Antibiotics/Antifungals/Antivirals/Antimycobacterials/Anticancer

Descripción

Test about Antibiotics/Antifungals/Antivirals/Antimycobacterials/Anticancer
Diana Flores
Test por Diana Flores, actualizado hace más de 1 año
Diana Flores
Creado por Diana Flores hace alrededor de 9 años
136
1

Resumen del Recurso

Pregunta 1

Pregunta
Which of the following is a correct description of Ludwig's Angina?
Respuesta
  • Caused by anaerobe infection
  • It occurs in children with concomitant dental infections
  • It is not life-threatneing
  • Caused by infection from bacteroids, staphylococci, and streptococci

Pregunta 2

Pregunta
Choose all the following that are mechanisms of select toxicity?
Respuesta
  • Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  • Selective Inhibition
  • Suppression of DNA synthesis
  • Common targets
  • Unique drug targets
  • Alteration of cell membrane permeability

Pregunta 3

Pregunta
Which of the following is the correct definition of Anti-infective agents?
Respuesta
  • Natural or synthetic substances used to suppress growth or kill bacteria/ single cell organisms
  • Substances that act against or destroy infections (Fungal/Viral/Bacteria)
  • Substances that destroy or supress the growth or multiplcation of bacteria
  • Substances produced by bacteria that can destroy or suppress the growth or multiplication of bacteria or prevent the action of bacteria

Pregunta 4

Pregunta
What antibacterial is given for emergency treatment of Ludwig's Angina?
Respuesta
  • Penicillin V
  • Ampicillin
  • Penicillin G
  • Augmentin

Pregunta 5

Pregunta
Which of the following is the correct mechanism for how Polymyxins act as antibiotics?
Respuesta
  • Binds to ribosome 30s to prohibit protein synthesis
  • Disrupts the integrity of the baceterial cell wall by displacing calcium and magnesium
  • Inhibits the cross-linkages between the peptidoglycan polymer strands
  • Disrupts the integrity of the cell membrane by displacing calcium and magnesium

Pregunta 6

Pregunta
Antibiotics that bind to bacterial ribosomes inhibit what enzyme?
Respuesta
  • Transpeptidase
  • Peptidyl transferase
  • Beta lactamase
  • Transcriptase

Pregunta 7

Pregunta
How do sulfonamides prevent the further growth of bacteria?
Respuesta
  • They block conversion of PABA into dihydrofolic acid
  • They inhibit DNA gyrase and Topoismerase enzymes, preventing supercoiling
  • They inhibit peptidyl transferase, inhibiting binding of tRNA to mRNA
  • They bind to the dihydroflate reductase (DHFR) enzyme, thus preventing production of folic acid

Pregunta 8

Pregunta
Acquired resistance is when the bacteria has always been resistant due to inherent properties of the bacteria
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 9

Pregunta
Which bacteria are susceptible to enzyme inactivation by beta lactamases?
Respuesta
  • Cephalosporins
  • Macrolides
  • Metronidazole
  • Tetracyclines

Pregunta 10

Pregunta
Which of the following is defines as a mobile genetic element which may be transferred from one organism to the other?
Respuesta
  • Bacteriophages
  • Integrons
  • Transposons
  • Plasmid

Pregunta 11

Pregunta
An integron is a genetic element that captures and disseminates genes through a gene cassette
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 12

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial resistance?
Respuesta
  • Enzymatic inactvation
  • Antibiotic antagonism or interactions
  • Insensitivity to apoptosis
  • Overproduction of target sites

Pregunta 13

Pregunta
Which of the following cancers do NOT have a high incidence of p53 mutations
Respuesta
  • Ovarian
  • Lung
  • Colon
  • Pancreatic

Pregunta 14

Pregunta
Which of the following is correct regarding superinfections?
Respuesta
  • More likely to occur with narrow spectrum antibiotics
  • Occurs with transfer of plasmids and transposons
  • They are easy to treat
  • May be opportunistic infections with viruses such as Candidda albicans and Histoplasmosis

Pregunta 15

Pregunta
When would chemoprophylaxis be used?
Respuesta
  • Used after surgery to prevent wound infections
  • Used after a potential expsoure
  • To prevent an oral infection after having a dental procedure
  • In immunocompromised patients to prevent reactivation of latent reactions

Pregunta 16

Pregunta
Penicillins are narrow spectrum drugs
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 17

Pregunta
Select all of the bactericidal antibiotics
Respuesta
  • Macrolides
  • Pencillin
  • Metronidazole
  • Tetracycline
  • Cefadroxil
  • Cephalexin
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Clindamycin

