Pregunta 1
Pregunta
Which of the following is not safe during pregnancy?
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
Which of the following metabolic changes is not seen with use of loop diuretics?
Respuesta
-
Decrease in Ca
-
Decrease in K
-
Increase in Mg
-
Increase in Glucose
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a side effect of thiazides?
Respuesta
-
Hyponatremia
-
Metabolic alkalosis
-
Hypouricemia
-
Sexual dysfunction
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
Which of the following G IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists has a long half life and is irreversible?
Respuesta
-
ASA
-
Tirofiban
-
Abciximab
-
Eptifibatide
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a side effect of osmostic diuretics?
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
Which of the following is a characteristic of LMWH?
Respuesta
-
Low bioavailability
-
Monitored with PTT
-
Inexpensive
-
Renally excreted
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a side effect of Aliskiren?
Respuesta
-
Decrease in uric acid
-
Diarrhea
-
Abdominal pain
-
Angioedema
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
Which of the following is not correct regarding eplerenone?
Respuesta
-
It is more expensive than spironolactone
-
Less endocrine-related side effects than spironolactone
-
Lower chance of hyperkalemia
-
Higher affinity for aldosterone receptors
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a side effect of ACEI?
Respuesta
-
Cough
-
Hypotension
-
Gynecomastia
-
Hyperkalemia
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
Acetazolamide causes metabolic alkalosis because you excrete bicarbonate, and therefore it is best to administer this diuretic to metabolic acidic patients.
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
Which of the following are better to avoid with use of potassium-sparing diuretics?
Respuesta
-
ACEI
-
Lithium
-
Eplerenone
-
Amiloride
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
Choose which of the following you would administer to a CKD patient
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
Which of the following diuretics act on the distal convoluted tubule to block sodium reabsorption?
Respuesta
-
Aldosterone antagonists
-
Thiazides
-
Loop diuretics
-
CAIs
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
You always have drug interactions with NSAIDS with use of diurectics because they inhibit prostaglandins which antagonizes the action of diurectics
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
Which diuretic would you not want to use in a patient who has gout?
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
How does Conivaptan promote free water diuresis?
Respuesta
-
By stimulating cGMP resulting in vascular smooth muscle relaxation
-
By being excreted unchanged and causing water to be retained within the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle due to the freely permeable water
-
By blocking the epithelial sodium channels on principal cells and cause sodium excretion
-
By antagonizing vasopressing
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
Lisinopril antagonizes the AT1 receptor
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
Which of the following metabolic changes would you see with the use of a thiazide?
Respuesta
-
Increase Mg
-
Increase Ca
-
Decrease glucose
-
Increase in potassium
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
Hydrochlorthiazide is used more than chlorthalidone because it is more potent and research has shown that it produces a greater reduction in systolic blood pressure.
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
In which of the following conditions would not benefit from the use of vasopressin receptor antagonists?
Respuesta
-
Urinary frequency
-
CHF
-
cirrhosis
-
SIADH
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
Which of the following is a side effect Bosentan?
Respuesta
-
Epistaxis
-
Visual disturbances
-
Liver cirrhosis
-
Dyspepsia
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
Which of the following would require careful dosing in a renal failure patient?
Respuesta
-
Fondaparinux
-
Abciximab
-
Warfarin
-
Argatraban
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
Which of the following drug combinations would not be beneficial?
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
Liver toxicity is a side effect of tolvaptan?
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
Which of the following have short half-lives
Respuesta
-
UFH
-
Warfarin
-
ASA
-
Fondaparinux
-
Vorapaxar
-
Abciximab
-
Eptifibatide
-
Tirofiban
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
Why do we need to overlap warfarin and heparin or LMWH in a patient with a new VTE?
Respuesta
-
Because you want to deactivate antithrombin
-
It takes about 5 days to replace activated clotting factors with dysfunctional clotting factors
-
It takes about 5 days to replace Protein C and Protein S
-
You should never overlap warfarin with LMWH or UFH
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
Which of the following antiplatelets can cause dyspnea?
Respuesta
-
Prasugrel
-
Ticagrelor
-
Clopidogrel
-
Ticlopidine
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
Which of the following prostanoids can cause epistaxis?
