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Pharma MCQs- 4th Year- Corrected

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Medicine Quiz on Pharma MCQs- 4th Year- Corrected, created by Berfin Miiau on 11/01/2019.
Berfin Miiau
Quiz by Berfin Miiau, updated more than 1 year ago More Less
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Created by Med Student almost 6 years ago
Ramtin Yeganeh
Copied by Ramtin Yeganeh almost 6 years ago
Berfin Miiau
Copied by Berfin Miiau almost 6 years ago
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Question 1

Question
The main routes of enteral administration of drugs are:
Answer
  • oral
  • by injection
  • rectal
  • per mucosa

Question 2

Question
Advantages of the oral route of drug administration are:
Answer
  • easily self-administered
  • toxicity and overdose may be overcome with antidotes
  • drugs avoid first-pass metabolism
  • drugs go directly into the systemic circulation

Question 3

Question
Advantages of the rectal route of drug administration are:
Answer
  • suitable for vomiting patients
  • suitable for children
  • suitable for unconscious patients
  • a way to avoid first-pass metabolism

Question 4

Question
Disadvantages of intravenous drug administration are:
Answer
  • a trained staff is required
  • risk of bacterial contamination at the site of injection
  • it is painful and stressful for the patient
  • drugs undergo first-pass metabolism in the liver

Question 5

Question
Point out the correct statements for intravenous drug administration:
Answer
  • aqueous solutions can be administered i.v.
  • oil solutions can be administered i.v.
  • has the highest bioavailability
  • used for treatment of life-threatening conditions

Question 6

Question
The subject of pharmacokinetics is:
Answer
  • drug absorption and distribution
  • drug biotransformation
  • drug elimination
  • drug biological activity

Question 7

Question
Point out the correct statements for passive diffusion:
Answer
  • does not require energy
  • requires energy
  • involves a carrier
  • drugs move from high to lower concentration

Question 8

Question
A drug-weak acid will be absorbed
Answer
  • in a medium with low pH
  • in a medium with high pH
  • in the stomach
  • in the intestine

Question 9

Question
The diffusion of Iipid soluble drugs
Answer
  • depends on the charge of the drug molecule
  • does not depend on the charge of the drug molecule
  • is penetration through aqueous channels or pores
  • is penetration through the biological membranes

Question 10

Question
A drug-weak base will be absorbed
Answer
  • in a medium with low pH
  • in a medium with high pH
  • in the stomach
  • in the intestine

Question 11

Question
Point out the correct statements for active drug transport
Answer
  • it is energy - dependent
  • it is not energy - dependent
  • requires carriers
  • does not require carriers

Question 12

Question
Point out the correct statement for drugs bound to plasma proteins
Answer
  • bound drugs are pharmacologically active
  • only the unbound drugs can act on target sites in the tissues
  • only the bound drugs are available to the process of elimination
  • drugs may displace each other from the binding proteins

Question 13

Question
Drug metabolism may
Answer
  • increase a drug’s pharmacological activity
  • decrease a drug’s pharmacological activity
  • change the pharmacological effects of a drug
  • change the toxicity of a drug

Question 14

Question
First phase liver metabolism reactions include
Answer
  • acetylation
  • conjugation
  • reduction
  • oxidation

Question 15

Question
Second phase liver metabolism reactions include
Answer
  • acetylation
  • conjugation
  • reduction
  • oxidation

Question 16

Question
Phase 1 of drug metabolism
Answer
  • may or may not involve cytochrome P450 system
  • phase 1 reactions convert Iipophilic molecules to more polar molecules
  • includes alcohol dehydrogenation, amine oxidation, hydrolysis
  • consists of conjugation reactions

Question 17

Question
Renal excretion of a drug will be reduced if
Answer
  • the drug is a weak acid and the urine is alkaline
  • the drug is a weak acid and the urine is acidic
  • the drug is a weak base and the urine is alkaline
  • the drug is a barbiturate and the urine is alkaline

Question 18

Question
Drug pharmacodynamics includes
Answer
  • drug effects
  • mechanisms of drug action
  • drug elimination
  • how the organism changes drugs

Question 19

Question
The changes that occur due to the interaction between drug molecules and organism structures are called
Answer
  • drug effect
  • drug action
  • adverse drug reaction
  • placebo effect