Pregunta 18

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a cause for antibiotic failure?
Respuesta
  • Limited vascularity or blood flow to tissue
  • Blood concentration too low
  • Impaired host to immune system
  • Failure to activate the antibiotics

Pregunta 19

Pregunta
Which of the following antibacterials can cause a long QT syndrome?
Respuesta
  • Fluroquinolones
  • Sulfonamides
  • Penicillins
  • Cephalsporins

Pregunta 20

Pregunta
Which of the following antibacterials cause agranulocytosis?
Respuesta
  • Fluroquinolones
  • C. diff
  • Macrolides
  • Penicillins

Pregunta 21

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a concern of antibiotic use?
Respuesta
  • Stevens Johnsons
  • Superinfection
  • Teratology
  • Increased effects of oral contraceptives

Pregunta 22

Pregunta
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Penicillin G/Penicillin V?
Respuesta
  • One of these two can be used for treatment of Ludwig's Angina
  • Used for mixed aerobic-anerobic infections
  • Used for head, neck, and dental infections
  • These are all correct

Pregunta 23

Pregunta
Which of the following is the correct use of antistaphylococcal penicillins?
Respuesta
  • Skin and soft tissue infections
  • Broad spectrum Enterobacter
  • Klebsiella and enterocci
  • Ear, nose and throat, H. pylori

Pregunta 24

Pregunta
Which of the following is not an antistaphylococcal penicillin?
Respuesta
  • Amoxicillin
  • Methicillin
  • Nafcillin
  • These are all antistaphylococcal penicilllins

Pregunta 25

Pregunta
Augmentin contains an antistaphylococcal penicillin
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 26

Pregunta
Penicillins work by inhibiting which enzyme?
Respuesta
  • Integrase
  • Peptidyl transferase
  • Transpeptidase
  • Transcriptase

Pregunta 27

Pregunta
Penicillin V is administered IV only?
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 28

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a possible adverse effect from peniciilins?
Respuesta
  • Allergy
  • Fungal overgrowth
  • Pseudomembraneous colitis
  • Oral lesions

Pregunta 29

Pregunta
Which of the following is a known drug reaction with use of penicillin?
Respuesta
  • Increase renal tubular secretion with use of probenecid
  • Inactivation with use of aminoglycosides
  • Disulfram-like reaction
  • Inhibits metabolism of anticoagulants, increasing risk of bleeding

Pregunta 30

Pregunta
Which of the following is true regarding aminopenicillins?
Respuesta
  • Resistant to beta lactamases
  • Narrow spectrum
  • Ampicillin has less side effects than amoxicillin
  • Effective against Neissseria gonorrhea and meningitidis

Pregunta 31

Pregunta
Select the following that are ineffective against beta lactamases:
Respuesta
  • Penicillin V
  • Penicillin G
  • Cloxacillin
  • Amoxicillin

Pregunta 32

Pregunta
Which of the following can be used to overcome resistant bacteria?
Respuesta
  • Cloxacillin
  • Amoxacillin
  • Clavulanic acid
  • Ampicillin

Pregunta 33

Pregunta
Which of the following is true regarding penicillins and beta-lactamase inhibitors?
Respuesta
  • Amoxicillin has a molecular structure similar to beta lactam, thus prevents inactivation by beta lactamase
  • They are ineffective against Salmonella related infections
  • They are used in immunocompromised patients with mixed infections
  • They are effective against Klebsiella bacteria

Pregunta 34

Pregunta
Which of the following best represents first generation cephalosporins?
Respuesta
  • Includes Cefotaxime and Ceftriaxone
  • Used for UTI and soft tissue abscesses
  • Effective against Klebsiella and H influenza
  • Used for treatment of community-acquired pneumonia

Pregunta 35

Pregunta
Which of the following best describes generation 2 cephalosporins
Respuesta
  • Drug of choice for surgical prophylaxis
  • Used to treat Meningitis
  • Includes the drug Cefuroxime
  • Includes the drug Cefepime

Pregunta 36

Pregunta
Which of the following best describes generation 3 cephalosporins?
Respuesta
  • They have resistance to beta lacmases
  • Hightly active against P aeruginosa
  • Not approved for treatment of meningitis
  • Best for any H influenza infection

Pregunta 37

Pregunta
Which of the following best describes fourth generation cephalosporins?
Respuesta
  • It is used for meningitis
  • It includes the drug ceftaroline
  • It is active against Neisseria
  • Can be used for MRSA

