Pharm exam #3

Descrição

Made up questions for exam 3
Diana Flores
Quiz por Diana Flores, atualizado more than 1 year ago
Diana Flores
Criado por Diana Flores mais de 9 anos atrás
91
0

Resumo de Recurso

Questão 1

Questão
Which of the following is not safe during pregnancy?
Responda
  • ACEI
  • ARB
  • Aliskiren
  • None are safe during pregnancy

Questão 2

Questão
Which of the following metabolic changes is not seen with use of loop diuretics?
Responda
  • Decrease in Ca
  • Decrease in K
  • Increase in Mg
  • Increase in Glucose

Questão 3

Questão
Which of the following is not a side effect of thiazides?
Responda
  • Hyponatremia
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Hypouricemia
  • Sexual dysfunction

Questão 4

Questão
Which of the following G IIb/IIIa receptor antagonists has a long half life and is irreversible?
Responda
  • ASA
  • Tirofiban
  • Abciximab
  • Eptifibatide

Questão 5

Questão
Which of the following is not a side effect of osmostic diuretics?
Responda
  • Electrolyte imbalance
  • Anuria
  • Local pain and venous irritation
  • Acute renal failure

Questão 6

Questão
Which of the following is a characteristic of LMWH?
Responda
  • Low bioavailability
  • Monitored with PTT
  • Inexpensive
  • Renally excreted

Questão 7

Questão
Which of the following is not a side effect of Aliskiren?
Responda
  • Decrease in uric acid
  • Diarrhea
  • Abdominal pain
  • Angioedema

Questão 8

Questão
Which of the following is not correct regarding eplerenone?
Responda
  • It is more expensive than spironolactone
  • Less endocrine-related side effects than spironolactone
  • Lower chance of hyperkalemia
  • Higher affinity for aldosterone receptors

Questão 9

Questão
Which of the following is not a side effect of ACEI?
Responda
  • Cough
  • Hypotension
  • Gynecomastia
  • Hyperkalemia

Questão 10

Questão
Acetazolamide causes metabolic alkalosis because you excrete bicarbonate, and therefore it is best to administer this diuretic to metabolic acidic patients.
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 11

Questão
Which of the following are better to avoid with use of potassium-sparing diuretics?
Responda
  • ACEI
  • Lithium
  • Eplerenone
  • Amiloride

Questão 12

Questão
Choose which of the following you would administer to a CKD patient
Responda
  • Thiazide
  • CCB
  • ACEI
  • ARB

Questão 13

Questão
Which of the following diuretics act on the distal convoluted tubule to block sodium reabsorption?
Responda
  • Aldosterone antagonists
  • Thiazides
  • Loop diuretics
  • CAIs

Questão 14

Questão
You always have drug interactions with NSAIDS with use of diurectics because they inhibit prostaglandins which antagonizes the action of diurectics
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 15

Questão
Which diuretic would you not want to use in a patient who has gout?
Responda
  • Loop diuretics
  • Sodium channel blockers
  • Aldosterone receptor antagonists
  • Thiazides

Questão 16

Questão
How does Conivaptan promote free water diuresis?
Responda
  • By stimulating cGMP resulting in vascular smooth muscle relaxation
  • By being excreted unchanged and causing water to be retained within the proximal tubule and descending loop of Henle due to the freely permeable water
  • By blocking the epithelial sodium channels on principal cells and cause sodium excretion
  • By antagonizing vasopressing

Questão 17

Questão
Lisinopril antagonizes the AT1 receptor
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 18

Questão
Which of the following metabolic changes would you see with the use of a thiazide?
Responda
  • Increase Mg
  • Increase Ca
  • Decrease glucose
  • Increase in potassium

Questão 19

Questão
Hydrochlorthiazide is used more than chlorthalidone because it is more potent and research has shown that it produces a greater reduction in systolic blood pressure.
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 20

Questão
In which of the following conditions would not benefit from the use of vasopressin receptor antagonists?
Responda
  • Urinary frequency
  • CHF
  • cirrhosis
  • SIADH

