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SFPC 5

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Security
Arthur Casto
Quiz by Arthur Casto, updated more than 1 year ago
Arthur Casto
Created by Arthur Casto over 6 years ago
21243
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which of the following statements are true?
Answer
  • Physical security systems provide the means to counter threats only during wartime.
  • Physical security measures are a combination of active or passive systems, devices, and security personnel used to protect a security interest from possible threats.
  • DoD 5200.8-R addresses the physical security of personnel, installations, operations, and assets of DoD Components.

Question 2

Question
Which of the following statements are true? (Select all that apply.)
Answer
  • The Commander is responsible for the development of the AT plan.
  • The ATO is responsible for the writing of the AT plan.
  • The ATO is responsible for leveraging the capabilities of the organization’s AT Working Group to assist with creating the AT plan.

Question 3

Question
Which paragraph of the AT plan lists the specific task for each subordinate unit?
Answer
  • Execution
  • Situation
  • Mission
  • Annexes

Question 4

Question
Which AT plan exercise(s) uses scenario driven events to test specific portions of the AT plan?
Answer
  • Table-top
  • Drill
  • Full-scale
  • All of the above

Question 5

Question
Which of the following are reasons why AT plan exercises are important?
Answer
  • They increase anti-terrorism awareness
  • They provide a way to assess and identify vulnerabilities and resources
  • They confirm training adequacy
  • All of the above

Question 6

Question
Whose primary responsibility is working with Industrial Security Representatives (IS Reps) and contractor personnel to authorize and maintain classified Information Systems?
Answer
  • Counterintelligence Special Agent (CISA)
  • Information System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)
  • Information System Security Manager (ISSM)
  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)

Question 7

Question
True or false? An employee’s need for a Personnel Security Clearance (PCL) is determined by the program manager, but the clearance level is determined by the Government Contracting Activity (GCA).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 8

Question
When an employee no longer needs access to classified information, who is responsible for removing access and debriefing the employee?
Answer
  • Industrial Security Representative (IS Rep)
  • Information System Security Manager (ISSM)
  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)
  • Information System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)

Question 9

Question
Which of the following organizations conducts periodic Security Vulnerability Assessments (SVAs) of contractor facilities as the CSO to the Department of Defense?
Answer
  • Defense Security Service (DSS)
  • Federal Bureau of Investigations (FBI)
  • Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
  • Federal Acquisition Service (FAS)

Question 10

Question
When cleared contractors visit a cleared facility or government installation, whose security requirements take precedence?
Answer
  • The security requirements of the contractor’s home facility
  • The security requirements of the host activity/facility

Question 11

Question
After a need is identified, the Government Contracting Activity (GCA) ___________________.
Answer
  • awards the contract
  • defines the initial requirements for the product/service
  • publishes a Request for Proposal (RFP)
  • evaluates the contractors’ proposals

Question 12

Question
Who administers and oversees the contractor security program?
Answer
  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)
  • Information System Security Manager (ISSM)
  • Information System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)
  • Counterintelligence Special Agent (CISA)

Question 13

Question
True or false? The Contracting Officer’s Representative (COR) is authorized to make changes to the contract, even if those changes affect price or quality.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 14

Question
Which contracting document provides a record of the contractor’s commitment to comply with the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?
Answer
  • DD Form 254, Department of Defense Contract Security Classification Specification
  • Statement of Work (SOW)
  • DD Form 441, Department of Defense Security Agreement

Question 15

Question
The ______________ has been designated as the Cognizant Security Office (CSO) for the DoD and over 30 other non-DoD agencies.
Answer
  • Department of Energy (DOE)
  • Defense Security Service (DSS)
  • Office of the Director of National Intelligence (ODNI)
  • Department of Homeland Security (DHS)

Question 16

Question
Department of Homeland Security (DHS)
Answer
  • works for a company with a Facility Clearance (FCL)
  • might work on a classified contract
  • requires access to classified information

Question 17

Question
True or false? A contractor facility may access and store classified material as soon as the Facility Clearance (FCL) is granted.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 18

Question
Which of the following topics is NOT included in the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)?
Answer
  • General policies and procedures
  • Facility Clearances (FCLs)
  • Acquisitions guidelines
  • Reporting requirements

Question 19

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following roles are filled by contractor employees?
Answer
  • Information System Security Manager (ISSM)
  • Insider Threat Program Senior Official (ITPSO)
  • Information System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)
  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)

Question 20

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. The National Industrial Security Program (NISP) is:
Answer
  • a voluntary program for cleared contractor facilities
  • designed to safeguard classified information entrusted to industry
  • a government-industry partnership
  • established by Executive Order 12829