Pregunta 38

Pregunta
Ceftaroline is active against MDR staph aureus, MRSA, and VRSA
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 39

Pregunta
Protein synthesis inhibitors are considered narrow spectrum antibiotics
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 40

Pregunta
Tetracyclines are broad spectrum antibiotics
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 41

Pregunta
Which of the following best matches the mechanism of tetracyclines?
Respuesta
  • Inhibition of beta 1-3 glycan of bacterial cell wall, preventing cross-linkages
  • Becomes mechanically reduced to a toxic metabolite, interacting with DNA
  • Binds to 50s subunit, preventing binding of tRNA to mRNA
  • Binds to 30s subunit, preventing binding of tRNA to mRNA

Pregunta 42

Pregunta
Which of the following are targeted by tetracyclines
Respuesta
  • Rickettsia
  • Chlamydia
  • Gram positive bacteria
  • All are targeted by tetracyclines

Pregunta 43

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a concern of tetracyclines?
Respuesta
  • Kills flora
  • Neutropenia
  • Impairs absorption of antacids
  • Damages development of bones and teeth

Pregunta 44

Pregunta
Which of the following is incorrect regarding macrolides?
Respuesta
  • Broad spectrum
  • Kills Treponema pallidum
  • Used as an alternative for patients allergic penicillins
  • Can be bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal, depending on dose

Pregunta 45

Pregunta
What makes Telithromycin so special?
Respuesta
  • It can be used for MRSA
  • It can cause Fanconi's syndrome if taken when it is expired
  • It can bind to ribosome 23s, which makes it unique
  • Can be used in cases when other macrolides cause fulminant hepatic necrosis

Pregunta 46

Pregunta
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Chloramphenicol?
Respuesta
  • It is bacteriostatic
  • Binds to 23s ribosome
  • Can be toxic due to inhibiting mitochondrial protein synthesis
  • Can be used for Neisseria gonorrhea

Pregunta 47

Pregunta
Chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 48

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a use for Clindamycin?
Respuesta
  • Pseudomembranous colitis
  • Skina nd soft tissue infections
  • Septic abrotion
  • Prophylaxis of infective endocarditis

Pregunta 49

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a concern for use of Clindamycin?
Respuesta
  • Fungal overgrowth
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Pseudomembranous colitis
  • Fulminant hepatic necrosis

Pregunta 50

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for pseudomembranous colitis?
Respuesta
  • Elderly
  • Sulfonamides
  • Ampicillin
  • Erhythromycin

Pregunta 51

Pregunta
Choose all of the following that are part of treatment of pseudomembranous colitis?
Respuesta
  • Start on Vancomycin IV
  • Hydration
  • Start on clotrimazole
  • Start of Metronidazole
  • Stop all antibiotics
  • Start on Vancomycin oral

Pregunta 52

Pregunta
What is the clinical use of sulfonamides?
Respuesta
  • Skin infections
  • UTI
  • Alternative for patients allergic to Penicillins
  • Pseudomembranous colitis

Pregunta 53

Pregunta
Sulfonamide is a structural analog of DFHR
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 54

Pregunta
Which of the following causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?
Respuesta
  • Sulfonamides
  • Penicillins
  • Macrolides
  • Tetracyclines

Pregunta 55

Pregunta
Sulfonamides can cause which of the following adverse effects?
Respuesta
  • Renal damage from crystalluria
  • Prolonged QT syndrome
  • Pseudomembranous Colitis
  • Neutropenia

Pregunta 56

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT another name for trimethoprim?
Respuesta
  • Co-trimoxazole
  • Bactrim
  • Clotrimazole
  • Septra

Pregunta 57

Pregunta
Which best describes the mechanism of trimethoprim?
Respuesta
  • Structural analog of PABA
  • Binds to mammalian DHFR
  • Structural analog of bacterial DHFR
  • Binds to bacterial DHFR

Pregunta 58

Pregunta
Which of the following antibiotics are best known to be used for acne?
Respuesta
  • Tetracyclines
  • Sulfonamides
  • Macrolides
  • Penicillins

Pregunta 59

Pregunta
Clotrimazole can be used for UTI?
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 60

Pregunta
Metronidazole is used for the treatment of amoebic liver abscesss
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 61

Pregunta
How do fluoroquinolones kill bacteria?
Respuesta
  • They are chemically reduced to a toxic metabolite which interacts with DNA, resulting in loss of helical structure and essentially cell death
  • They bind to bacterial ribosomes 30s
  • They inhibit transpeptidases
  • They compromise the integrity of the bacterial cell membrane

