Question 1
Question
In an aircraft with normally aspirated engines, critical speed:
Answer
-
will decrease as altitude increases
-
will decrease as height decreases
-
will increase as altitude increases
-
will not change with change in altitude
Question 2
Question
If an engine fails during take-off before Vr, the correct action is to:
Answer
-
Maintain directional control and continue the take-off while shutting down the failed engine
-
Maintain directional control, reduce drag to a minimum and continue accelerating to Vr
-
Maintain directional control, close both throttles and bring the aircraft to a stop on the runway
-
Maintain directional control, identify and remedy the cause of the failure
Question 3
Question
The rudder side force during asymmetric flight with the wings level and in balanced flight:
Answer
-
can be reduced by banking 5° towards the failed engine
-
balances fuselage side force
-
creates a rudder yawing moment that opposes the asymmetric thrust and drag yawing moment
-
balances asymmetric thrust
Question 4
Question
If an engine fails below ACA during a normal approach:
Answer
-
Continue the approach whilst carrying out the restart drills
-
Go around immediately and ascertain the cause of the failure prior to any subsequent approach
-
Continue the approach whilst completing the feathering drills for the failed engine
-
Continue the approach and land
Question 5
Question
The airspeed instrument markings for a light twin are Blue Line (Vyse) and Red Line (Vmca)
Answer
-
These speeds only apply to the aircraft at maximum all up weight
-
These speeds are applicable at all aircraft weights
-
These speeds are for the aircraft at an average all up weight
-
Vmca decreases with a reduction in all up weight
Question 6
Question
If the critical engine fails and a constant speed is maintained:
Answer
-
In comparison with a failure of the non-critical engine a smaller rudder input will be required to contract the yaw
-
The single engine performance will be better than when the non-critical engine has failed
-
A larger rudder input will be required to counter the yaw compared to that required with a failure of the non-critical engine
-
There will be no difference in rudder input so long as the aircraft is in balanced flight
Question 7
Question
Which of the following answers is correct with regard to the correct application of bank following an engine failure:
Answer
-
Up to 5° bank can be applied towards the live engine when high power is being used and the airspeed is low
-
Bank can only be used instead of rudder to maintain straight flight
-
Up to 5° bank can be applied towards the failed engine when high power is being used and the airspeed is low
-
Up to 5° bank can only be applied towards the live engine when high power is being used and directional control has been lost
Question 8
Question
When an engine fails, the decision to feather should be made promptly because:
Answer
-
Feathering requires engine oil pressure which is reducing rapidly
-
If the RPM drops below 1300 RPM feathering may not be possible
-
The loss of oil pressure may cause the propeller to overspeed
-
If the RPM falls below 1300 RPM the unfeathering accumulator will attempt to unfeather the propeller
Question 9
Question
After an engine failure and rudder had been applied to balance the aircraft, it will still be necessary to prevent roll with aileron because:
Answer
-
The secondary effect of rudder is roll
-
The aircraft is sideslipping slightly
-
There is a difference in the slipstream over the wings causing a difference in lift
-
The aircraft is slowing down and the rudder is becoming less effective
Question 10
Question
Which statement is true concerning the loss of the critical engine?
Answer
-
It will have no effect on performance provided the aircraft is in balanced flight
-
Performance will be worse than with the failure of the non-critical engine
-
Critical speed will be lower since the thrust line of the critical engine is closer to the fuselage
-
Performance will be better than with the failure of the non-critical engine
Question 11
Question
When closing the throttle of the live engine during an asymmetric landing:
Answer
-
Any yaw will be due to crosswind
-
The aircraft will yaw towards the live engine
-
There will be no yaw provided the rudder trim is neutral
-
The aircraft will yaw towards the dead engine
Question 12
Question
Which of the following statements is most correct in relation to the fuselage side force in controlled asymmetric flight?