Question 20

Question
The organism response as a result of the changes that have occurred due to its interaction with the drug is called
Answer
  • drug action
  • drug effect
  • adverse drug reaction
  • placebo effect

Question 21

Question
What is characteristic for a drug receptor
Answer
  • induces (generates) a change in organism functions
  • has selectivity
  • has sensitivity
  • has specificity

Question 22

Question
Agonists are ligands which
Answer
  • have affinity
  • block receptors
  • have intrinsic activity
  • bind to the receptor

Question 23

Question
Antagonists are ligands which
Answer
  • have strong affinity
  • have intrinsic activity
  • block the receptor
  • do not have intrinsic activity

Question 24

Question
Therapeutic margin is the
Answer
  • difference between minimal toxic and minimal therapeutic doses
  • ratio between minimal toxic and minimal therapeutic doses
  • difference between mean lethal and mean effective doses
  • ratio between lethal and mean effective doses

Question 25

Question
Drugs’ therapeutic index is the:
Answer
  • difference between minimal toxic and minimal therapeutic doses
  • ratio between minimal toxic and minimal therapeutic doses
  • difference between mean lethal and mean effective doses
  • ratio between mean lethal and mean effective doses

Question 26

Question
Types of drug interaction are:
Answer
  • synergy
  • antagonism
  • synergy/antagonism
  • chemical antagonism (formation of complexes)

Question 27

Question
Potentiation can be observed during the concomitant use of:
Answer
  • Fentanyl and Droperidol
  • Heparin and Protamine
  • Amoxicillin and Clavulanic acid
  • Diazepam and Flumazenil

Question 28

Question
Full competitive antagonist of opioid receptors, administered in acute opioid intoxication is:
Answer
  • Allylnormorphine
  • Methadone
  • Naloxone
  • Flumazenil

Question 29

Question
Chemical antagonism or complex formation can be observed in:
Answer
  • Morphine and Naloxone
  • Diazepam and Flumazenil
  • Epinephrine and Histamine
  • Iron preparation and Deferroxamine

Question 30

Question
Which of the following are enzyme inducers:
Answer
  • Phenytoin
  • Phenobarbital
  • Metamizol
  • Metronidazole

Question 31

Question
Multiple drug administration could lead to:
Answer
  • drug tolerance
  • drug dependence
  • drug accumulation
  • allergic reactions

Question 32

Question
Drug addiction/dependence involves:
Answer
  • drug tolerance
  • physical dependence
  • psychological dependence
  • allergy

Question 33

Question
Antiseptics are used for:
Answer
  • decontamination of laundry and sanitary facilities
  • decontamination of skin and mucous membranes
  • internal administration
  • treatment of fever

Question 34

Question
Disinfectants are used for decontamination of:
Answer
  • urine, faeces and other
  • mouth
  • instruments
  • clothing and underwear

Question 35

Question
Antiseptics and disinfectants are:
Answer
  • detergents
  • barbiturates
  • oxidizing agents and halogen derivatives
  • phenols

Question 36

Question
Mechanism of action of sulfonamide is:
Answer
  • they are synthetic analogues of p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) and complete with it for the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase
  • they increase the permeability of the bacterial cell membrane
  • they inhibit bacterial wall synthesis
  • they inhibit the synthesis of bacterial dihydrofolic acid

Question 37

Question
For non-combined sulfanamides is true:
Answer
  • have broad antibacteriai spectrum
  • have narrow antibacterial spectrum
  • they are bactericidal
  • they are bacteriostatic

Question 38

Question
Combined sulfonamides are:
Answer
  • bacteriostatic drugs
  • bactericidal drugs
  • antiviral drugs
  • narrow spectrum antimicrobial drugs

Question 39

Question
Fluoroquinoiones are:
Answer
  • Gentamycin
  • Moxifloxacin
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Levofloxacin

Question 40

Question
Mechanism of action of quinolones is:
Answer
  • inhibition of protein synthesis
  • inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  • inhibition of topoisomerase II and IV
  • inhibition of DNA transcription and replication

Question 41

Question
Fluoroquinolones have:
Answer
  • broad antibacterial spectrum
  • narrow antibacterial spectrum
  • bacteriostatic effect
  • bactericidal effect

Question 42

Question
Adverse drug reactions of fluoroquinolones are:
Answer
  • articular cartilage erosion (arthropathy)
  • hypertension
  • seizures in patients with epilepsy
  • prolongation of QT interval