Questão 21

Questão
Which of the following is a side effect Bosentan?
Responda
  • Epistaxis
  • Visual disturbances
  • Liver cirrhosis
  • Dyspepsia

Questão 22

Questão
Which of the following would require careful dosing in a renal failure patient?
Responda
  • Fondaparinux
  • Abciximab
  • Warfarin
  • Argatraban

Questão 23

Questão
Which of the following drug combinations would not be beneficial?
Responda
  • Metolazone and Bumetanide
  • HCTZ and ARB
  • ACEI and ARBs
  • Furosemide and Lisinopril

Questão 24

Questão
Liver toxicity is a side effect of tolvaptan?
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 25

Questão
Which of the following have short half-lives
Responda
  • UFH
  • Warfarin
  • ASA
  • Fondaparinux
  • Vorapaxar
  • Abciximab
  • Eptifibatide
  • Tirofiban

Questão 26

Questão
Why do we need to overlap warfarin and heparin or LMWH in a patient with a new VTE?
Responda
  • Because you want to deactivate antithrombin
  • It takes about 5 days to replace activated clotting factors with dysfunctional clotting factors
  • It takes about 5 days to replace Protein C and Protein S
  • You should never overlap warfarin with LMWH or UFH

Questão 27

Questão
Which of the following antiplatelets can cause dyspnea?
Responda
  • Prasugrel
  • Ticagrelor
  • Clopidogrel
  • Ticlopidine

Questão 28

Questão
Which of the following prostanoids can cause epistaxis?
Responda
  • Epoprosternol
  • Iloprost
  • Treprostinil (Remodulin)
  • Treprostinil (Tyvaso)

Questão 29

Questão
Which of the following is safe during lactation?
Responda
  • Dabigatran
  • Direct X inhibitors
  • Warfarin
  • Indirect X inhibitors

Questão 30

Questão
Which of the following antiplatelets can be used when a patient has had a cardiac event while taking clopidogrel?
Responda
  • Ticlopidine
  • Ticagrelor
  • Prasugrel
  • UFH

Questão 31

Questão
Which of the following antiplatelets is used with aspirin in post-ACS patients?
Responda
  • Ticagrelor
  • Ticlopidine
  • Prasugrel
  • Clopidogrel

Questão 32

Questão
Liver toxicity is a side effect of conivaptan
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 33

Questão
Which of the following antiplatelets is hardly used in clinical practice and can cause neutropenia?
Responda
  • Ticagrelor
  • Clopidogrel
  • Prasugrel
  • Ticlopidine

Questão 34

Questão
Which of the following antiplatelets is contraindicated for patients with a history of stroke/TIA?
Responda
  • Prasugrel
  • Ticagrelor
  • Clopidogrel
  • Ticlopidine

Questão 35

Questão
Ranolazine can be used ONLY in acute angina attacks
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 36

Questão
It is important to hold indirect factor X inhibitors for at least 48 hours
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 37

Questão
Why is it important to place a patient who develops HIT on another anticoagulant?
Responda
  • To decrease the platelet count.
  • To prevent a prothrombotic condition
  • To prevent bleeding.
  • To induce a prothrombotic condition

Questão 38

Questão
Which of the following is not part of the treatment for HIT?
Responda
  • Stop heparin products
  • Stop warfarin until platelet count is above 150,000
  • Use alternative anticoagulants
  • Give a high dose of warfarin when restarting

Questão 39

Questão
Which of the following drugs can cause serious cardiovascular and thromboemolic events if dose and hemoglobin range is not taken into account?
Responda
  • Calcitriol
  • ERAs
  • ESAs
  • Dopamine

Questão 40

Questão
Which of the following is not a characteristic of argatraban?
Responda
  • Monitored by PTT
  • Hepatic elimination
  • Decrease in INR
  • Can be used for treatment of HIT

Questão 41

Questão
Which of the following is absolutely not safe during pregnancy?
Responda
  • Warfarin
  • Heparin/LMWH
  • Fondaparinux
  • IV DTIs