Pregunta 62

Pregunta
Which of the following do metronidazoles NOT attack?
Respuesta
  • Gram positive
  • Anaerobes
  • Gram negative
  • Aerobes

Pregunta 63

Pregunta
Which of the following is not a drug interaction of metronidazole?
Respuesta
  • Phenytoin toxicity
  • Disulfram reactions
  • Failure of oral contraceptives
  • Inhibition of anticoagulant metabolism

Pregunta 64

Pregunta
Sharp metallic taste is one of many adverse effects of sulfonamides
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 65

Pregunta
Which best describes the mechanism of action of fluroquinolones?
Respuesta
  • Binding to bacterial ribosome 50s
  • Inhibits DNA gyrase, preventing supercoiling and stopping DNA replication
  • Inhibits transcriptase, preventing supercoiling and stopping DNA replication
  • Chemically reduced to a toxic metabolite, interacting with DNA and essentially causing cell death

Pregunta 66

Pregunta
The causes of resistance in fluoroquinolones are alteration in DNA gyrase and decreased permeability
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 67

Pregunta
Which of the following bacteria could cause cartilage damage in children?
Respuesta
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Clindamycin
  • Cefepime
  • Aminoglycosides

Pregunta 68

Pregunta
Ciprofloxacin is an extended spectrum drug
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 69

Pregunta
Which of the following is true about vancomycin?
Respuesta
  • Given by quick infusion for serious systemic infections
  • May be used where resistance to macrolides has developed in bacterial strains
  • Inhibits transpeptidase
  • It is not absorbed by the GI

Pregunta 70

Pregunta
Which of the following can cause Red Man Syndrome?
Respuesta
  • Penicillin
  • Erythromycin
  • Vancomycin
  • Sulfamethoxazole

Pregunta 71

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT true regarding aminoglycosides?
Respuesta
  • Can be used for the treatment of sepsis
  • Same spectrum as fluroquinolones
  • Given only PO
  • Drug monitoring is required

Pregunta 72

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT side effect of drugs such as gentamicin, tobramycin, and amikacin?
Respuesta
  • Reversible renal toxicity
  • Irreversible vestibular toxicity
  • Neuromuscular blockade
  • Adding furoseminde can decrease risk of renal damage

Pregunta 73

Pregunta
Which of the following would you want to avoid giving prior to a surgical procedure?
Respuesta
  • Cephalexin
  • Clindamycin
  • Tobramycin

Pregunta 74

Pregunta
You would want to give Vancomycin PO q12h for MRSA
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 75

Pregunta
VRE infects immunocompromised patients
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 76

Pregunta
Which of the following cannot be used for treatment of MRSA?
Respuesta
  • Linezolid
  • Ceftaroline
  • Streptogramins
  • Vancomycin

Pregunta 77

Pregunta
MRSA is resistant to ALL penicillins and cephalosporins
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 78

Pregunta
What are mechanisms of genetic transfer that are related to superinfections?
Respuesta
  • Bacteriophages
  • Integrons
  • Transposon
  • Plasmid

Pregunta 79

Pregunta
Which of the following best describes amphotericin B?
Respuesta
  • Used only as topical therapy
  • Dose adjustment required and dose limited to 6 months
  • A polyene antifungal that binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes
  • Binds to bacterial RNA polymerase enzyme and inhibits RNA synthesis

Pregunta 80

Pregunta
Amphotericin B is used to only treat progressive and potentially fatal systemic infections due to its severe adverse effects
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 81

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Amphotericin B?
Respuesta
  • Infusion-related reactions
  • Fever
  • Mild elevation in liver enzymes
  • Nephrotoxicity

Pregunta 82

Pregunta
Which of the following does NOT increase risk of nephrotoxicity
Respuesta
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Amphoterecin B
  • Cisplatin
  • Macrolides

Pregunta 83

Pregunta
Nystatin is not related to Amphoterecin B and can therefore be used systemically
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 84

Pregunta
What type of fungal infection does nystatin treat?
Respuesta
  • Cryptococcal meningitis
  • Candida infections
  • Histoplasmosis
  • Asperillosis

Pregunta 85

Pregunta
What do you want to avoid taking with azole antifungals?
Respuesta
  • Antacids
  • Echinocandins
  • Calcium
  • Milk

Pregunta 86

Pregunta
Fluconazole is a prodrug
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 87