Question 21

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. The Cognizant Security Office (CSO) does which of the following?
Answer
  • Establishes industrial security programs
  • Provides security guidance
  • Provides policy clarifications
  • Administers the National Industrial Security Program (NISP)

Question 22

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. Which of the following are Counterintelligence Special Agent (CISA) responsibilities?
Answer
  • Provide advice, assistance, and guidance regarding counterintelligence best practices
  • Authorize and maintain Information Systems
  • Assist with foreign travel briefings and debriefings

Question 23

Question
To issue a Facility Clearance (FCL), the Facility Clearance Branch (FCB) reviews which of the following?
Answer
  • Information System Security Plans
  • Facility sponsorship
  • Employee foreign travel records

Question 24

Question
Who performs classified Information System assessments?
Answer
  • Insider Threat Program Senior Official (ITPSO)
  • Information System Security Professional/Security Control Assessor (ISSP/SCA)
  • Counterintelligence Special Agent (CISA)
  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)

Question 25

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. DD Form 254, Department of Defense Contract Security Classification Specification, contains which of the following?
Answer
  • Travel requirements
  • Specific clearance and access requirements
  • Authorization to generate classified information
  • Classified storage requirements

Question 26

Question
What is OPSEC?
Answer
  • A process, not a set of rules
  • A method for denying an adversary access to our critical information
  • Part of everyone’s job – including yours
  • All of the above

Question 27

Question
How many steps are there in the OPSEC process?
Answer
  • Two
  • Five
  • Six
  • Too many

Question 28

Question
What step in the OPSEC process is Analyzing Threats?
Answer
  • Step Three
  • Step Five
  • Step Six
  • Step Two

Question 29

Question
____________ are like pieces of a puzzle an adversary uses to reveal a picture of our operations.
Answer
  • Threats
  • Indicators
  • Questions
  • Critical information

Question 30

Question
What is the last step in the OPSEC process?
Answer
  • Identify threats
  • Identify OPSEC countermeasures
  • Identify vulnerabilities
  • Identify critical information

Question 31

Question
Simonne left a safe containing classified material open while she went out for lunch. There is no evidence that anyone had access to the material while she was out, but nobody can confirm that the materials were safe from disclosure. What type of violation has occurred?
Answer
  • Suspected compromise of classified information
  • Loss of classified information
  • Compromise of classified information

Question 32

Question
Security violations are reported to which entity?
Answer
  • the DoD System of Record
  • PSMO-I
  • DSS IS Rep
  • FBI

Question 33

Question
Changes in a facility's storage capability are reported how?
Answer
  • By phone to the FBI
  • To PSMO-I via the DoD System of Record
  • In writing to your DSS IS Rep at the DSS field office
  • To your DSS IS Rep via e-FCL

Question 34

Question
Cleared employees who refuse to execute Standard Form 312 are reported how?
Answer
  • In writing to your IS Rep at the DSS field office
  • To PSMO-I via the DoD System of Record
  • By phone to the FBI
  • To your IS Rep via e-FCL

Question 35

Question
Loss, compromise, and suspected compromise of classified information are reported how?
Answer
  • In writing to your DSS IS Rep at the DSS field office
  • By phone to the FBI
  • To PSMO-I via the DoD System of Record
  • To your IS Rep via e-FCL

Question 36

Question
Any individual or group that represents a foreign government is considered a security threat.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 37

Question
Reports on changes in KMP are required only when there is a change in the president, CEO, or FSO.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 38

Question
Of the scenarios listed below, which ones must be reported to your IS Rep as change conditions affecting the facility's clearance? a. The company has merged with another company and is under new ownership. b. The company has hired 12 new employees to support a new major contract. c. The company is moving to a new location to meet the needs of its growing staff. d. The company just lost its largest contract and has filed for bankruptcy.
Answer
  • a, b, c, and d
  • a, b, and c
  • a, c, and d
  • a and d

Question 39

Question
Evidence of tampering with your facility's classified storage container is an example of what type of security threat?
Answer
  • Espionage
  • Sabotage
  • Subversive activity
  • Terrorism

Question 40

Question
Which of the following is reported to PSMO-I?
Answer
  • Suspicious contacts
  • Unauthorized receipt of classified material
  • Security equipment vulnerabilities
  • Changes in cleared employee status

Question 41

Question
After returning from a recent professional conference, Franklin received a request for classified information from an uncleared person that he met at the conference. What kind of report should be submitted?
Answer
  • Suspicious contact
  • Individual culpability
  • Adverse information
  • Unauthorized receipt of classified material

Question 42

Question
The two primary methods of submitting reports to your DSS IS Rep at the DSS Field Office are _________ and __________.
Answer
  • in writing; through e-FCL
  • in writing; through the DoD System of Record
  • through the DoD System of Record; through e-FCL
  • by phone; through e-FCL