Question 43

Question
Antimicrobials that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis are:
Answer
  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
  • monobactams
  • tetracyclines

Question 44

Question
Tetracyclines
Answer
  • are bactericidal
  • are bacterostatic
  • accumulate in tissues- in bones and teeth
  • are effective against rickettsiae, mycoplasma, chlamydia

Question 45

Question
Macrolide antibiotics are:
Answer
  • Azithromycin (Azatril)
  • Roxithromycin (Rulid)
  • Clarithroomycin (Klacid)
  • Gentamycin

Question 46

Question
Macrolides are:
Answer
  • bactericidal
  • bacteriostatic
  • inhibitors of methylxanthines’ metabolism
  • effective against mycoplasmas, Legionella, Chlamydia

Question 47

Question
Adverse drug reactions of macrolides include:
Answer
  • gastrointestinal disturbances
  • allergy
  • hepatotoxicity
  • nephrotoxicity

Question 48

Question
Beta-lactam antibiotics are
Answer
  • penicillins
  • cephalosporins
  • monobactams
  • carbapenems

Question 49

Question
Adverse drug reactions of penicillins are:
Answer
  • allergic reactions
  • hepatotoxicity
  • anaphylactic shock
  • disbactenosrs (for orally administered broad-spectrum penicillins)

Question 50

Question
Cephalosporins 1st generation are:
Answer
  • More effective against Gram (+) microorganisms
  • Cefalexin and Cefazolin
  • Bacteriostatic
  • Some agents are nephrotoxic

Question 51

Question
Cephalosporins 3rd generation are:
Answer
  • Cefetamet and Ceftriaxon
  • Cefaclor and Cefamandol
  • More effective against Gram (-) microorganisms
  • Used for treatment of life-threatening infections

Question 52

Question
Aminoglycoside antibiotics are:
Answer
  • Gentamaicin
  • Amoxiclav
  • Amikacin
  • Tobramycin

Question 53

Question
The correct statements of aminoglycoside antibiotics are:
Answer
  • they block protein synthesis and are bactericidal
  • they accumulate in soft tissues and bones
  • they are administrated orally for treatment of urinary infections
  • they are effective against Gram (-) microorganisms

Question 54

Question
Adverse drug reactions of aminoglycosides are:
Answer
  • nephrotoxicity
  • ototoxicity
  • myelotoxlcity
  • hepatotoxiclty

Question 55

Question
Azoles
Answer
  • are fungistatic
  • inhibit cell wall synthesis
  • inhibit ergosterol synthesis
  • inhibit hepatic CYP450 enzymes

Question 56

Question
ADRs of azole antifungals are:
Answer
  • hepatotoxicity
  • endocrine disorders
  • nephrotoxicity
  • nausea, vomiting

Question 57

Question
Point the correct statements for Nystatin
Answer
  • has fungistatic activity
  • causes gastrointestinal disturbances
  • is effective against Trichomonas vaginalis
  • is effective against Candida species

Question 58

Question
Point out the correct statements for Aciclovir
Answer
  • it inhibits viral DNA polymerase
  • it is used for treatment of herpes virus infections
  • it inhibits neuraminidase enzyme
  • can be applied topically, orally or intravenously

Question 59

Question
Mechanism of action of Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is
Answer
  • interference with the function of the viral M2 protein
  • inhibition of specific neuraminidase enzyme
  • inhibition of reverse transcriptases
  • inhibition of proteases

Question 60

Question
Mechanism of action of Rifampicin (Rifampin) is
Answer
  • inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  • inhibition of 50 S ribosomal subunit
  • inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
  • increased cell membrane permeability

Question 61

Question
ADRs of Rifampicin (Rifampin) are:
Answer
  • heart failure
  • orange-red color of urine and other secretions
  • hepatotoxicity
  • hypoglycaemia

Question 62

Question
What are the effects of benzodiazepines?
Answer
  • hypnotic effect
  • anxiolytic effect
  • muscle-relaxing effect
  • anticonvulsant effect

Question 63

Question
How do benzodiazepines exert their effects?
Answer
  • they enhance the effectiveness of GABA
  • they inhibit the phosphodiesterase
  • they are positive allosteric modulators of the GABA-mediation
  • they block D2 receptors in the CNS