Answer
-
With 5° bank towards the live engine, the side forces can be eliminated, however the ball will not be central
-
The residual side force cannot be eliminated
-
When sufficient rudder is used to maintain a constant heading, the side forces will be balanced and the longitudinal axis will be aligned with the flight path
-
The side force will be eliminated when rudder is used to prevent yaw and the wings level
Question 13
Question
The effectiveness of the rudder during asymmetric flight:
Answer
-
Increases if power is increased
-
Increases with an aft C of G
-
Increases with 5° bank applied towards the dead engine
-
Increases with a forward C of G
Question 14
Question
During an engine failure in the cruise, which is the correct action?
Answer
-
The wings should be levelled using the ailerons then sufficient rudder applied to prevent yaw and back pressure applied
-
Rudder should be applied to stop any yaw, ailerons used to select and keep the wings level and enough back pressure applied to maintain the attitude
-
Initially monitor the engine instruments to see which engine has failed before applying any control inputs
-
Select maximum continuous power then apply the controls as in answer B
Question 15
Question
In cruise flight if the left engine fails:
Answer
-
In a turn to the right the aircraft will yaw and roll rapidly to the left and enter a spiral dive
-
The slip ball will move out to the left and indicate which rudder should be applied
-
In a turn to the left the aircraft will yaw and roll rapidly to the left and enter a spiral dive
-
In a turn it is important to roll the wings level before applying any other control inputs
Question 16
Question
If an engine fails during the climb:
Answer
-
Half the power and half the performance are lost
-
The loss of performance will depend on whether or not it is the critical engine that has failed
-
Half the power and up to 90% of the performance will be lost
-
The rate of climb must be reduced in order to maintain the performance
Question 17
Question
The criteria used to determine Vmca are:
Answer
-
Failure of the critical engine and its propeller windmilling, engine controls set at take-off power, most forward allowable center of gravity at maximum allowable take-off weight
-
Failure of the critical engine, engine controls set at take-off power, rear most allowable center of gravity at maximum allowable take-off weight
-
Failure of the critical engine and its propeller windmilling, engine controls set for full power, rear most allowable center of gravity, maximum take-off weight, gear and flaps at take-off setting and a maximum of 5° bank towards the live engine
-
Failure of the critical engine and its propeller windmilling, engine controls set for full power, rear most allowable center of gravity at maximum allowable take-off weight, gear and flaps in the take off setting
Question 18
Question
The critical speed of the DA 42 will reduce:
Question 19
Question
The centrifugal latch in the CSU is to:
Answer
-
Prevent the propeller from fining off so much that it could over speed
-
Prevent the propeller from being feathered at RPMs above 1300
-
Prevent the propeller from being feathered if the RPM is below 1200
-
Prevent the propeller from being feathered at RPMs below 1300
Question 20
Question
Four factors that affect Critical Speed are:
Answer
-
Drag, power output of the good engine, bank, critical engine
-
Thrust, bank, critical engine, propeller feathered
-
Thrust, gear down, critical engine, propeller feathered
-
Flaps, drag, feathered propeller, bank
Question 21
Question
Why is there a two minute limit on starter assisted restart when the engine has been shut down?
Answer
-
In order not to shock load the engine after it has cooled
-
To ensure that the aircraft does not drift down to below 3000 feet agl
-
Because the engine will cool and the glow plugs are inhibited by the left squat switch
-
Because the engine will cool and the glow plugs are inhibited by the right squat switch
Question 22
Question
What are the airspeed limits for a windmilling restart?
Answer
-
125 to 145 knots
-
Above 100 knots
-
113 to 133 knots
-
118 to 156 knots
Question 23
Question
Can the Yaw Damper be used without using the autopilot?
Answer
-
Yes
-
No
-
Only below 120 knots
-
Only above 800 feet
Question 24
Question
What actions should you take in the event of a failure of the PFD in VMC conditions?
Answer
-
Divert as soon as possible
-
Use the standby instruments
-
Press the reversionary Mode button on the audio panel
-
Both A and C are correct
Question 25
Question
When Flight Level Change is selected on the autopilot control panel, pressing the DOWN button will:
Answer
-
Cause the aircraft to descend at a higher speed
-
Cause the aircraft to increase the rate of descent
-
Cause the descent speed to decrease
-
Decrease the selected level off altitude
Question 26
Question
When Crossfeed is selected, where does the excess fuel go?