Question 43

Question
Working late one evening on a priority project, Helen left several classified documents visible on her desk while she stepped away from her desk for a moment. When she returned, she found a member of the cleaning crew straightening the classified documents on her desk. What type of violation has occurred?
Answer
  • Loss of classified information
  • Suspected compromise of classified information
  • Compromise of classified information

Question 44

Question
Of the following types of personnel-related information, which is NOT reported to PSMO-I?
Answer
  • Suspicious contacts
  • Adverse information
  • Refusal to execute Standard Form (SF) 312
  • Citizenship by naturalization

Question 45

Question
Failure to report unauthorized disclosure of classified information does not affect the service members’ safety.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 46

Question
According to the NISPOM, espionage, sabotage, terrorism, or subversive activities should be reported as a(n) ___________________.
Answer
  • National security threat
  • Individual culpability
  • Security violation

Question 47

Question
Contractors must report to the DSS IS Rep only those violations that result in the loss, compromise, or suspected compromise of classified information.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 48

Question
NISPOM paragraph 1-300 states that contractors must report certain events to the government.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 49

Question
According to NISPOM paragraph 1-300, which of the following is the contractor required to report to the government?
Answer
  • Events that require the facility to be open outside of regular business hours
  • Events that affect the proper safeguarding of classified information
  • Any change in the number of GSA security containers being used at the contractor facility to protect classified information
  • An increase or decrease in the number of classified documents stored at the contractor facility

Question 50

Question
Assessing a vulnerability in conjunction with the threat, and then determining the impact this would have on an operation if the vulnerability is exploited determines the level of risk.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 51

Question
OPSEC is a systematic, proven process to identify, control and protect classified information about a mission, operation or activity, and, thus, denying/mitigating adversary's ability to compromise/interrupt that mission, operation or activity.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 52

Question
Patterns, stereotypes, and predictable actions are all types of which of the following?
Answer
  • Risks
  • Indicators
  • Vulnerabilities
  • Threats

Question 53

Question
An adversary's capability is defined as his ability to do which of the following?
Answer
  • Acquire critical information
  • None of these choices
  • Acquire and exploit critical information
  • Exploit critical information

Question 54

Question
What are the elements of threat?
Answer
  • All of these choices
  • Intent and Capability
  • Friendly and Adversarial perspectives
  • Vulnerabilities and Indicators

Question 55

Question
Which step in the OPSEC process is a decision making step because it helps the decision maker prioritize and decide whether or not to apply a countermeasure?
Answer
  • Identify critical information
  • Apply countermeasures
  • Assess Risk
  • Analyze vulnerabilities

Question 56

Question
The development of a countermeasure focuses directly on the
Answer
  • level of risk to the organization.
  • adversary it is guarding against.
  • importance of the critical information item.
  • vulnerability it is designed to protect.

Question 57

Question
Why do we need to have threat information?
Answer
  • We need to identify an adversary's intent.
  • We need to identify an adversary's capability.
  • Knowledge of the threat supports all other steps in the OPSEC process.
  • All of these choices

Question 58

Question
What is the preferred method of assessing the risk to your organization?
Answer
  • Use of expert testimony
  • All of the choices
  • Intuitive reasoning
  • The committee approach

Question 59

Question
Which organizations are tasked with establishing OPSEC programs under the law signed by President Reagan?
Answer
  • The Interagency OPSEC Support Staff
  • All executive departments and agencies
  • All executive departments and agencies with national security missions
  • All government departments and agencies

Question 60

Question
What factor takes into account the impact that a compromise would have on your operation?
Answer
  • Threat
  • Risk
  • Countermeasure
  • Vulnerability

Question 61

Question
Why should organizations use and practice OPSEC?
Answer
  • To protect their critical information
  • To maintain the element of surprise
  • To protect the integrity of their mission
  • All of these choices

Question 62

Question
OPSEC focuses on what type of critical information?
Answer
  • Sensitive but unclassified information
  • All of these choices
  • All levels of classified information
  • Highly classified information

Question 63

Question
Lack of proper training, use of non-secure communications, and poor system design are all examples of
Answer
  • risks.
  • vulnerabilities.
  • indicators.
  • threats.

Question 64

Question
When dealing with countermeasure development, what is the bottom line?
Answer
  • Always develop countermeasures on a first-come, first-served basis
  • Always apply a unique countermeasure to each vulnerability
  • Always think of a countermeasure as a smarter way to do a task
  • Always weigh the cost of the countermeasure against its benefit

Question 65

Question
Identifying what an adversary already knows about your operation helps you to
Answer
  • determine the collection methods the adversary is using against you.
  • prioritize the distribution of resources for applying countermeasures.
  • look at your operation from both the friendly and adversary perspectives.
  • assess the level of risk to your operation.