Question 64

Question
Nonbenzodiazepines hypnotics that act at GABA-recptor are
Answer
  • Phenobarbital
  • Melatonin
  • Zolpidem (Stilnox)
  • Zopiclone (Imovan)

Question 65

Question
Adverse drug reaction of Zopiclone (Imovan) are
Answer
  • bitter or metallic taste in the mouth
  • behavioral changes
  • hypertension
  • hypoglycemia

Question 66

Question
Magnesium sulfate has sedative effects when administered
Answer
  • orally
  • parenterally
  • subcutaneously
  • by inhalation

Question 67

Question
Mechanism of action of antiepileptic drugs includes
Answer
  • enhancing GABA synaptic transmission
  • blocking D2 receptors
  • reducing cell membrane permeability to calcium T-channels
  • reducingg ccell membrane permeability to sodium channels

Question 68

Question
Drugs reducing cell membrane permeability to voltage-dependent sodium channels are
Answer
  • Carbamazepine
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Lamotrigine
  • Valproate

Question 69

Question
Cell membrane permeability to calcium T-channels is reduced by
Answer
  • Valproate
  • Ethosuximide
  • Phenobarbital
  • Levetiracetam

Question 70

Question
What are the clinical indications for prescribing Carbamazepine?
Answer
  • It is a drug of first choice or focal and secondary generalized epilepsy
  • It is appropriate for treatment of absence seizures
  • It is used in the treatment of insomnia
  • It is useful for treatment of trigeminal neuralgia

Question 71

Question
What is characteristic of Phenytoin?
Answer
  • It reduces cell membrane permeability to voltage-dependent sodium channels
  • It increases GABA synaptic transmission
  • It is a potent enzyme inducer
  • It is also used as an antiarrhythmic drug

Question 72

Question
Adverse drug reactions of Valproates are
Answer
  • constipation
  • weight gain
  • hair loss
  • hepatotoxicity

Question 73

Question
Which antiepileptic drugs can be used for treating status epilepticus?
Answer
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Carboxamides
  • Valproates
  • Barbiturates

Question 74

Question
Muscarinic cholinergic receptors are located in:
Answer
  • skeletal muscles
  • bronchial smooth muscles
  • heart
  • smooth muscles of GIT

Question 75

Question
Nicotinic cholinergic receptors are located in:
Answer
  • autonomic ganglia
  • adrenal gland medulla
  • heart muscle
  • skeletal muscles

Question 76

Question
Pharmacological effects of Acetylcholine are:
Answer
  • bradycardia
  • tachycardia
  • increased digestive (abundant saliva), bronchial, cutaneous, (sweat) and lacrimal secretions
  • increased tone and peristaltic contractions of GIT

Question 77

Question
M-receptor agonist used for treatment of glaucoma is:
Answer
  • Atropini sulfas
  • Pilocarpini hydrochloridum
  • Neostigmini methylsulfas
  • Galantamini bromidum

Question 78

Question
What are the effects of Pilocarpine after eye application?
Answer
  • mydriasis
  • miosis
  • increases the intraocular pressure
  • decreases the intraocular pressure

Question 79

Question
Acetylcholine esterase inhibitors (anticholinesterases) are:
Answer
  • lpratropii bromidum
  • Galantamine bromidum
  • Neostigmine methylsulfas
  • Pyridostigmine bromidum

Question 80

Question
Anticholinesterases are contraindicated in:
Answer
  • bronchial asthma
  • paralytic ileus
  • epilepsy
  • bradycardia

Question 81

Question
Antimuscarinic receptor antagonists are:
Answer
  • Atropini sulfas
  • Butylscopolamine
  • Atracurium besilas
  • Ipratropium bromidum

Question 82

Question
Pharmacological effects of antimuscarinic drugs are:
Answer
  • tachycardia
  • intestinal smooth muscle relaxation
  • mydriasis
  • decrease the secretion of exocrine glands

Question 83

Question
Clinical indications for prescribing antimuscarinic drugs are
Answer
  • bronchial asthma
  • spasm of the smooth muscles of GlT
  • to elicit papillary dilation
  • glaucoma

Question 84

Question
Adverse drug reactions of Atropine are:
Answer
  • dry mouth
  • tachycardia
  • difficulties in seeing close objects
  • disorientation and hallucinations

Question 85

Question
Adverse drug reactions of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants are:
Answer
  • histamine release
  • hypotension
  • hypertension
  • allergic reaction

