.0 Mhz
-
133.4 Mhz
-
122.95 Mhz
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
Which public use airport depicted are indicated as having fuel?
***Refer to Hard copy PDF***
Respuesta
-
Mercer County Regional Airport (Area 3) and Garrison (Area 2).
-
Minot Int'l (Area 1) and Garrison (Area 2).
-
Minot Int'l (Area 1).
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Respuesta
-
Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
-
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
-
Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nm southwest of Savannah International?
Respuesta
-
1,532 feet AGL
-
1,500 feet MSL.
-
1,549 feet MSL.
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has?
Respuesta
-
Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
-
Received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.
-
Filed an IFR flight plan.
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
If Redbird Tower is not in operation, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
Respuesta
-
126.35 MHz
-
120.3 MHz
-
122.95 MHZ
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
Respuesta
-
135.075 MHz.
-
122.05 MHz.
-
122.8 MHz.
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
Respuesta
-
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet MSL.
-
Unmarked balloon on cable to 3,000 feet AGL.
-
Unmarked blimp hangers at 300 feet MSL.
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the?
Respuesta
-
Graphic Notices and Supplemental Data.
-
Airport/Facility Directory.
-
NOTAMs.
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is?
Respuesta
-
190 feet.
-
19 feet.
-
216 feet.
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
Respuesta
-
47 degrees 24 Minutes N - 75 Degrees 58 Minutes West.
-
36 Degrees 48 minutes North - 76 Degrees 1 Minute West.
-
36 Degrees 24 Minutes North - 76 Degrees 1 Minute West.
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are?
Respuesta
-
Visual checkpoints to identify position for initial callup prior to entering Savannah Class C airspace.
-
Airports with special traffic patterns.
-
Out boundaries of Savannah Class C airspace.
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
The CTAF/MULTICOM frequency for Garrison Airport is?
Respuesta
-
122.9 MHz.
-
123.0 MHz.
-
122.8 MHz.
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
What is the recommended communications procedure for a landing at Currituck County Airport?
Respuesta
-
Transmit intentions on 122.9 when 10 miles out and give position reports in the traffic pattern.
-
Contact New Bern FSS for area traffic information.
-
Contact Elizabeth City FSS for airport advisory service.
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
Which airport is located at approximately 47 degrees 21 minutes N latitude and 101 degrees 1 minute West longitude?
Respuesta
-
Evenson.
-
Underwood.
-
Washburn.
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
if air traffic control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code?
Respuesta
-
4096
-
1200
-
0000
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
Respuesta
-
Class D and Class G (below 10,000 MSL).
-
Class A, Class B, (and withing 30 nm of the Class B primary airport), and Class C
-
Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
Respuesta
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0700, 1700, 7000
-
7500, 7600, 7700
-
1200, 1500, 7000
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which altimeter code should be selected?
Respuesta
-
Mode F, Code 1200
-
Mode 3/A, Code 1200
-
Mode C, Code 4096
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on?
Respuesta
-
A properly functioning thermostat.
-
The circulation of lubricating oil.
-
Air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to?
Respuesta
-
Increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
-
Decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increased air density.
-
Decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreased air density.
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
Applying carburetor heat will?
Respuesta
-
Enrich the fuel/air mixture.
-
result in more air going through the carburetor.
-
Not affect the fuel/air mixture.
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto?
Respuesta
-
May continue to fire.
-
Will not operate because the battery is disconnected from the circuit.
-
Will not operate.
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed pitch propeller) is detonating during climb out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to?
Respuesta
-
Lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
-
Apply carburetor heat.
-
Lean the mixture.
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
Which of the following is a true statement concerning electrical systems?
Respuesta
-
The master switch provides current to the electrical system.
-
The airspeed indicator is driven by the electrical system.
-
Lights and radios use the electrical system for power.
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause?
Respuesta
-
Lower cylinder head temperature.
-
A mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
-
Detonation.
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when?
Respuesta
-
The unburned charge in the cylinder explodes instead of burning normally.
-
Hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
-
The spark plugs are fouled or shorted out of the wiring is defective.
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used.
Respuesta
-
All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
-
In the event the engine driven pump fails.
-
Constantly except in starting the engine.