Question 66

Question
In order to determine our critical information, we need to consider both the friendly and adversary points of view.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 67

Question
Which of the following statements concerning activity tip-offs is correct?
Answer
  • They are indicators that tell adversaries where to focus their collection efforts
  • They are vulnerabilities that tell adversaries where to focus their collection efforts
  • They are indicators that are not part of a unit's normal conduct
  • They are vulnerabilities that are not part of a unit's normal conduct

Question 68

Question
The level of risk is indirectly proportional to all three factors of risk.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 69

Question
The more we know about an adversary's intent and capability, the better we can judge how and why he may collect the information that he needs.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 70

Question
Identifying a unit based upon how they deploy their equipment is an example of
Answer
  • a pattern example of an indicator.
  • a predictable action example of a risk.
  • a stereotype example of a vulnerability.
  • pattern example of a threat.

Question 71

Question
Which of the following is NOT a step in the OPSEC process?
Answer
  • Lock all classified material
  • Identify critical information
  • Analyze the threat
  • Apply countermeasures

Question 72

Question
Which step in the OPSEC process requires you to look at your operation through the eyes of the adversary?
Answer
  • Analyze vulnerabilities
  • Apply countermeasures
  • Identify critical information
  • All of the choices

Question 73

Question
Which of the following statements BEST describes the risk status if any one element of risk shrinks to zero?
Answer
  • There is no risk.
  • The level of risk remains constant.
  • The level of risk increases.
  • The level of risk decreases.

Question 74

Question
Specific facts about friendly intentions, capabilities, and operations vitally needed by adversaries to plan and act effectively is called
Answer
  • critical information.
  • vulnerabilities.
  • indicators.
  • risk

Question 75

Question
Which of the following countermeasures may be necessary if routine activities provide an adversary with tip-offs to critical information?
Answer
  • Awareness training
  • Speed of execution
  • Cover and deception
  • Changes in procedure

Question 76

Question
An advantage of incorporating the use of OPSEC surveys is that it
Answer
  • provides for early detection of OPSEC problems.
  • reduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.
  • makes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees
  • allows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.

Question 77

Question
Which of the following countermeasures should be used sparingly because of its expense and maintenance difficulty?
Answer
  • Changes in procedure
  • Cover and deception
  • Speed of execution
  • Awareness training

Question 78

Question
Your knowledge of which factors impact your capability to analyze your vulnerabilities?
Answer
  • Your mission
  • Your operations
  • The interaction with other OPSEC steps
  • All of these choices

Question 79

Question
Which of the following BEST identifies the goal of OPSEC?
Answer
  • To provide you with a holistic picture of your operation
  • To protect your operation by properly controlling classified information
  • To establish a systematic process to assess the requirements for mission success
  • To control information about your capabilities and intentions

Question 80

Question
What document signed by President Reagan directed the establishment of OPSEC programs, and in what year did this document become law?
Answer
  • NSDD 289; in 1988
  • NSDD 289; in 1989
  • NSDD 298; in 1988
  • NSDD 298; in 1989

Question 81

Question
Observable and detectable items that can be pieced together through analysis to reveal sensitive information about your operation are called
Answer
  • indicators.
  • critical information items.
  • threats.
  • vulnerabilities.

Question 82

Question
Which of the following countermeasures is considered among the most effective for all organizations?
Answer
  • Cover and deception
  • Changes in procedure
  • Awareness training
  • Speed of execution

Question 83

Question
It's often the little things we do every day that can develop into vulnerabilities and cause damage to our operation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 84

Question
An advantage of incorporating OPSEC principles in the planning stage of any operation is that it
Answer
  • makes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees.
  • provides for early detection of OPSEC problems.
  • reduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.
  • allows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.

Question 85

Question
An advantage of using good OPSEC principles during contingencies is that it
Answer
  • makes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees.
  • reduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.
  • allows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.
  • provides for early detection of OPSEC problems.

Question 86

Question
Because each adversary may have different intentions and capabilities, you may need to enact different scenarios for different adversaries.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 87

Question
Which of the following, when looked at by itself or in conjunction with something else, can point to a vulnerability that an adversary can exploit?
Answer
  • Critical information item
  • Risk
  • Indicator
  • Threat

Question 88

Question
What is defined as a weakness that can be exploited by an adversary?
Answer
  • Vulnerability
  • Risk
  • Countermeasure
  • Threat

Question 89

Question
Risk is a function of the
Answer
  • threat only.
  • threat, vulnerability, and impact.
  • vulnerability and impact.
  • threat and vulnerability.