Pregunta
Choose all of the traizoles
Respuesta
  • Ketoconazole
  • Itraconazole
  • Fluconazole
  • Voriconazole
  • Miconazole
  • Clotrimazole

Pregunta 88

Pregunta
Which is the correct mechanism of azoles?
Respuesta
  • Disrupts microtubule function and inhibits dermatophyte growth
  • Binds to membrane Ergosterol
  • Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
  • Inhibits the lanosterol 14 alpha enzyme, preventing the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol and disrupts the struction of fungal membrane

Pregunta 89

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Azoles?
Respuesta
  • Steven Johnson
  • Increased levels of warfarin
  • Decreased fluconazole levels wiht isoniazid
  • Nephrotoxicity

Pregunta 90

Pregunta
Which of the following are used in hematopoietic stem cell transplatation patients?
Respuesta
  • Fluconazole
  • Itraconazole
  • Echinocandins
  • Isoniazid

Pregunta 91

Pregunta
Which of the following antifungals are used to disrupt microtubule function?
Respuesta
  • Terbinafine
  • Griseofulvin
  • Echinocandins
  • Ketoconazole

Pregunta 92

Pregunta
Which of the following antifungals is used for onychomychosis and tinea?
Respuesta
  • Griseofulvin
  • Terbinafine
  • Echinocandins
  • Ketoconazole

Pregunta 93

Pregunta
What is the difference between NRTIs and NNRTIs?
Respuesta
  • NRTIs inhibit viral DNA relication by binding to reverse transcriptase and inhibit DNA polymerase and NNRTIs act as chain terminators and imtate nucleotides
  • NNRTIs inhibit viral DNA relication by binding to reverse transcriptase and inhibit DNA polymerase and NRTIs act as chain terminators and imtate nucleotides
  • NRTIs interact with ohter drugs metabolized by CYP450 enzyme
  • NRTIs cause Stevens Johnson syndrome

Pregunta 94

Pregunta
NRTIs have mitochondrial toxicity
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 95

Pregunta
Which of the following is an adverse effect of NRTIs?
Respuesta
  • Steven Johnson Syndrome
  • Cushing-like syndrome
  • Local injection site reactions
  • Lactic acidosis

Pregunta 96

Pregunta
NRTIs cause Steven Johnson syndrome
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 97

Pregunta
Which of the following is not a protease inhibitor?
Respuesta
  • Saquinavir
  • Retrovir
  • Ritonavir
  • Indinavir

Pregunta 98

Pregunta
Which of the following is the correct drug regimen for post-exposure prophylaxis?
Respuesta
  • Retrovir + Epivir + Kaletra
  • Ritonavir + Epivir
  • 2 NNTis with an NNRTI or a Ritonavir or Integrase
  • Raltegravir + Integrase

Pregunta 99

Pregunta
How do enfuvirtides work?
Respuesta
  • They incorporate into the growing DNA and inhibit chain formation
  • Blocks protease
  • Inhibit DNA polymerase
  • Blocks entry of the virus into the cell by preventing conformational change

Pregunta 100

Pregunta
Which of the following is an integrase inhibitor?
Respuesta
  • Retrovir
  • Raltegravir
  • Indinavir
  • Lopinavir

Pregunta 101

Pregunta
TNX-355 is used to prevent virus maturation
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 102

Pregunta
When should Antiretroviral therapy be started?
Respuesta
  • When CD4 count is less than 200
  • In HIV patient who is pregnant
  • With Hepatits B virus coinfection
  • These are all reasons to start therapy

Pregunta 103

Pregunta
Efavirenz is the recommended drug for HIV therapy in pregnant women
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 104

Pregunta
Choose the drugs that are part of HAART?
Respuesta
  • 2NRTIs
  • NNRTIs
  • Ritonavir
  • Integrase
  • Enfuvirtide
  • Befirimat
  • TNX-355
  • Acyclovir
  • Famciclovir

Pregunta 105

Pregunta
Which antiviral drug prevents formation of DNA chain by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis?
Respuesta
  • Acyclovir
  • Ganciclovir
  • Raltegravir
  • Retrovir

Pregunta 106

Pregunta
Ganciclovir causes myelosuppression
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 107

Pregunta
Which of the following is used for prophylaxis of TB
Respuesta
  • Rifampin
  • Isoniazid
  • Streptomycin
  • Ethambutol

