Question 1
Question
The IV site is changed only as needed
Question 2
Question
It is ok to stop a heparin or antibiotic infusion
Question 3
Question
How many cc to flush a SL lock?
Question 4
Question
1cc and 1ml are the same thing
Question 5
Question
PRBs are often used for
Question 6
Question
albumin is used to
Answer
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treat blood loss from trauma/surgery
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to correct fluid volume (draw fluid back into the vessels)
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for active bleeding to coagulate blood
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to decrease BP
Question 7
Question
The difference between blood type, screen & cross match is only good for 72 hours
Question 8
Question
what enters the blood stream and has a systemic effect?
Answer
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analgesics
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anesthetics
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normal saline
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antiemetics
Question 9
Question
The top port of the primary IV line is used to connect a PCA
Question 10
Question
You are unconscious when given this type of anesthesia
Question 11
Question
dermatomes need to be tested after patient has had this type of anesthetic
Question 12
Question
what dermatome marks the umbilicus?
Question 13
Question
Patients with an epidural will also have a foley catheter
Question 14
Question
Spinal are injected in what region?
Answer
-
L1-L2
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T11-T12
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L3-L4
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T1-T2
Question 15
Question
The onset of an epidural is much faster then a spinal
Question 16
Question
What caused a spinal headache?
Question 17
Question
LPNs fill out PCA forms
Question 18
Question
Check all the apply
To avoid risk of bleeding or hematoma...
Answer
-
Do not give dalteparin for at least 4 hours after epidural catheter is removed
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Do not give heparin for at least 2 hours after an epidural is removed
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Do not remove epidural within 12 hours of a deltaparin or heparin injection
Question 19
Question
There is a risk of patients with PCAs getting addicted to opiods
Question 20
Question
When a new med infusion is prescribed via IV and the drug guide does not say that it IS or IS NOT compatible with the current med in the PCA, you can assume it's compatible and prime a secondary line
Question 21
Question
Which type of anesthesia requires the airway to be maintained by a endotracheal tube & ventilator?
Question 22
Question
local anesthetic is used for most major surgeries
Question 23
Question
pick the correct order of how things return when regional anesthetic wears off
Answer
-
pain, sensation, motor
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motor, sensation, pain
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sensation, pain, motor
-
sensation, motor, pain
Question 24
Question
urinary retention is a side effect of general anesthesia
Question 25
Question
check all that apply
potential complications post surgery:
Answer
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hemorrhage
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pnemonia
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PE
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DVT
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paralytic ileus
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wound infection
Question 26
Question
match the term: excision/ removal
Answer
-
ectomy
-
oscopy
-
ostomy
-
plasty
Question 27
Question
match the term: forming an opening
Answer
-
ectomy
-
oscopy
-
ostomy
-
plasty
Question 28
Question
match the term: surgical repair
Answer
-
ectomy
-
oscopy
-
plasty
-
otomy
Question 29
Question
match the term: anastamosis
Question 30
Question
match the term: Minimal depression of the LOC with maintenance of protective airway refleces
Answer
-
general sedation
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conscious sedation
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local sedation
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regional sedation
Question 31
Question
pick the correct motor block score:
-no motor block, able to fully flex knees and feet
Question 32
Question
a motor block score of 3 would indicate that the patient...
Answer
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has no motor block and can fully flex knees and feet
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is only able to move knees and feet (unable to raise extended legs)
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able to move feet only
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unable to move hips, knees or feet (unable to flex ankle joint)
Question 33
Question
check all the post-operative exercises that should be done 10x per hour
Question 34
Question
what is the most common purpose of the NG tube?
Question 35
Question
which tube type is used for decompression of the GI tract
Answer
-
entroflex tube
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saleum sump tube
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standard suction tube
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a 12-14fr catheter tube
Question 36
Question
LPNs can insert & remove NG tubes
Question 37
Question
Assessment of the NG tube, pick the correct scenario
Answer
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suction is set between 40-80mmHg, HOB elevated to 30 degrees, NG tube taped securely to bridge of nose and pinned to gown
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suction is set between 40-80mmHg, HOB elevated to 30 degrees, NG tube taped securely to cheek and gown
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suction set above 80mmHg, HOB elevated to 45 degrees, NG tube taped securely to bridge of nose and pinned to gown
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suction is set between 40-80mmHg, bed is supine, NG tube taped securely to bridge of nose and pinned to gown
Question 38
Question
gastric aspirate is alkaline, ph is 7+
Question 39
Question
when giving NG medications...
Answer
-
Turn off NG suction, flush NGT with 30-50ml of warm tap water pre & post med admin, do not turn NG tube back on until 30min post med admin
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Turn off NG suction, flush NGT with 5ml of warm tap water pre & post med admin, do not turn NG tube back on until 30min post med admin
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Turn off NG suction, flush NGT with 30-50ml of warm tap water pre & post med admin, turn NG suction back on
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Leave NG suction on, flush NGT with 30-50ml of warm tap water pre & post med admin
Question 40
Question
What to report to physician, check all the apply in regards to NG tubes
Answer
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NG tube drainage: coffee grounds, hemolyzed sanguinous drainage, dark brown granular appearance
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excessive losses: more than 500-1000 mls per hour
-
minimal losses: less than 30ml/hr
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NG tube drainage: bile coloured aspirate
Question 41
Question
During TPN, the client pump is alarming, the screen indicates upstream occlusion.