Question 90

Question
An advantage of integrating OPSEC principles in your day-to-day operations is that it
Answer
  • allows for any changes in OPSEC factors over time.
  • reduces indicators and avoids giving an adversary activity tip-offs.
  • provides for early detection of OPSEC problems.
  • makes OPSEC principles second nature to your employees.

Question 91

Question
OPSEC differs from other programs because it requires you to look at yourself through the eyes of the adversary.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 92

Question
Anyone who opposes or acts against your interest is called a(n)
Answer
  • liability.
  • threat.
  • adversary.
  • risk.

Question 93

Question
In analyzing the threat, we are concerned with adversaries that
Answer
  • possess the ability to acquire and exploit our critical information.
  • intend to do us harm.
  • demonstrate the intent and capability to be a threat to our mission.
  • possess the ability to exploit our critical information.

Question 94

Question
Stan has recently witnessed some unusual behavior from a co-worker. He’s not sure if he should report it, but he knows it is better not to report an incident or behavior than to make a potentially false report.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 95

Question
Jorge is a security official for a DoD organization. Where can he find reporting procedures that pertain to his organization?
Answer
  • DoD Directive 5240.06, CI Awareness and Reporting (CIAR)
  • DoD 5220.22-M, the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
  • DSS Counterintelligence Office

Question 96

Question
Security officials should seek out and consider threat information only from official, government sources.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 97

Question
Which of the following is an objective of the DSS CI Directorate?
Answer
  • Provide for the early detection and referral of potential espionage cases
  • Conduct counterintelligence investigations for the U.S.
  • Maintain list of militarily critical technology

Question 98

Question
Specific reporting procedures vary widely across agencies and contractor facilities. While imminent threats should be reported directly to the FBI, employees should use their agency’s or facility’s reporting procedures to report other threats through their chain of command.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 99

Question
Incorporating counterintelligence and threat awareness into a security program can potentially prevent theft, espionage, and loss of life.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 100

Question
Jack is his organization’s Facility Security Officer. He is working with other company officials to identify the organization’s assets. When they identify assets, they should include only classified information.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 101

Question
Sam is a Facility Security Officer for a cleared defense contractor. Which of the following should Sam refer to for counterintelligence and threat awareness requirements for contractors?
Answer
  • DoD 5200.2-R, Personnel Security Program
  • DoD 5220.22-M, the National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
  • DoDM 5200.01, Volume 1, Enclosure 3, DoD Information Security Program

Question 102

Question
A cleared U.S. company received a request to sell export-controlled technology to an Eastern European security organization. This is an example of _____________________.
Answer
  • a cyber threat
  • an unsolicited request
  • solicitation and marketing of services
  • targeting insiders

Question 103

Question
Select ALL the correct responses. Adam is an expert in his organization’s dual use technology. He is invited to speak at a foreign conference. He knows seminars, conventions, and exhibits can be used by adversaries to target knowledgeable resources like him. What are some of the indicators Adam should look out for?
Answer
  • Foreign attendees’ business cards do not match stated affiliations
  • Excessive or suspicious photography and filming of technology and products
  • Conversations involving classified, sensitive, or export-controlled technologies or products

Question 104

Question
Anna is her organization’s Facility Security Officer. When considering assets, she knows that the greatest target of our adversaries is ___________.
Answer
  • human assets
  • technology assets
  • equipment assets

Question 105

Question
Which step of the analytical risk management process includes considering the impact to military and strategic advantage?
Answer
  • Identify vulnerabilities
  • Assess risk
  • Develop and apply countermeasures
  • Identify assets

Question 106

Question
Which of the following is a secure online environment offered by the OPM Center for Federal Investigative Services?
Answer
  • American Society for Industrial Security International (ASIS)
  • NCMS, the Society of Industrial Security Professionals
  • Industrial Security Awareness Council (ISAC)
  • Extranet for Security Professionals

Question 107

Question
The Secretary of Defense is the Executive Agent of the National Industrial Security Program and is responsible for overall implementation of the program.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 108

Question
The Cognizant Security Office (CSO) for the DoD is Director of National Intelligence (DNI).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 109

Question
Which government entity is responsible for providing National Industrial Security Program (NISP) policy direction?
Answer
  • Cognizant Security Agencies (CSAs)
  • Secretary of Defense (SecDef)
  • National Security Council (NSC)
  • Information Security Oversight Office (ISOO)

Question 110

Question
What document does DSS publish and post on its website to change or clarify existing policy requirements in the NISPOM?
Answer
  • CDSE Newsletter
  • DSS Access Magazine
  • Technology Collection Trends in the U.S. Defense Industry
  • Industrial Security Letter (ISL)