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
Respuesta
-
The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
-
The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.
-
There will be more fuel in the cylinder than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
Respuesta
-
Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
-
Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
-
Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would?
Respuesta
-
Experience avionics equipment failure.
-
Probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.
-
Probably experience failure of the engine ignition system system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, and avionics equipment.
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
Respuesta
-
Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
-
Test each brake and the parking brakes.
-
Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting?
Respuesta
-
A decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
-
An increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
-
A decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller is to?
Respuesta
-
Always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.
-
Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
-
Avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
The operating principle of float type carburetors is based on the?
Respuesta
-
Automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
-
Increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
-
Difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as?
Respuesta
-
Combustion.
-
Detonation.
-
Pre-ignition.
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be?
Respuesta
-
More susceptible to icing.
-
Equally susceptible to incing.
-
Susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed pitch propeller and a float type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be?
Respuesta
-
A drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
-
Loss of RPM
-
Engine roughness.
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with?
Respuesta
-
The mixture set too rich.
-
Higher than normal oil pressure.
-
Too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
Respuesta
-
Using fuel that has a lower than specified fuel rating.
-
Using fuel that has a higher than specified fuel rating.
-
Operating with higher than normal oil pressure.
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
Excessively high engine temperatures will?
Respuesta
-
Cause a loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
-
Cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinders cooling fins.
-
Not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
An abnormally high engine temperature indication may be caused by?
Respuesta
-
The oil level being too low.
-
Operating with a too high viscosity oil.
-
Operating with an excessively rich mixture.
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
Respuesta
-
Enrich the fuel mixture.
-
Increase the RPM.
-
Reduce the airspeed.
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to?
Respuesta
-
Decrease engine performance.
-
Increase engine performance.
-
Have no effect on engine performance.
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
Respuesta
-
The next higher octane aviation gas.
-
The next lower octane aviation gas.
-
Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
During the run up at a high elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action.
Respuesta
-
Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
-
Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
-
Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
To keep a battery charged, the alternator voltage output should be?
Respuesta
-
Less than the battery voltage.
-
Equal to the battery voltage.
-
Higher than the battery voltage.
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
Respuesta
-
Temperature between 20 degrees F and 70 degrees F and high humidity.
-
An temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
-
Temperature between 32 degrees F and 50 degrees F and low humidity.
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tanks sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the?
Respuesta
-
Lowest point in the fuel system.
-
Fuel strainer drain.
-
Fuel strainer drain and fuel tank sumps.
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for?
Respuesta
-
Uniform heat distribution.
-
Improved engine performance.
-
Balanced cylinder head pressure.
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot?
Respuesta
-
Be in the cockpit and call out all commands.
-
Be at the controls in the cockpit.
-
Call "contact" before touching the propeller.
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
A positive indication on an ammeter?
Respuesta
-
Indicates the aircraft's battery will soon lose its charge.
-
Means more current is being drawn from the battery than is being replaced.
-
Shows the rate of charge on the battery.
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
Filing the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will?
Respuesta
-
Prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
-
Force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
-
Prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
What is the advantage of a constant speed propeller?
Respuesta
-
Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.
-
Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
-
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
With winds reported out of the north at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for an airplane with a 13 knot maximum crosswind component?
Respuesta
-
Runway 29
-
Runway 6
-
Runway 32
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
What is the headwind component for a landing on Runway 18 if the tower reports the wind as 220 Degrees at 30 knots?
Respuesta
-
23 knots.
-
19 knots.
-
30 knots.
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
With winds reported as 180 degrees at 20 knots, which runway is acceptable for an airplane with a 13 knot maximum crosswind component?
Respuesta
-
Runway 24
-
Runway 10
-
Runway 14
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
The tower is reporting wind as 220 degrees at 30 knots. What is the crosswind component for a landing on Runway 18?
Respuesta
-
30 knots.
-
23 knots.
-
19 knots.
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45 degree crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 knots?
Respuesta
-
35 knots.
-
25 knots.
-
29 knots.
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
While flying a rectangular course, when would the aircraft be turned less than 90 degrees?
Respuesta
-
Corners 1 and 4.
-
Corners 1 and 2.