Pregunta 108

Pregunta
Which of the following is true about isoniazid?
Respuesta
  • It is not readily absorbed by the GIT
  • It is metabolized by CYP450 enzyme, therefore having many drug interactions
  • Inhibits synthesis of Mycolic acid
  • Structurally distinct from pyridoxine, therefore causing peripheral neuropathy

Pregunta 109

Pregunta
Choose which of the following drugs are administered with isoniazid for treatment?
Respuesta
  • Rifampin
  • Ethambutol
  • Retrovir
  • Acyclovir

Pregunta 110

Pregunta
Rifampin is a "true" antibiotic
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 111

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Rifampin?
Respuesta
  • Gives a harmless orange color to all bodilly secretions
  • Can cause cholestatic jaundice
  • Used for prophylaxis
  • Binds to bacterial RNA polymerase enzyme and inhibits RNA synthesis

Pregunta 112

Pregunta
Mr. Smith works as an airline pilot and was found to have TB. Which drug would you NOT want to give him, due to its effects on visual acuity and color discrimination?
Respuesta
  • Isoniazid
  • Rifampin
  • Ethambutol
  • Streptomycin

Pregunta 113

Pregunta
Which of the following drugs is given for prophylaxis and cure of malaria?
Respuesta
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Quinolones
  • Albendazole
  • Chloroquine

Pregunta 114

Pregunta
Which of the following are concerns with the use of Antimalarials?
Respuesta
  • Hemolysis in G6Pd deficient individuals
  • Orange color of bodily secretions
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Hepatitis

Pregunta 115

Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a concern of antimalrials with long term drug dosing?
Respuesta
  • Retinopathy
  • Ototoxicity
  • Irreversible neuropathy
  • Nephrotoxicity

Pregunta 116

Pregunta
Epstein-Barr virus can cause nasopharyngeal cancer
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 117

Pregunta
Which of the following cause Hodgkins/Non-Hodgkins?
Respuesta
  • Hepatitis B
  • HIV
  • HPV
  • Epstein-Barr virus

Pregunta 118

Pregunta
Which of the following is part of treatment for advanced disease?
Respuesta
  • Surgery
  • Radiation
  • Chemotherapy
  • All of these are part of advanced disease treatment

Pregunta 119

Pregunta
Which of the following NOT consistent with primary resistance in regards to cancer drugs?
Respuesta
  • No response with drug therapy
  • Blamed on loss of p53 tumor suppressor gene
  • Common in malignant melanoma
  • Increased expression of MDR1 gene

Pregunta 120

Pregunta
How do alkylating agents cause cell death in cancer drugs?
Respuesta
  • They transfer their alkyl groups to DNA within the nucleus
  • They can inhibit protein chains and DNA strand breakage by carbamoylation
  • React chemically with sulfydryl, amino,hydroxyl and phosphate groups
  • All of the above

Pregunta 121

Pregunta
Which of the following causes hemorrhagic cystitis?
Respuesta
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Cisplatin
  • Vincristine
  • Mitomycin

Pregunta 122

Pregunta
Which of the following causes myelosuppression?
Respuesta
  • Methotrexate
  • Vinblastine
  • Mitomycin
  • All of the above

Pregunta 123

Pregunta
Which of the following cause mucositis?
Respuesta
  • Chlorambucil
  • Vinorelbine
  • 5-flurouracil
  • None of the above

Pregunta 124

Pregunta
Which of the following cause neutropenia?
Respuesta
  • Methotrexate
  • 5-flurouracil
  • Mitomycin
  • Cisplatin

Pregunta 125

Pregunta
Which of the following causes SIADH?
Respuesta
  • Methotrexate
  • Vinblastine
  • Cyclophospamide
  • None of the above

Pregunta 126

Pregunta
Methotrexate has a similar mechanism to what other drug?
Respuesta
  • Sulfonamides
  • Trimethoprim
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Penicillins

Pregunta 127

Pregunta
Which of the following drugs does NOT inhibit renal excretion of methotrexate?
Respuesta
  • Penicillin
  • Cephalosporins
  • Aspirin
  • All of these inhibit renal excretion of methotrexate

Pregunta 128

Pregunta
Imatinib prevents phosphorylation of the cell kinase substrates by ATP
Respuesta
  • True
  • False

Pregunta 129

Pregunta
Cetuximab works against which enzyme to suppress cancer growth?
Respuesta
  • EGFR
  • Transcriptase
  • Transpeptidase
  • DNA polymerase

Pregunta 130

Pregunta
Retinoic acid is used to treat childhood ALL
Respuesta
  • True
  • False
Mostrar resumen completo Ocultar resumen completo

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