Question 27
Question
The Emergency Battery provides power for:
Answer
-
The ECU's in the event of a total electrical failure
-
The Standby AI and floodlights
-
The left main bus and right man bus
-
The right main bus only
Question 28
Question
What precaution must be taken when using the autopilot in icing conditions
Answer
-
It must never be used
-
It can only be used in the cruise
-
It must be disconnected about every 15 minutes to check for out of trim stick force
-
The Yaw Damper must be switched off
Question 29
Question
What effect does having the air conditioning on have on aircraft performance?
Answer
-
ROC is reduced by 70'/minute and there is a 2% reduction in cruise IAS
-
ROC is reduced by 70'/minute and there is a 5% reduction in cruise IAS
-
There is no change because the system is self-contained
-
There is no change to the ROC but cruise speed is reduced by 5%
Question 30
Question
When the Comm 1/2 Switch is pressed:
Answer
-
Both pilots can talk and receive on both radios
-
Both pilots can talk and receive on both radios but only the left seat occupant can hear navaid identification
-
The left seat pilot can talk and receive on Comm 1 only and hear navaid identification. The right seat occupant can only talk and receive on Comm 2
-
The left seat pilot can talk and receive on Comm 1 only. The right seat occupant can only talk and receive on Comm 2 and hear navaid identification.
Question 31
Question
When the gear test button is pressed, what indications should you see?
Answer
-
Three green lights, the gear warning light and the L/R Engine Fire warnings
-
The red gear warning light
-
The red gear warning light and three greens if it is pressed when the gear is UP
-
The gear warning light and the L/R Engine Fire warnings
Question 32
Question
The variable elevator backstop limits rearward stick movement when:
Answer
-
Either throttle is more than 20%
-
Both throttles are less than 20%
-
Either throttle is less than 20%
-
Both throttles are more than 20%
Question 33
Question
What is the maximum power that can be set in order to warm the engines up quickly?
Answer
-
Cannot exceed idling RPM
-
15%
-
50%
-
25%
Question 34
Question
The right hand squat switch controls electrical power to:
Answer
-
Undercarriage motor, Glow plugs, ECU test, Stall warner heating
-
TAS voice warning (if fitted), Glow plugs, ECU test, Stall warner heating
-
TAS voice warning (if fitted), Glow plugs, ECU test, Undercarriage motor
-
ECU test, TAS voice warning (if fitted), Undercarriage motor, Stall warner heating
Question 35
Question
What are the maximum take-off and landing weights?
Answer
-
1900 kg and 1765 kg respectively
-
1805 kg and 1510 kg respectively
-
1900 kg and 1805 kg respectively
-
1765 kg and 1510 kg respectively
Question 36
Question
How many fuel drains are there on each side?
Question 37
Question
What are the remaining system operating times after first annunciation of the DEICE LVL LO warning?
NORM: [blank_start]45 min[blank_end]
HIGH: [blank_start]22 min[blank_end]
Question 38
Question
How many de-icing fluid is left in the tank when the DEICE LVL LO caution alert appears? [blank_start]10 liter (2.6 US gal)[blank_end]
Question 39
Question
What is the operational time of the Ice Protection System at full capacity for each mode?
NORM: [blank_start]2 hours[blank_end]
HIGH: [blank_start]1 hour[blank_end]
MAX: [blank_start]30 min[blank_end]
Question 40
Question
What is the RPM limitation for Maximum overspeed condition? [blank_start]2500 RPM max. 20 sec[blank_end]
Question 41
Question
What is the speed range for continuous operation in icing conditions? [blank_start]118-156 KIAS[blank_end]
Question 42
Question
What is the reference speed (Vref) for an approach in icing conditions? [blank_start]90 KIAS, Flap APP[blank_end]
Question 43
Question
What are the speeds for Vfe APP, Vfe LDG, VLO gear extension, VLO gear retraction: [blank_start]133, 113, 188, 152[blank_end] KIAS
Question 44
Question
The failure of the critical engine results in: Movement of the [blank_start]thrust line[blank_end] closer to the [blank_start]longitudinal axis[blank_end] of the aircraft
Answer
-
thrust line
-
longitudinal axis