Question 111

Question
Only select Cognizant Security Agencies (CSAs) have hotlines for reporting industrial security issues.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 112

Question
XYZ Industries is a cleared facility that is moving its headquarters to a less expensive office space. This need to be reported to the company’s IS Rep?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 113

Question
Which of the following includes all the steps necessary for processing a facility clearance and a list of the documents and information that the Facility Security Officer (FSO) must gather to prepare for the Facility Clearance Branch (FCB) telephonic survey?
Answer
  • Facility Clearance Checklist
  • Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
  • DD Form 254 Handbook
  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)

Question 114

Question
In the NISPOM, what location does “1-302” represent?
Answer
  • Chapter 1, Section 3, Paragraph 2
  • Chapter 1, Section 30, Paragraph 2
  • Chapter 1, Page 302
  • Section 1, Paragraph 30, Page 2

Question 115

Question
The domestic delivery services approved for overnight domestic delivery of Secret and Confidential information are listed in the ______________________.
Answer
  • DD Form 254, DoD Contract Security Classification Specification
  • Transportation, Delivery, and Relocation Solutions (TDRS), Schedule 48
  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)

Question 116

Question
When is an SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, executed?
Answer
  • Within the first six months after eligibility is granted
  • As soon as the completed SF 86 is reviewed by the FSO.
  • Before an employee is granted access to classified information
  • After an employee has access to classified information

Question 117

Question
Which of the following would not be reported to the Personnel Security Management Office for Industry (PSMO-I)?
Answer
  • Employees desiring not to perform on classified work
  • Adverse information
  • Changes in cleared employee status
  • Change conditions affecting the facility clearance

Question 118

Question
What DSS organization provides security education and training to DoD and other U.S. government personnel and contractors?
Answer
  • Facility Clearance Branch (FCB)
  • Foreign Ownership, Control, or Influence (FOCI) Operations Division
  • Personnel Security Management Office for Industry (PSMO-I)
  • Center for Development of Security Excellence (CDSE)

Question 119

Question
What legally binding document must be executed between the Department of Defense and a contractor to obtain a facility clearance?
Answer
  • SF 328, Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
  • DD Form 441, DoD Security Agreement
  • SF 86, Questionnaire for National Security Positions
  • SF 312, Non-Disclosure Form

Question 120

Question
One purpose of the National Industrial Security Program (NISP) is to preserve our nation’s economic and technological interests.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 121

Question
Which resource guides Facility Security Officers (FSOs) through the self-inspection process and provides techniques to improve the quality of self-inspections?
Answer
  • Self-Inspection Handbook for NISP Contractors
  • National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
  • Suggested Contract File Folder Headings job aid

Question 122

Question
Company ABC was recently issued a facility clearance and has been awarded its first classified contract. Which form should the company receive with the contract that provides specific guidance about what information is classified and at what classification level?
Answer
  • SF 328, Certificate Pertaining to Foreign Interests
  • SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement
  • SF 86, Questionnaire for National Security Positions
  • DD Form 254, Department of Defense Contract Security Classification Specification

Question 123

Question
As defined in the NISPOM, ______ is the administrative determination that an individual is eligible for access to classified information.
Answer
  • access level
  • need-to-know
  • a Personnel Security Clearance (PCL)
  • eligibility level

Question 124

Question
What security control measure outlines the specific export-controlled information that has been authorized for release during a foreign visit and delineates how a company will control access?
Answer
  • Export Authorization
  • Technology Control Plan (TCP)
  • Security Assurance
  • Disclosure Agreement

Question 125

Question
If the visitor organization and host organization both use the DoD System of Record, visit notifications are sent electronically, which speeds the approval process.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 126

Question
When the host organization approves a visit request, this approval constitutes _____.
Answer
  • authority to establish security controls
  • authority to obtain a Facility Verification Request
  • authority to request additional special access authorizations
  • authority for disclosure

Question 127

Question
If there is not a contractual relationship between the visitor’s organization and the host organization, where must the host organization obtain authorization for disclosure of classified information?
Answer
  • DSS Industrial Security Representative
  • Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
  • Government Contracting Activity (GCA)

Question 128

Question
What security control measures must the host organization implement for a classified meeting?
Answer
  • Physical security controls for the control of, access to, and dissemination of the classified information to be presented
  • Security control measures must provide for security briefings and signed certificates.
  • None. Security control measures are the responsibility of the Cognizant Security Agency.
  • None. Security control measures are the responsibility of the Government Contracting Activity.