The LPN would assess between...
Answer
-
The bag and the pump
-
the pump and the patient
Question 42
Question
TPN can be a shock to a malnourished body
Question 43
Question
Name the syndrome:
Defined as the potentially fatal shifts in fluids and electrolytes that may occur in malnourished patients receiving artificial refeeding eg. TPN (whether enterally or parenterally). These shifts result from hormonal and metabolic changes and may cause serious clinical complications.
Answer
-
Refeeding symdrome
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Malabsorption syndrome
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toxic shock syndrome
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cushing's syndrome
Question 44
Question
The pump has broke down for a client receiving TPN and a new one may take a hour to find, what should be done?
Question 45
Question
In regards to TPN:
after the initiation of a lipid, the client starts complaining of SOB and chest pain... what do you do?
Answer
-
raise the head of the bed and do a chest assessment to check for crackels
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this is likely a fat embolism, follow air embolism protocol and call a code blue!
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take an O2 sat, get the patient to do DB & C, re-assess
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check for a prn order of nitro spray
Question 46
Question
TPN can be administered via a PICC or PIV
Question 47
Question
A patient on TPN would have an NPO diet
Question 48
Question
Max hang time for TPN and/or lipids
Question 49
Question
Upon initial initiation of TPN, blood glucose is checked Q6h x48, then daily.
What is the rational for this
Answer
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no rational, standard policy and will very by employer
-
because TPN has a high concentration of dextrose, can cause hyperglycemia
-
Patients may become hypoglycemic on TPN
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to monitor for refeeding syndrome
Question 50
Question
Name the main metabolic problems that can occur with TPN
Answer
-
hyperglycemia, fluid overload, refeeding syndrome, rebound hypoglycemia, hepatic dysfunction
-
hypoglycemia, dehydration, refeeding syndrome, rebound hyperglycemia, hepatic dysfunction
-
Nausea, vomitting and diarrhea
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infected IV, phlebitis and air embolis,
Question 51
Question
You suspect the patient has an air embolus - what is the protocol?
Answer
-
check O2 sat, listen for crackles in the lungs, slow the infusion, raise head of bed, notify RN
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moitor for chest pain, SOB, rapid weak pulse, place on left side trendelenburg position (unless contraindicated), administer O2, notify RN/ call a code blue if necessary
-
moitor for chest pain, SOB, rapid weak pulse, place on right side trendelenburg position (unless contraindicated), administer O2, notify RN/ call a code blue if necessary
-
moitor for chest pain, SOB, rapid weak pulse, lie patient supine (unless contraindicated), check O2 sat, notify RN if <95% on RA
Question 52
Question
A patient will never discontinue TPN, it is given at the end stages of life as comfort care
Question 53
Question
an ileostomy is placed where?
Question 54
Question
paralytic ileus is an indicator for a colostomy
Question 55
Question
an ileostomy is permanent
Question 56
Question
a cold stoma is a healthy stoma
Question 57
Question
a black stoma is a beautiful stoma
Question 58
Question
a person with a colostomy will lose 1.5-2L of fluids daily
Question 59
Question
After a bowel surgery, it is normal for bowel sounds & gas to have not returned by POD1.
Question 60
Question
How is C-diff spread?
Answer
-
poor hand hygiene
-
airborn
-
droplets
Question 61
Question
Name the required precaution:
Used for patients/residents that have an infection that can be spread by contact with the person’s skin, mucous membranes, feces, vomit, urine, wound drainage, or other body fluids, or by contact with equipment or environmental surfaces that may be contaminated by the patient/resident or by his/her secretions and excretions.
Answer
-
airborne precautions
-
droplet precautions
-
contact precaustions
-
standard precautions
Question 62
Question
Name the type of precaution:
Used for patients/residents that have an infection that can be spread through close respiratory or mucous membrane contact with respiratory secretions.
Answer
-
standard
-
contact
-
droplet
-
airborne
Question 63
Question
Name the type of precaution:
Used for patients/residents that have an infection that can be spread over long distances when suspended in the air. These disease particles are very small and require special respiratory protection and room ventilation.
Answer
-
standard
-
airborne
-
droplet
-
contact
Question 64
Question
Contact precautions are a set of basic infection prevention practices intended to prevent transmission of infectious diseases from one person to another. Because we do not always know if a person has an infectious disease, contact precautions are applied to every person every time to assure that transmission of disease does not occur. These precautions were formerly known as “universal precautions.”
Question 65
Question
Hospitals have pressurized rooms for patients with compromised immune systems. Air will flow out of the room instead of in, so that any airborne microorganisms (e.g., bacteria) that may infect the patient are kept away.