Respuesta
-
Epoprosternol
-
Iloprost
-
Treprostinil (Remodulin)
-
Treprostinil (Tyvaso)
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
Which of the following is safe during lactation?
Respuesta
-
Dabigatran
-
Direct X inhibitors
-
Warfarin
-
Indirect X inhibitors
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
Which of the following antiplatelets can be used when a patient has had a cardiac event while taking clopidogrel?
Respuesta
-
Ticlopidine
-
Ticagrelor
-
Prasugrel
-
UFH
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
Which of the following antiplatelets is used with aspirin in post-ACS patients?
Respuesta
-
Ticagrelor
-
Ticlopidine
-
Prasugrel
-
Clopidogrel
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
Liver toxicity is a side effect of conivaptan
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
Which of the following antiplatelets is hardly used in clinical practice and can cause neutropenia?
Respuesta
-
Ticagrelor
-
Clopidogrel
-
Prasugrel
-
Ticlopidine
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
Which of the following antiplatelets is contraindicated for patients with a history of stroke/TIA?
Respuesta
-
Prasugrel
-
Ticagrelor
-
Clopidogrel
-
Ticlopidine
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
Ranolazine can be used ONLY in acute angina attacks
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
It is important to hold indirect factor X inhibitors for at least 48 hours
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
Why is it important to place a patient who develops HIT on another anticoagulant?
Respuesta
-
To decrease the platelet count.
-
To prevent a prothrombotic condition
-
To prevent bleeding.
-
To induce a prothrombotic condition
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
Which of the following is not part of the treatment for HIT?
Respuesta
-
Stop heparin products
-
Stop warfarin until platelet count is above 150,000
-
Use alternative anticoagulants
-
Give a high dose of warfarin when restarting
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
Which of the following drugs can cause serious cardiovascular and thromboemolic events if dose and hemoglobin range is not taken into account?
Respuesta
-
Calcitriol
-
ERAs
-
ESAs
-
Dopamine
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a characteristic of argatraban?
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
Which of the following is absolutely not safe during pregnancy?
Respuesta
-
Warfarin
-
Heparin/LMWH
-
Fondaparinux
-
IV DTIs
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
Which of the following is correct regarding warfarin?
Respuesta
-
It causes less GI bleeding than dabigatran
-
It causes more GI bleed than Rivaroxaban
-
It causes less GI bleeds than Apixaban
-
It causes less ICH in Direct Factor X inhibitors and Dabigatran
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
How long should one hold warfarin before major surgery
Respuesta
-
24 hours
-
48 hours
-
6 hours
-
5 days
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
Which of the following has no reversal agent or is irreversible?
Respuesta
-
LMHW
-
UFH
-
Warfarin
-
Rivaroxaban
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a side effect of Acetazolamide?
Respuesta
-
Metabolic acidosis
-
Kidney stones
-
Paresthesia
-
Hypernatremia
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a cause for concern of sodium nitroprusside-induce cyanide toxicity?
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
Which of the following is true about SELECTIVE beta blockers? Choose all that apply:
Respuesta
-
Safe to use in COPD patients
-
Has a slightly better metabolic effect
-
Loses selectivity at lower doses
-
Has little effect in patients with reversible airway disease
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
Which of the following is a correct rationale as to why we would use a beta blocker to treat MI/angina peri-operatively? Choose all that apply:
Respuesta
-
To decrease production of aqueous humor
-
To decrease HR
-
To decrease contractility
-
To decrease portal hypertension
-
To inhibit vasodilatation or arteriolar spasms over the cortex
-
To decrease oxygen demand
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a characteristic of fondaparinux?
Respuesta
-
It directly affects factor X
-
It is renally excreted
-
It has a long half-life, so not good for bridging with warfarin
-
There is still risk of HIT
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
The benefit to using calcitriol over vitamin D analogs is that it can decrease the chance of hypercalcemia and hyperphosphetemia.
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
Which of the following are nonselective beta blockers? Choose all that apply:
Respuesta
-
Atenolol
-
Carvedilol
-
Propranolol
-
Metoprolol
-
Nadolol
-
Timolol
-
Labetalol
-
Satelol
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
Which of the following diuretics is the most potent?