Question 129

Question
An individual’s access level is directly related to the employer organization’s Facility Clearance level and the level of access needed for the individual to do his or her job.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 130

Question
When is it appropriate for the visitor’s organization to submit a visit authorization letter (VAL)?
Answer
  • When the visit is a contract-related classified visit
  • When the request needs to be submitted and approved quickly
  • When one or both organizations do not utilize the web-based DoD System of Record
  • When either the visitor’s or host organization does not utilize the Industrial Security Facilities Database

Question 131

Question
Where are actions, such as Personnel Security Clearance terminations, upgrades, downgrades, and reinstatements, on contractor employees entered?
Answer
  • Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
  • International Visits Program (IVP)
  • DoD System of Record

Question 132

Question
Which of the following is a good security practice in areas where classified information may be subject to unauthorized disclosure?
Answer
  • Inform the DSS IS Representative that all visitors to the area must wear a badge
  • Inform the project manager of the heightened risk and ensure the visitor has an escort
  • Provide visitors with a badge and an escort who has been informed of the access limitations or restrictions on the visitor's movements.

Question 133

Question
Select ALL of the correct responses. Which of the following are security briefing topics for visitors?
Answer
  • How to verify need-to-know in the DoD System of Record before a classified discussion
  • Physical security procedures and access areas
  • Use of Portable Electronic Devices
  • Policy and procedures for transmitting and/or transporting classified material

Question 134

Question
_____ describes the level of information to which a person is authorized access based on a background investigation.
Answer
  • Need-to-know
  • Access level
  • Eligibility
  • Personnel Security Clearance

Question 135

Question
Who must submit the RFV when a foreign national needs to visit a U.S. contractor facility to discuss classified information?
Answer
  • Sponsoring foreign government
  • Both the foreign contracting company and the sponsoring foreign government
  • U.S. contractor
  • Foreign contracting company

Question 136

Question
What system may be used to verify a company’s Facility Clearance status?
Answer
  • Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)
  • Industrial Security Facilities Database (ISFD)
  • DoD System of Records

Question 137

Question
Who sponsors classified meetings in the NISP?
Answer
  • Universities and industry associations
  • DSS Headquarters, Industrial Security Integration and Application (IP) Programs
  • Cognizant Security Agency (CSA)
  • U.S. contractor
  • Government Contracting Activity (GCA)

Question 138

Question
What is a final security control in the NISP when the purpose of a visit has been accomplished?
Answer
  • Recovery of all classified information
  • To ensure any classified material that may be of use in a follow-on contract is transported securely to the visitor’s organization
  • To ensure that all classified material has been properly stored and inventoried

Question 139

Question
Government employees temporarily stationed at a contractor facility ______ control of their work products to the contractor.
Answer
  • must reach an agreement for
  • must relinquish
  • do not have to relinquish

Question 140

Question
Who sends the NATO Request for Visit (RFV) approval to the NATO site?
Answer
  • Visitor’s Facility Security Officer (FSO)
  • DSS Headquarters Industrial Security Integration and Application (IP) Programs
  • Cognizant Security Agency (CSA)
  • Government Contracting Activity (GCA)

Question 141

Question
When does a host need to coordinate with the visitor’s organization regarding the Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement (SF-312)?
Answer
  • When the visit is a first-time visit and the DoD System of Records does not indicate that the visitor has signed an SF-312
  • The visitor must always sign it at every visit to any classified facility
  • When the visitor presents a visit authorization letter (VAL)
  • When it is the visitor’s first visit to the cleared facility

Question 142

Question
International visit requirements apply when information to be disclosed is classified or unclassified but related to classified contracts or otherwise subject to export controls under the International Traffic in Arms Regulations (ITAR) or Export Administration Regulations (EAR).
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 143

Question
NATO briefings require a signed certificate.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 144

Question
Which of the following is used in the PCL process to determine a candidate’s eligibility?
Answer
  • Adjudicative Guidelines
  • E.O. 12968
  • E.O. 13467
  • NIPSOM

Question 145

Question
Who makes the interim eligibility determination?
Answer
  • OPM/ISP
  • DSS Field Office
  • DOHA
  • PSMO-I

Question 146

Question
To whom does the FSO submit the applicant’s completed SF-86 and both signed release forms?
Answer
  • OPM
  • DOHA
  • PSMO-I

Question 147

Question
How is the FSO notified that a cleared employee may be due for a periodic reinvestigation?
Answer
  • The facility’s IS Rep notifies the FSO
  • The FSO is not notified but must look for eligible employees in the DoD system of record
  • PSMO-I notifies the FSO

Question 148

Question
The only requirement for employees to access classified information is to have a favorable eligibility determination.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 149

Question
A contractor facility has been awarded classified contracts that require access to information classified at the Confidential and Secret levels. What is the level of FCL required by the contractor?
Answer
  • Confidential
  • Secret
  • Top Secret