-
Corners 2 and 4.
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
When flying a rectangular course, when should the aircraft bank vary from a steep bank to a medium bank?
Respuesta
-
Corner 1.
-
Corner 3.
-
Corners 2 and 3.
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
While practicing S-turns, a consistently smaller half-circle is made on one side of the road than on the other, and this turn is not complete before crossing the road or reference line. This would most likely occur in turn?
Respuesta
-
4-5-6 because the bank is increased too slowly during the latter part of the turn.
-
4-5-6 because the bank is increased too rapidly during the early part of the turn.
-
1-2-3 because the bank is decreased too rapidly during the latter part of the turn.
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should?
Respuesta
-
Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
-
Check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
-
Announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
Respuesta
-
Flight over a densely populated area.
-
Flight within D airspace.
-
Flight under instrument flight rules.
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
FAA advisory circulars(some free, others at a cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by?
Respuesta
-
Subscribing to the Federal Register.
-
Distribution from the nearest FAA district office (FSDO).
-
Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
Respuesta
-
An in flight radio communications failure.
-
An in flight generator or alternator failure.
-
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
For private pilot operations, a First Class Medical Certificate issued to a 21 year old pilot on October 21 this year, will expire on midnight on?
Respuesta
-
October 31, next year.
-
October 31, five years later.
-
October 21, two years later.
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
A private pilot acting as a pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member, must have in his or her personal possession, or readily accessible in the aircraft, a current?
Respuesta
-
Endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
-
Logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactory accomplished.
-
Medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested.
Respuesta
-
Anytime.
-
At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
-
During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
To Determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the?
Respuesta
-
Registration Certificate.
-
Airworthiness Certificate.
-
Aircraft Maintenance Records.
Pregunta 76
Pregunta
The aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than?
Respuesta
-
July 31, next year.
-
July 1, next year.
-
July 13, next year.
Pregunta 77
Pregunta
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as a pilot in command of any aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
Respuesta
-
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
-
There is no exception.
-
If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.
Pregunta 78
Pregunta
Which incident would necessitate and immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
Respuesta
-
Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
-
A forced landing due to engine failure.
-
Flight control system malfunction or failure.
Pregunta 79
Pregunta
What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
Respuesta
-
A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
-
Certificate showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
-
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
Pregunta 80
Pregunta
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance.
Respuesta
-
Within 10 days.
-
Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
-
Immediately.
Pregunta 81
Pregunta
At what altitude shall the altimeter be et to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?
Respuesta
-
18,000 feet MSL.
-
24,000 feet MSL.
-
14,500 feet MSL.
Pregunta 82
Pregunta
A certified private pilot may not act as a pilot in command or an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of?
Respuesta
-
100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft the pilot is using to tow a glider.
-
200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
-
100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow the glider.
Pregunta 83
Pregunta
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
Respuesta
-
Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
-
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, baloon.
-
transport, restricted, provisional.
Pregunta 84
Pregunta
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
Respuesta
-
When the ELT can not longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.
-
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
-
After any activation of the ELT other than testing.
Pregunta 85
Pregunta
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
Respuesta
-
Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea.
-
Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
-
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air.
Pregunta 86
Pregunta
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate.
Respuesta
-
From the primary airport within Class D airspace.
-
Beneath the floor of Class B airspace.
-
Over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
Pregunta 87
Pregunta
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to?
Respuesta
-
Review traffic control light signal procedures.
-
Check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
-
Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
Pregunta 88
Pregunta
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
Respuesta
-
The pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
-
The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
-
The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
Pregunta 89
Pregunta
Which pre-flight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
Respuesta
-
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
-
Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
-
Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
Pregunta 90
Pregunta
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are?
Respuesta
-
Clear of clouds and 2 mile visibility.
-
500 feet ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
-
1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
Pregunta 91
Pregunta
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in the maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
Respuesta
-
Certified Mechanic.
-
Repair Station.
-
Owner or operator.
Pregunta 92
Pregunta
Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed?
Respuesta
-
Airship.
-
Glider.
-
Aircraft refueling other aircraft.
Pregunta 93
Pregunta
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated.
Respuesta
-
By any private pilot.
-
For compensation or hire.
-
With passengers aboard.