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
Which of the following is correct regarding warfarin reversal agents?
Respuesta
-
PCC are more efficient than FFP
-
PCC is usually given in a large volume
-
FFP and PCC are given with Vitamin K
-
FFP has larger risk of thrombosis
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
Which of the following is a side effect of hydralazine ONLY?
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
Which of the following would you never want to give with nitrates due to their drug interaction?
Respuesta
-
Prostanoids
-
ERAs
-
Hydralazine
-
PDE-5 drugs
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
Which of the following prostanoids can cause sepsis?
Respuesta
-
Epoprostenol
-
Treprostinil (Remodulin)
-
Iloprost
-
Trerostinil (Tyvaso)
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
Which of the following prostanoids can cause severe hypotension?
Respuesta
-
Epoprostenol
-
Treprostinil (Remodulin)
-
Treprostinil (Tyvaso)
-
Ilioprost
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
Treprostinil (Tyvaso) is an inhaled prostenoid
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
Which of the following are NOT safe to use during pregnancy? Choose all that apply:
Respuesta
-
PDE-5 drugs
-
Sodium nitroprusside
-
ERAs
-
Prostenoids
-
Riociguat
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
Which of the following antiplatelets works by inhibiting ADP receptor?
Respuesta
-
GP IIb/IIIA inhibitors
-
Vorapaxar
-
P2Y12 inhibitors
-
ASA
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
Why are endothelin receptor antagonists used as a cardiac drug?
Respuesta
-
It's ability to block ETB receptor
-
Because of its vasoconstricting effects
-
Because of its ability to release NO to cause vasodilation
-
It's ability to block ETA receptor
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
Which of the following causes an increase in INR?
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
Nitrate tolerance can be fixed by having a nitrate-free period lasting from 4-8 hours
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
How do calcium-channel blockers cause decrease in contractility, SA node rate, and AV node conduction velocity?
Respuesta
-
By blocking sodium influx, causing calcium overload through the sodium/calcium exchanger
-
Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in arterial smooth muscle leading to decrease in afterload
-
Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in venous smooth muscle leading to decrease in afterload
-
Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in venous smooth muscle leading to decrease in preload
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
When using dihydropyridines, one must be careful when using it with digoxin and beta blockers, as this may cause additive negative effects on cardiac conduction
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
Which of the following is correct regarding nitrates and their mechanism of action?
Respuesta
-
They cause arterial dilation
-
They are denitrated to NO, increasing cGMP and causing increase in dilation
-
They are denitrated to NO, decreasing cGMP and causing increase in dilation
-
Releases NO from the drug itself, causing vasodilation
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
Which of the following is a reason for loss of response to ESA therapy?
Respuesta
-
Hypertension
-
Benign process
-
Iron deficiency
-
Pure white cell aplasia
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
Which of the following adrenergic agonists can cause a decrease in renal blood flow as an adverse effect?
Respuesta
-
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
-
Dobutamine and Epinephrine
-
Norepinephrine and Dopamine
-
Phenylephrine and Dobutamine
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
Which of the following adrenergic agonists can cause reflex bradycardia?
Respuesta
-
Dobutamine
-
Epinephrine
-
Phenylephrine
-
Dopamine
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of alpha-1 adrenergic blockers?
Respuesta
-
Floppy Iris Syndrome
-
Prolonged QT interval
-
Bradycardia
-
Orthostatic hypertension
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
ARBs are not used as first line therapy despite the less occurrence of side effects.
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics?
Respuesta
-
GI symptoms
-
Ototoxicity
-
Metabolic acidosis
-
Hyperkalemia
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
Which of the following IV iron products can alter magnetic resonance imaging studies?
Respuesta
-
Iron dextran
-
Ferric gluconate
-
Ferumoxytol
-
Ferric carboxymaltose
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
Which of the following IV iron products can cause an anaphylactic reaction?
Respuesta
-
Iron dextran
-
Ferric gluconate
-
Ferumoxytol
-
Ferric carboxymaltose
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
Iron sucrose is given in divided doses, about 10 dialysis sessions
Pregunta 76
Pregunta
Which of the following is not a side effect of loop diuretics?