Question 150

Question
What is the purpose of an annual clearance justification review?
Answer
  • To ensure there are enough cleared employees to meet the needs of a contractor company’s classified contract workload
  • To provide the CEO with justification for hiring more cleared employees
  • To assess whether a cleared employee still requires access to classified information

Question 151

Question
One of the conditions required for a pre-existing eligibility determination issued by one federal agency to be accepted by another federal agency is for the determination to be based on an investigation of sufficient scope that is current to within _________.
Answer
  • 5 years
  • 7 years
  • 10 years

Question 152

Question
The thirteen adjudicative guidelines involve assessing a candidate using criteria that addresses a specific concern that can impact the candidate’s ability to protect national security.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 153

Question
If a candidate has a record in the DoD system of record (JPAS/DISS) and a pre-existing eligibility determination, the FSO assesses whether that determination may be accepted in lieu of initiating a new investigation to determine eligibility.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 154

Question
The __________________ develops and implements a facility’s security program.
Answer
  • Cognizant Security Officer (CSO)
  • Facility Security Officer (FSO)
  • Personnel Security Officer (PSO)

Question 155

Question
A company cleared at the Secret level hires a new employee. The new employee has a current Top Secret eligibility, which was granted by her previous employer. What is the highest level of classified access she may have for work performed for her new employer?
Answer
  • Secret
  • Top Secret
  • Confidential

Question 156

Question
Which investigation type is required for an initial Secret clearance?
Answer
  • Tier 3R
  • Tier 5R
  • Tier 5
  • Tier 3

Question 157

Question
The FSO submits the applicant’s completed SF-86 using which of the following?
Answer
  • JCAVS/DISS
  • JPASS/DISS Portal
  • eQIP

Question 158

Question
How is the applicant’s FSO notified if the applicant receive an unfavorable eligibility determination?
Answer
  • DoD System of Record
  • DOHA communication
  • eQIP notification

Question 159

Question
Which of the following provides policy about PCLs and defines access criteria?
Answer
  • E.O. 13467
  • E.O. 12968
  • USD(I) Memo 25 Dec 2005
  • NISPOM

Question 160

Question
Which investigation is used for a periodic reinvestigation of an individual possessing a Secret or Confidential clearance eligibility?
Answer
  • Tier 5R
  • Tier 5
  • Tier 3
  • Tier 3R

Question 161

Question
Facility employees may be processed for personnel security clearances concurrently with the processing of, or after the award of, a facility’s FCL.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 162

Question
During which stage of the personnel security clearance process are the thirteen guidelines used?
Answer
  • Adjudication stage
  • Interim review stage
  • Personnel security clearance investigation stage
  • Initiate personnel security clearance process stage

Question 163

Question
Who has primary responsibility for the adjudication of personnel security background investigations?
Answer
  • PSMO-I
  • DOHA
  • DoD CAF

Question 164

Question
An interim eligibility determination grants the applicant permanent access to classified information by bypassing the remainder of the PCL process.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 165

Question
Which investigation type is required for an initial Top Secret Clearance?
Answer
  • Tier 3
  • Tier 5R
  • Tier 3R
  • Tier 5

Question 166

Question
Which of the following items must the FSO report to the PSMO-I?
Answer
  • A cleared employee has received an industry award
  • A cleared employee’s citizenship has changed
  • An uncleared employee’s citizenship has changed

Question 167

Question
To whom may eligibility decisions be appealed if the DoD CAF denies eligibility?
Answer
  • PSMO-I
  • DSS Field Office
  • DOHA

Question 168

Question
Which of the following government entities typically determines personnel security clearance eligibility?
Answer
  • DoD CAF
  • DSS Field Office
  • DOHA

Question 169

Question
Which type of security training typically informs cleared employees of changes or updates to security regulations?
Answer
  • Initial Security Training
  • Special Security Briefing
  • Refresher Security Training

Question 170

Question
Which activities are recommended as part of continuous evaluation program at a cleared facility? a. periodic reinvestigations b. annual clearance justification reviews c. reporting required information
Answer
  • b and c only
  • a only
  • a and b only
  • a, b, and c

Question 171

Question
Which of the following government entities adjudicates unfavorable eligibility determinations that are appealed?
Answer
  • PSMO-I
  • DSS Field Office
  • DOHA

Question 172

Question
When is an applicant required to submit fingerprints in addition to his/her security application?
Answer
  • During a periodic reinvestigation of a cleared individual
  • During the applicants initial PCL investigation
  • Only when the applicant is seeking Top Secret clearance eligibility
  • The applicant is never required to submit a fingerprint card, but it is a best practice.
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