Pregunta 94
Pregunta
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
Respuesta
-
Yes, under VFR conditions only.
-
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
-
Yes, AD's are only voluntary.
Pregunta 95
Pregunta
What regulations allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
Respuesta
-
14 CFR Part 61.113
-
14 CFR Part 43.3
-
14 CFR Part 91.403
Pregunta 96
Pregunta
If an aircraft is involved in an accident with results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified.
Respuesta
-
Within 48 hours.
-
Immediately.
-
Within 7 days.
Pregunta 97
Pregunta
A person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding.
Respuesta
-
24 hours.
-
12 hours.
-
8 hours.
Pregunta 98
Pregunta
Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate.
Respuesta
-
The Medical Examiner.
-
The FAA.
-
The Pilot.
Pregunta 99
Pregunta
Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with?
Respuesta
-
Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).
-
Owner or operator.
-
Repair Station.
Pregunta 100
Pregunta
In addition to valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
Respuesta
-
Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
-
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
-
Radio Operator's permit, and repair and alterations forms.
Pregunta 101
Pregunta
What action should the pilot of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision course?
Respuesta
-
The glider pilot should give to the right.
-
Both pilots should give way to the right.
-
The airplane should give way to the left.
Pregunta 102
Pregunta
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition.
Respuesta
-
Owner or Operator.
-
Certified Mechanic.
-
Pilot in command.
Pregunta 103
Pregunta
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from?
Respuesta
-
1,200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
-
the surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
-
700 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
Pregunta 104
Pregunta
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way?
Respuesta
-
The airship.
-
The airplane.
-
Each pilot should alter course to the right.
Pregunta 105
Pregunta
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
Respuesta
-
No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
-
Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
-
No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
Pregunta 106
Pregunta
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
Respuesta
-
The are voluntary.
-
For informational purposes only.
-
They are mandatory.
Pregunta 107
Pregunta
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of?
Respuesta
-
12,500 feet MSL.
-
14,000 feet MSL.
-
15,000 feet MSL.
Pregunta 108
Pregunta
No person may attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with?
Respuesta
-
.004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
-
.008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
-
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
Pregunta 109
Pregunta
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?
Respuesta
-
within 10 days.
-
when requested.
-
within 7 days.
Pregunta 110
Pregunta
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight?
Respuesta
-
Except by prior arrangement with the pilot of each aircraft.
-
In class B,C, or D airspace.
-
Over a densely populated area.
Pregunta 111
Pregunta
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
Respuesta
-
when intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees.
-
When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.
-
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.
Pregunta 112
Pregunta
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
Respuesta
-
Every 24 months.
-
At the time of each 100 hour or annual inspection.
-
When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
Pregunta 113
Pregunta
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
Respuesta
-
5
-
10
-
7
Pregunta 114
Pregunta
Which operation would be described as preventative maintenance?
Respuesta
-
Servicing landing gear wheel bearings.
-
Alteration of main seat support brackets.
-
Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used.
Pregunta 115
Pregunta
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during?
Respuesta
-
That flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
-
That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
-
The entire flight time at those altitudes.
Pregunta 116
Pregunta
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
Respuesta
-
With prior permission from the FAA local Flight Standards District Office(FSDO).
-
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
-
Only in a emergency.
Pregunta 117
Pregunta
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
Respuesta
-
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
-
Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
-
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Pregunta 118
Pregunta
If recency of experience requirements for night flights are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is?
Respuesta
-
1929
-
1829
-
1859
Pregunta 119
Pregunta
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
Respuesta
-
Sunset to Sunrise.
-
End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
-
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
Pregunta 120
Pregunta
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
Respuesta
-
An in flight generator/alternator failure.
-
An in flight fire.
-
An in flight los of VOR receiver capability.
Pregunta 121
Pregunta
The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is?
Respuesta
-
8 nm.
-
6 nm.
-
4 nm.
Pregunta 122
Pregunta
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
Respuesta
-
90
-
70
-
60
Pregunta 123
Pregunta
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is?
Respuesta
-
At least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
-
At least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
-
Less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
Pregunta 124
Pregunta
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months?
Respuesta
-
At least 3 actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
-
At least 3 flights in a powered glider.