Questão 42

Questão
Which of the following is correct regarding warfarin?
Responda
  • It causes less GI bleeding than dabigatran
  • It causes more GI bleed than Rivaroxaban
  • It causes less GI bleeds than Apixaban
  • It causes less ICH in Direct Factor X inhibitors and Dabigatran

Questão 43

Questão
How long should one hold warfarin before major surgery
Responda
  • 24 hours
  • 48 hours
  • 6 hours
  • 5 days

Questão 44

Questão
Which of the following has no reversal agent or is irreversible?
Responda
  • LMHW
  • UFH
  • Warfarin
  • Rivaroxaban

Questão 45

Questão
Which of the following is not a side effect of Acetazolamide?
Responda
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Kidney stones
  • Paresthesia
  • Hypernatremia

Questão 46

Questão
Which of the following is NOT a cause for concern of sodium nitroprusside-induce cyanide toxicity?
Responda
  • Renal dysfunction
  • Increasing dose during therapy
  • Post-MI
  • Increasing duration of therapy

Questão 47

Questão
Which of the following is true about SELECTIVE beta blockers? Choose all that apply:
Responda
  • Safe to use in COPD patients
  • Has a slightly better metabolic effect
  • Loses selectivity at lower doses
  • Has little effect in patients with reversible airway disease

Questão 48

Questão
Which of the following is a correct rationale as to why we would use a beta blocker to treat MI/angina peri-operatively? Choose all that apply:
Responda
  • To decrease production of aqueous humor
  • To decrease HR
  • To decrease contractility
  • To decrease portal hypertension
  • To inhibit vasodilatation or arteriolar spasms over the cortex
  • To decrease oxygen demand

Questão 49

Questão
Which of the following is not a characteristic of fondaparinux?
Responda
  • It directly affects factor X
  • It is renally excreted
  • It has a long half-life, so not good for bridging with warfarin
  • There is still risk of HIT

Questão 50

Questão
The benefit to using calcitriol over vitamin D analogs is that it can decrease the chance of hypercalcemia and hyperphosphetemia.
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 51

Questão
Which of the following are nonselective beta blockers? Choose all that apply:
Responda
  • Atenolol
  • Carvedilol
  • Propranolol
  • Metoprolol
  • Nadolol
  • Timolol
  • Labetalol
  • Satelol

Questão 52

Questão
Which of the following diuretics is the most potent?
Responda
  • Thiazides
  • Potassium-sparing diuretics
  • Loop diuretics
  • Sodium channel blockers

Questão 53

Questão
Which of the following is correct regarding warfarin reversal agents?
Responda
  • PCC are more efficient than FFP
  • PCC is usually given in a large volume
  • FFP and PCC are given with Vitamin K
  • FFP has larger risk of thrombosis

Questão 54

Questão
Which of the following is a side effect of hydralazine ONLY?
Responda
  • Sodium and water retention
  • Hypertrichosis
  • Precipitation of angina
  • Induced MI

Questão 55

Questão
Which of the following would you never want to give with nitrates due to their drug interaction?
Responda
  • Prostanoids
  • ERAs
  • Hydralazine
  • PDE-5 drugs

Questão 56

Questão
Which of the following prostanoids can cause sepsis?
Responda
  • Epoprostenol
  • Treprostinil (Remodulin)
  • Iloprost
  • Trerostinil (Tyvaso)

Questão 57

Questão
Which of the following prostanoids can cause severe hypotension?
Responda
  • Epoprostenol
  • Treprostinil (Remodulin)
  • Treprostinil (Tyvaso)
  • Ilioprost

Questão 58

Questão
Treprostinil (Tyvaso) is an inhaled prostenoid
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 59

Questão
Which of the following are NOT safe to use during pregnancy? Choose all that apply:
Responda
  • PDE-5 drugs
  • Sodium nitroprusside
  • ERAs
  • Prostenoids
  • Riociguat

Questão 60

Questão
Which of the following antiplatelets works by inhibiting ADP receptor?
Responda
  • GP IIb/IIIA inhibitors
  • Vorapaxar
  • P2Y12 inhibitors
  • ASA