Question 86

Question
Which of the following drugs will antagonise the effect of the non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?
Answer
  • Anticholinesterases
  • MAO inhibitors
  • Antimuscarinic agents
  • Aminoglycoside antibiotics

Question 87

Question
What are the main features of Suxamethonium chioridum:
Answer
  • short-lasting effect
  • has no antagonist
  • anticholinesterases prolong its effect
  • oral administration

Question 88

Question
α1-adrenoceptors are located on:
Answer
  • presynaptic neuronal endings
  • postsynaptic neuronal endings
  • blood vessels
  • iris dilator muscle

Question 89

Question
β1-adrenoceptors are located on:
Answer
  • postsynaptic neuronal endings
  • presynaptic neuronal endings
  • myocardial cells
  • juxtaglomerular apparatus in the kidney

Question 90

Question
β2-adrenoceptors are located on:
Answer
  • postsynaptic neuronal endings
  • bronchial smooth muscles
  • liver
  • uterus (womb)

Question 91

Question
Indications for the clinical use of Epinephrine are:
Answer
  • anaphylactic shock
  • hypoglycemia
  • arrhythmia
  • glaucoma with wide iridocorneal angle

Question 92

Question
Pharmacological effects of the selective β2-agonists are:
Answer
  • pupillary dilation
  • bronchial dilation
  • blood pressure elevation
  • relaxation of uterine muscle

Question 93

Question
Which of the following drugs are selective β2-agonists?
Answer
  • lsoprenalini sulfas
  • Orciprenalini sulfas
  • Salbutamol
  • Salmeterol

Question 94

Question
β2-agonists are indicated in:
Answer
  • bronchial asthma
  • digitalis intoxication
  • arterial hypertension
  • threatening abortion

Question 95

Question
Adverse drug reactions of β2-agonists are:
Answer
  • finger tremor
  • bronchial dilatation
  • hyperglycemia
  • tolerance

Question 96

Question
Which of the following drugs act as agonists of the presynaptic α2-adrenoceptors?
Answer
  • Salbutamol
  • Clonidini hydrochloridum
  • α-Methyldopum (Dopegyt)
  • Sotalol

Question 97

Question
Adverse drug reactions of Clonidin are:
Answer
  • Dry mouth
  • Drowsiness and depression
  • Hypertensive attacks following abrupt cessation of treatment
  • CNS stimulation

Question 98

Question
For Methyldopa is true:
Answer
  • has antihypertensive effect
  • it is safe in pregnancy
  • could cause drug-induced parkinsonism
  • used to treat threatening abortion

Question 99

Question
Which of the following drugs are selective β1-blockers?
Answer
  • Atenolol
  • Pindolol
  • Propranolol
  • Metoprolol

Question 100

Question
β-blockers are indicated in case of:
Answer
  • hypertension
  • bronchial asthma
  • arrhythmia
  • ischaemic heart disease

Question 101

Question
β-blocker approved for topical use in treatment of glaucoma is:
Answer
  • Bisoprolol
  • Metoprolol
  • Timolol
  • Propranolol

Question 102

Question
Potential adverse drug reactions of β-blockers are
Answer
  • hypoglycaemia
  • bronchoconstriction
  • hyperglycaemia
  • nightmares

Question 103

Question
Effects of methylxanthines on the cardio-vascular system are:
Answer
  • positive inotropic effect
  • negative inotropic effect
  • increased cardiac output
  • cranial vessels constriction

Question 104

Question
Adverse drug reactions of methylxanthines are:
Answer
  • arrhythmia
  • seizures - in higher doses
  • increased oxygen demand of the heart
  • bronchial constriction

Question 105

Question
Therapeutic uses of Methylehenidaie are:
Answer
  • attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children
  • hypertension
  • narcolepsy
  • concentration and attention deficit in adults

Question 106

Question
Antidepressants, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are:
Answer
  • Fluoxetine
  • Clomipramine
  • Paroxetine
  • Amitriptyiine

Question 107

Question
Mode of action of antidepressants involves:
Answer
  • Inhibition of serotonin reuptake
  • Inhibition of norepinephrin reuptake
  • Stimulation of serotonin reuptake
  • MAO inhibition

Question 108

Question
In treatment with MAOIs should be avoided the intake of:
Answer
  • tyramine containing nutrition
  • cyclic antidepressants
  • adrenomimetics
  • cholinolytics
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