This type of pressure is called:
Answer
-
positive pressure
-
negative pressure
-
standard pressure
Question 66
Question
"___________________" room pressure is an isolation technique used in hospitals and medical centers to prevent cross-contaminations from room to room. It includes a ventilation system that generates "________________" pressure to allow air to flow into the isolation room but not escape from the room, as air will naturally flow from areas with higher pressure to areas with lower pressure, thereby preventing contaminated air from escaping the room. This technique is used to isolate patients with airborne contagious diseases such as tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox.
Answer
-
negative and negative
-
negative and positive
-
positive and negative
-
positive and positive
Question 67
Question
A hospital-acquired infection (HAI), also known as a "_____________________", is an infection that is acquired in a hospital or other health care facility.
Answer
-
nosocomial infection
-
transient flora
-
latrogenic infection
-
exogenous infection
-
endogenous infection
Question 68
Question
The chain of infection order
Answer
-
an infectious agent (pathogen), a reservoir, a portal of exit, a mode of transportation, a portal of entry (to host), a susceptible host
-
an infectious agent (pathogen), portal of exit, a reservoir, a mode of transportation, a susceptible host, a portal of entry (to host),
-
an infectious agent (pathogen), a portal of entry (to host), a susceptible host, a reservoir, a portal of exit, a mode of transportation
-
an infectious agent (pathogen), a susceptible host, a portal of entry (to host), a mode of transportation, a reservoir, a portal of exit
Question 69
Question
check all that apply - modes of how pathogens are spread
Answer
-
contact (direct & indirect)
-
droplet (respiratory secretions)
-
airborne (particles suspended in air)
-
vehicle (through contaminated substances)
-
vectorborne (through fleas, ticks, lice, pests)
-
sterileborne (through sterilized products)
Question 70
Question
What is not in the LPN scope in regards to PIVs
Answer
-
hang/change non-med bags such as NS, D5W, Ringer's lactate etc
-
adjust IV rate as required on a manual and/or pump
-
care and maintenance of a SL lock
-
remove SL/ discontinue IV
-
prime a primary and/or secondary line
-
hang IV meds and red label bags
Question 71
Question
KCL (potassium) can be hung by an LPN if prepared by a pharmacist and the LPN has additional training
Question 72
Question
LPNs can assess and change a dressing on a central IV line
Question 73
Question
The medication line is hung ______________ than the primary line
Question 74
Question
increased pulse, increased bp, increased resps, edema, weight gain, lung crackles and increased urination are signs of what?
Answer
-
phlebitis
-
fluid overload
-
air embolism
-
occlusion
-
infection
Question 75
Question
Blood must be initiated (hung & infusing) by RN within _________ of leaving blood bank. Once out of fridge, a bag of blood is only usable for ___________.
Answer
-
30min, 4 hours
-
60min, 4 hours
-
30min, 6 hours
-
4 hours, 24 hours
Question 76
Question
Name the correct term:
A large volume of fluid or dose of a drug given intravenously and rapidly at one time.
Answer
-
an IV bolus
-
a TKVO
-
a DRIP
-
an IV infusion
Question 77
Question
In regards to TPN
lipids are fatty acids/glycerol and contain twice as many calories per gram than Carbohydrates and proteins
Question 78
Question
Too many amino acids create a positive nitrogen balance in our bodies and this not helpful
Question 79
Question
Carbohydrates are our main source of energy
Question 80
Question
If the order may read “replace NG losses 2:1” with D5NS with 20 MEq of KCL”
it means every 12 hours the nurse will tally NG losses and replace with twice the amount of IV solution over the next 12 hours
Question 81
Question
In regards to NG tubes
Excessive gastric content loss may yield metabolic alkalosis but, a) the kidneys may compensate, and b) NG may only be short term – so alkalosis may only be mild.
Question 82
Question
When might kayexalate be ordered for a patient?
Answer
-
before bowel surgery to clear out the GI system
-
when potassium levels are high
-
when potassium levels are low
-
to wake up a sleepy bowel
Question 83
Question
post-surgery patients are often prescribed more than 1 opioid medication
Question 84
Question
choose all the apply in regards to PCAs
Answer
-
only the patient can press the button
-
a family member or nurse can press the button for the patient
-
requires a PIV
-
usually initiated by the RN in PAR
-
average length of use is 7 days
-
a basal rate of pain medication is always transfusing and the PCA is in addition
-
it is often under used due to patient fear of addicion
-
it is often overused due to patient addiction
-
patient education is required
-
LPNs can monitor: dose, med concentration, lockout, basal rate, attempts, and delivered
Question 85
Question
A spinal is given into the epidural space
Question 86
Question
check all that apply
Effects of anesthesia can be maintained as long as required for
Answer
-
epidurals
-
spinals
-
local
-
general
Question 87
Question
There is such thing as a patient controlled epidural (PCEA)
Question 88
Question
Which route of med admin has the fastest onset
Answer
-
IV
-
IM
-
PO
-
SQ
-
SL
-
Transdermal
Question 89
Question
LPNs need to take report from the PAR nurse and collaborate with RNs when receiving "fresh" post-op patients
Question 90
Question
Pick the correct terminology:
An area of skin innervated by the sensory fibers of a single dorsal root of a spinal nerve
Answer
-
dermatome
-
afferent nerve
-
efferent nerve
-
motor/sensory nerve
-
neuron