Questão 61

Questão
Why are endothelin receptor antagonists used as a cardiac drug?
Responda
  • It's ability to block ETB receptor
  • Because of its vasoconstricting effects
  • Because of its ability to release NO to cause vasodilation
  • It's ability to block ETA receptor

Questão 62

Questão
Which of the following causes an increase in INR?
Responda
  • Dabigatran
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Bactrim with use of warfarin
  • Short gut syndrome

Questão 63

Questão
Nitrate tolerance can be fixed by having a nitrate-free period lasting from 4-8 hours
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 64

Questão
How do calcium-channel blockers cause decrease in contractility, SA node rate, and AV node conduction velocity?
Responda
  • By blocking sodium influx, causing calcium overload through the sodium/calcium exchanger
  • Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in arterial smooth muscle leading to decrease in afterload
  • Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in venous smooth muscle leading to decrease in afterload
  • Blocking calcium channels, blocking calcium influx, causing dilation in venous smooth muscle leading to decrease in preload

Questão 65

Questão
When using dihydropyridines, one must be careful when using it with digoxin and beta blockers, as this may cause additive negative effects on cardiac conduction
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 66

Questão
Which of the following is correct regarding nitrates and their mechanism of action?
Responda
  • They cause arterial dilation
  • They are denitrated to NO, increasing cGMP and causing increase in dilation
  • They are denitrated to NO, decreasing cGMP and causing increase in dilation
  • Releases NO from the drug itself, causing vasodilation

Questão 67

Questão
Which of the following is a reason for loss of response to ESA therapy?
Responda
  • Hypertension
  • Benign process
  • Iron deficiency
  • Pure white cell aplasia

Questão 68

Questão
Which of the following adrenergic agonists can cause a decrease in renal blood flow as an adverse effect?
Responda
  • Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
  • Dobutamine and Epinephrine
  • Norepinephrine and Dopamine
  • Phenylephrine and Dobutamine

Questão 69

Questão
Which of the following adrenergic agonists can cause reflex bradycardia?
Responda
  • Dobutamine
  • Epinephrine
  • Phenylephrine
  • Dopamine

Questão 70

Questão
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of alpha-1 adrenergic blockers?
Responda
  • Floppy Iris Syndrome
  • Prolonged QT interval
  • Bradycardia
  • Orthostatic hypertension

Questão 71

Questão
ARBs are not used as first line therapy despite the less occurrence of side effects.
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 72

Questão
Which of the following is not a side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics?
Responda
  • GI symptoms
  • Ototoxicity
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Hyperkalemia

Questão 73

Questão
Which of the following IV iron products can alter magnetic resonance imaging studies?
Responda
  • Iron dextran
  • Ferric gluconate
  • Ferumoxytol
  • Ferric carboxymaltose

Questão 74

Questão
Which of the following IV iron products can cause an anaphylactic reaction?
Responda
  • Iron dextran
  • Ferric gluconate
  • Ferumoxytol
  • Ferric carboxymaltose

Questão 75

Questão
Iron sucrose is given in divided doses, about 10 dialysis sessions
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 76

Questão
Which of the following is not a side effect of loop diuretics?
Responda
  • Hypomagnesemia
  • Hypocalcemia
  • Hypernatremia
  • Ototoxicity

Questão 77

Questão
Which of following phosphate binders can cause metabolic acidosis?
Responda
  • Calcium carbonate
  • Calcium acetate
  • Renagel
  • Renvela

Questão 78

Questão
Aliskiren inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 79

Questão
Ranolazine inhibits myocardial cell sodium/calcium exchanger, preventing ischemia-induced contractile dysfunction and delaying the onset of angina
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 80

Questão
Which of the following a Class I drug?
Responda
  • Propafenone
  • Propranolol
  • Amiodarone
  • Diltiazem

Questão 81

Questão
Dronedarone is a
Responda
  • beta-blocker
  • potassium channel blocker
  • sodium channel blocker
  • calcium channel blocker

