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Pharmacology I: Final Quiz

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Final Pharmacology I Quiz from Veterinary Pharmacology I taught by Dr. Werners, and Lady Dr. Kumar
MRaythe
Quiz by MRaythe, updated more than 1 year ago
MRaythe
Created by MRaythe almost 10 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
1. MUSCLE RELAXANTS: True or false: guaifenesin selectively depresses transmission at internuncial neurons in the spinal cord, brainstem, and subcortical areas
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 2

Question
Which is not an effect of guaifenesin?
Answer
  • Depresses CNS giving sedation and muscle relaxation
  • Decrease BP which then returns to normal
  • High doses can cause respiratory depression
  • Analgesia

Question 3

Question
Which of the following is false regarding guaifenesin?
Answer
  • It has hepatic metabolism to a glucuronide and is excreted in urine
  • You should avoid using it with physostigmine
  • It lasts longer in female ponies than males
  • It can cause hemolysis in cows

Question 4

Question
Which muscle relaxant requires artificial ventilation with use?
Answer
  • Guaifenesin
  • Neuromuscular blockers
  • That’s it…

Question 5

Question
Which type of neuromuscular block are agonists at the ACh receptor?
Answer
  • Depolarizing
  • Non-depolarizing

Question 6

Question
Which non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers are incorrectly matched with their duration
Answer
  • Mivacurium—short
  • Tubocurarine, doxacurium, pancuronium, pipecuronium—long
  • Atracurium, rocurium, vecuronium—intermediate
  • All of the above are correct!

Question 7

Question
Which of the following causes initial muscle fasciculation?
Answer
  • Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
  • Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Question 8

Question
Which of the following are competitive antagonists at the ACh nicotinic receptor?
Answer
  • Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
  • Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Question 9

Question
Which of the following is not a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
Answer
  • Decamethonium
  • Suxamethonium
  • Mivacurium

Question 10

Question
On which of the following can you use anticholinesterase drugs to remove the effect?
Answer
  • Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
  • Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

Question 11

Question
True or false: the amount of fasciculation correlates with the post-operative muscle pain
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 12

Question
Which of the following is not an effect of suxamethonium?
Answer
  • Decreased intraocular pressure
  • Potassium release
  • Bradycardia
  • Prolonged paralysis
  • Sometimes malignant hyperthermia

Question 13

Question
Which of the following does not influence the effect of muscle relaxants?
Answer
  • Other neuromuscular agents
  • Cholinesterase inhibitors
  • Aminoglycoside antibiotics
  • None of the above

Question 14

Question
Which of the following is the most sensitive to neuromuscular blockers?
Answer
  • Dogs
  • Cats
  • Cattle
  • Sheep

Question 15

Question
In which species do you most commonly use neuromuscular blockers?
Answer
  • Pigs and cats
  • Dogs and horses
  • Cattle and sheep
  • Horses and cats

Question 16

Question
HEMOSTATIC AND ANTICOAGULANTS: Which of the following hemostatics can cause extensive intravascular clotting when administered intravenously?
Answer
  • Fibrinogen
  • Thromboplastin
  • Thrombin
  • Fibrin

Question 17

Question
What’s a good characteristic of a topical hemostatic?
Answer
  • Minimal tissue reactivity
  • Easy to sterilize and handle
  • Consist of either thrombin or collagen
  • All of the above

Question 18

Question
Which is used in measurement of prothrombin time during anticoagulant therapy?
Answer
  • Fibrinogen
  • Thromboplastin
  • Thrombin
  • Fibrin

Question 19

Question
Which topical hemostatic converts endogenous fibrinogen to fibrin for clot formation?
Answer
  • Fibrinogen
  • Thromboplastin
  • Thrombin
  • Fibrin

Question 20

Question
Which topical hemostatic can be used for bleeding from denuded mucous membranes, as an adhesive in skin grafts, and for massive blood loss?
Answer
  • Fibrinogen
  • Thromboplastin
  • Thrombin
  • Fibrin

Question 21

Question
Which topical hemostatic is used for bleeding from parenchymatous tissue, cancellous bone, dental sockets, laryngeal/nasal surgery, reconstructive surgery, and as an adhesive agent for fixation of skin grafts?
Answer
  • Fibrinogen
  • Thromboplastin
  • Thrombin
  • Fibrin