Respuesta
-
Hypomagnesemia
-
Hypocalcemia
-
Hypernatremia
-
Ototoxicity
Pregunta 77
Pregunta
Which of following phosphate binders can cause metabolic acidosis?
Respuesta
-
Calcium carbonate
-
Calcium acetate
-
Renagel
-
Renvela
Pregunta 78
Pregunta
Aliskiren inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
Pregunta 79
Pregunta
Ranolazine inhibits myocardial cell sodium/calcium exchanger, preventing ischemia-induced contractile dysfunction and delaying the onset of angina
Pregunta 80
Pregunta
Which of the following a Class I drug?
Respuesta
-
Propafenone
-
Propranolol
-
Amiodarone
-
Diltiazem
Pregunta 81
Pregunta
Dronedarone is a
Pregunta 82
Pregunta 83
Pregunta
Which is the best drug for use in patients with CHF or structural heart disease?
Respuesta
-
Flecainide
-
Propafenone
-
Amiodarone
-
Verapamil
-
Dofetilide
Pregunta 84
Pregunta
Choose all that would be used for cardioversion of atrial fibrillation.
Respuesta
-
Dofetilide
-
Ibutilide
-
Verapamil
-
Procainamide
-
Lidocaine
-
Digoxin
Pregunta 85
Pregunta
Which of the following is a side effects of Amiodarone?
Pregunta 86
Pregunta
Which of the following has beta-blocking activity?
Respuesta
-
Propafenone
-
Flecainide
-
Ibutilide
-
Procainamide
Pregunta 87
Pregunta
Which of the following does NOT rely on renal function for elimination
Respuesta
-
Sotalol
-
Dofetilide
-
Digoxin
-
Amiodarone
Pregunta 88
Pregunta
How does adenosine function in stress testing?
Respuesta
-
Causes vasodilation in healthy arteries, revealing the diseased coronary arteries
-
Causes vasoconstriction in healthy arteries, revealing the diseased coronary arteries
-
Causes vasodilation in diseased arteries, revealing the healthy coronary arteries
-
Causes vasoconstriction in diseased arteries, revealing healthy coronary arteries
Pregunta 89
Pregunta
Which of the following is correct regarding digoxin?
Respuesta
-
Inhibits potassium channels, decreasing intracellular potassium
-
Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase, increasing sodium concentration thereby increasing calcium concentration
-
Causes negative inotropic effects
-
Causes positive dromotropic/chronotropic effects
Pregunta 90
Pregunta
Choose which of the following is true for Amiodarone
Respuesta
-
Shorter half life than dronedarone
-
Slightly more effective than dronedarone in Afib patients
-
High risk of side effects
-
More GI side effects
-
I2 in structure and effects thyroid
-
Does not have negative inotropic effects
-
Cannot be used for CHF
Pregunta 91
Pregunta
How do calcium channel blockers work as antiarrhythmics?
Respuesta
-
They dilate arterial smooth muscle
-
Mostly effects the sodium channels in atrial and ventricular tissues and Purkinjie fibers
-
Acts on the SA and AV node
-
Blocks sodium channels
Pregunta 92
Pregunta
Which of the following is correct regarding the use of beta blockers perioperatively?
Respuesta
-
Should be continued in patients who are already on a beta blocker
-
Use of them perioperatively in any situation is standard of practice
-
Perioperative beta blockage started within one day or less before noncardiac surgery decreases risk of stroke, death, hypotension, and bradycardia
-
It is not a clinical contreversy
Pregunta 93
Pregunta
Which of the following drugs should you be cautious due to chance of developing QT prolongation?
Respuesta
-
Dronedarone
-
Beta-blockers
-
Felcainide
-
Digoxin
Pregunta 94
Pregunta
Which of the following drug classes could cause Torsades de Pointes?
Respuesta
-
Beta blockers
-
Class IA drugs
-
Class IB drugs
-
Calcium channel blockers
Pregunta 95
Pregunta
Which of the following drugs can be used for ventricular arrhythmias?
Respuesta
-
Propafenone
-
Digoxin
-
Dofetilide
-
Ibutilide
Pregunta 96
Pregunta
Which of the following CANNOT be used for cardioversion?
Respuesta
-
Dofetilide
-
Ibutilide
-
Propafenone
-
Verapamil