-
At least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.
Pregunta 125
Pregunta
An ATC clearance provides?
Respuesta
-
Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
-
Adequate separation from all traffic.
-
Priority over all traffic.
Pregunta 126
Pregunta
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include?
Respuesta
-
The designation of an alternate airport.
-
A study of arrival procedures at airports of intended use.
-
An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
Pregunta 127
Pregunta
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
Respuesta
-
Private Pilot Certification with an instrument rating.
-
Commercial Pilot Certificate.
-
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
Pregunta 128
Pregunta
The definition of night time is?
Respuesta
-
1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise.
-
sunset to sunrise.
-
The time between the end of evening civil twilight and beginning of morning civil twilight.
Pregunta 129
Pregunta
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
Respuesta
-
Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
-
As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
-
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
Pregunta 130
Pregunta
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace.
Respuesta
-
Air Traffic Control Tower.
-
Automated Flight Service Station.
-
Air Route Traffic Control Center.
Pregunta 131
Pregunta
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened.
Respuesta
-
Safety belts during takeoff and landing; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
-
Safety belts during takeoff and landing; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
-
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; Shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Pregunta 132
Pregunta
During the pre-flight inspection, who is responsible for determining if the aircraft is safe for flight?
Respuesta
-
The certified mechanic who performed the annual inspection.
-
The pilot in command.
-
The owner and operator.
Pregunta 133
Pregunta
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
Respuesta
-
Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.
-
Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
-
Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.
Pregunta 134
Pregunta
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft?
Respuesta
-
That has the other to its right.
-
At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
-
That is the least maneuverable.
Pregunta 135
Pregunta
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as a pilot in command of a high performance airplane, that person must have?
Respuesta
-
An endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
-
Passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
-
Received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.
Pregunta 136
Pregunta
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency, send a written report of the deviation to the Administration?
Respuesta
-
Upon request.
-
Within 7 days.
-
Within 10 days.
Pregunta 137
Pregunta
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?
Respuesta
-
90
-
70
-
60
Pregunta 138
Pregunta
Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
Respuesta
-
Authorized mechanic only.
-
Student or recreational pilot.
-
Private or Commercial pilot.
Pregunta 139
Pregunta
Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
Respuesta
-
A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
-
The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the air frame and engine logbook.
-
The signature, certificate number, and the kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
Pregunta 140
Pregunta
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to airmen are issued under which subject number?
Respuesta
-
60
-
70
-
90
Pregunta 141
Pregunta
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
Respuesta
-
Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment.
-
In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
-
Under no condition.
Pregunta 142
Pregunta
If a certified pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only.
Respuesta
-
60 days after the date of the move.
-
90 days after the date of the move.
-
30 days after the date of the move.
Pregunta 143
Pregunta
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administer, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any?
Respuesta
-
Federal, state and local law enforcement officer.
-
Person in a position of authority.
-
Authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
Pregunta 144
Pregunta
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
Respuesta
-
Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
-
No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.
-
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damages.
Pregunta 145
Pregunta
A 100 hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100 hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?
Respuesta
-
3312.5 hours.
-
3409.5 hours.
-
3402.5 hours.
Pregunta 146
Pregunta
With regards to privileges and limitations a private pilot may?
Respuesta
-
Act as a pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment.
-
Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involved only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
-
Not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.
Pregunta 147
Pregunta
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
Respuesta
-
In the current, FAA approved flight manual, approved manual materials, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
-
On the Airworthiness Certificate.
-
In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
Pregunta 148
Pregunta
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
Respuesta
-
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
-
Landplane, Seaplane.
-
Normal, utility, acrobatic.
Pregunta 149
Pregunta
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the?
Respuesta
-
Federal Aviation Administration.
-
Pilot in command.
-
Aircraft Manufacturer.
Pregunta 150
Pregunta
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?
Respuesta
-
Single engine land and sea, and multi-engine land and sea.
-
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter than air.
-
Lighter than air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.
Pregunta 151
Pregunta
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as a pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from?
Respuesta
-
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
-
The end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
-
Sunset to Sunrise.
Pregunta 152
Pregunta
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
Respuesta
-
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
-
Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
-
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
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