Questão 82

Questão
Lidocaine is
Responda
  • for atrial arrhythmias
  • the strongest among the sodium channel blockers
  • used as a local anesthetic
  • a class IC drug

Questão 83

Questão
Which is the best drug for use in patients with CHF or structural heart disease?
Responda
  • Flecainide
  • Propafenone
  • Amiodarone
  • Verapamil
  • Dofetilide

Questão 84

Questão
Choose all that would be used for cardioversion of atrial fibrillation.
Responda
  • Dofetilide
  • Ibutilide
  • Verapamil
  • Procainamide
  • Lidocaine
  • Digoxin

Questão 85

Questão
Which of the following is a side effects of Amiodarone?
Responda
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Increase in iodine
  • Photosensitivity
  • These are all side effects of Amiodarone

Questão 86

Questão
Which of the following has beta-blocking activity?
Responda
  • Propafenone
  • Flecainide
  • Ibutilide
  • Procainamide

Questão 87

Questão
Which of the following does NOT rely on renal function for elimination
Responda
  • Sotalol
  • Dofetilide
  • Digoxin
  • Amiodarone

Questão 88

Questão
How does adenosine function in stress testing?
Responda
  • Causes vasodilation in healthy arteries, revealing the diseased coronary arteries
  • Causes vasoconstriction in healthy arteries, revealing the diseased coronary arteries
  • Causes vasodilation in diseased arteries, revealing the healthy coronary arteries
  • Causes vasoconstriction in diseased arteries, revealing healthy coronary arteries

Questão 89

Questão
Which of the following is correct regarding digoxin?
Responda
  • Inhibits potassium channels, decreasing intracellular potassium
  • Inhibits sodium-potassium ATPase, increasing sodium concentration thereby increasing calcium concentration
  • Causes negative inotropic effects
  • Causes positive dromotropic/chronotropic effects

Questão 90

Questão
Choose which of the following is true for Amiodarone
Responda
  • Shorter half life than dronedarone
  • Slightly more effective than dronedarone in Afib patients
  • High risk of side effects
  • More GI side effects
  • I2 in structure and effects thyroid
  • Does not have negative inotropic effects
  • Cannot be used for CHF

Questão 91

Questão
How do calcium channel blockers work as antiarrhythmics?
Responda
  • They dilate arterial smooth muscle
  • Mostly effects the sodium channels in atrial and ventricular tissues and Purkinjie fibers
  • Acts on the SA and AV node
  • Blocks sodium channels

Questão 92

Questão
Which of the following is correct regarding the use of beta blockers perioperatively?
Responda
  • Should be continued in patients who are already on a beta blocker
  • Use of them perioperatively in any situation is standard of practice
  • Perioperative beta blockage started within one day or less before noncardiac surgery decreases risk of stroke, death, hypotension, and bradycardia
  • It is not a clinical contreversy

Questão 93

Questão
Which of the following drugs should you be cautious due to chance of developing QT prolongation?
Responda
  • Dronedarone
  • Beta-blockers
  • Felcainide
  • Digoxin

Questão 94

Questão
Which of the following drug classes could cause Torsades de Pointes?
Responda
  • Beta blockers
  • Class IA drugs
  • Class IB drugs
  • Calcium channel blockers

Questão 95

Questão
Which of the following drugs can be used for ventricular arrhythmias?
Responda
  • Propafenone
  • Digoxin
  • Dofetilide
  • Ibutilide

Questão 96

Questão
Which of the following CANNOT be used for cardioversion?
Responda
  • Dofetilide
  • Ibutilide
  • Propafenone
  • Verapamil

Semelhante

Renal System A&P
Kirsty Jayne Buckley
CV Formats
Jonathan Moore
CRRT Quiz
Natalie Tredway
The Kidney
Hannah Tribe
Chapter 11: Cardiorespiratory Training: Programming and Progressions
preethamroymoras
Histology of Heart and Blood Vessels
Hannah Tribe
Anatomy and Physiology
Emma Purling
Renal calculi
Mark George
infective endocarditis
v.djabatey
Stroke (Lectures I & II)
Matthew Coulson
STEMI
Devin Welke