Question 22

Question
Is fibrin foam soluble?
Answer
  • Yes
  • No

Question 23

Question
What do you use absorbable gelatin sponge/gelfoam for?
Answer
  • Oozing from the surface area
  • Massive blood loss
  • Capillary/venous bleeding
  • Surgery of the liver and spleen

Question 24

Question
Which of the following should only be used temporarily because otherwise you’d get fractures and cysts?
Answer
  • Oxidized cellulose
  • Gelatin sponge
  • Microcrystalline collagen
  • Styptics

Question 25

Question
Which are clinical uses of microcrystalline collagen?
Answer
  • Clotting factor deficiencies
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Surgery of the liver and spleen
  • Clotting factor deficiencies and Thrombocytopenia
  • Clotting factor deficiencies and Surgery of the liver and spleen
  • Thrombocytopenia and Surgery of the liver and spleen

Question 26

Question
Which topical hemostatic produces immediate vasoconstriction and controls bleeding from small vessels?
Answer
  • Oxidized cellulose
  • Gelatin sponge
  • Microcrystalline collagen
  • Epinephrine

Question 27

Question
What’s the problem with high concentrations of styptics?
Answer
  • Cyst formation
  • Fractures
  • Sloughing of tissues and hemorrhage
  • Reduced effectiveness

Question 28

Question
Which systemic hemostatic is used for emergency treatment of acute hemorrhagic syndromes with deficiency of clotting factors/platelets?
Answer
  • Vitamin K
  • Blood
  • Desmopressin acetate
  • Protamine sulfate

Question 29

Question
Which systemic hemostatic releases stored vWf from endothelial cell and macrophages and controls capillary bleeding from wounds?
Answer
  • Vitamin K
  • Blood
  • Desmopressin acetate
  • Protamine sulfate

Question 30

Question
Which systemic hemostatic is made from fish sperm?
Answer
  • Vitamin K
  • Blood
  • Desmopressin acetate
  • Protamine sulfate

Question 31

Question
Which systemic hemostatic is used to antagonize heparin-induced hemorrhagic action (since it’s basic and combines with the acidic heparin to prevent it from acting as an anticoagulant)?
Answer
  • Vitamin K
  • Blood
  • Desmopressin acetate
  • Protamine sulfate

Question 32

Question
Which systemic hemostatic aids in the production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X and should not be given IM or IV?
Answer
  • Vitamin K
  • Blood
  • Desmopressin acetate
  • Protamine sulfate

Question 33

Question
Repeated administration of which drug reduces its effectiveness?
Answer
  • Vitamin K
  • Blood
  • Desmopressin acetate
  • Protamine sulfate

Question 34

Question
Which anticoagulant should you not use for laboratory diagnostic purposes?
Answer
  • Sodium oxalate
  • Acid citrate dextrose
  • Sodium citrate
  • Edetate disodium

Question 35

Question
Which is not part of the mechanism of heparin?
Answer
  • Binds reversibly to antithrombin III to produce conformational changes to it, thereby inhibiting thrombin and activated factor Xa
  • Binds to endothelial walls, imparts negative charge, inhibits platelet adhesion and aggregation
  • Inhibits hepatic synthesis of prothrombin and factors II, VII, IX, and X
  • Increases plasminogen activator and tissue factor inhibitor

Question 36

Question
Which of these describes the action of heparin?
Answer
  • Antithrombotic
  • Anticoagulatory
  • Neither
  • Both

Question 37

Question
Which of the following statements is false regarding heparin?
Answer
  • It’s used to prevent venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, and to treat thromboemboli, as well as to treat DIC and to decrease risk factors in heartworm adulticide treatment
  • It prevents serosal post-operative adhesions
  • It’s metabolized by the liver and reticulo endothelial system
  • Its antidotes are protamine and fresh blood

Question 38

Question
Which of the following is false regarding vitamin K antagonists?
Answer
  • It is stored in adipose tissue
  • Undergoes metabolism in the liver and is excreted in urine
  • It’s used for prophylaxis and treatment of venous thrombosis
  • Its side effect is hemorrhage

Question 39

Question
Which of the following is false regarding fibrinolytic agents?
Answer
  • Streptokinase can cause systemic fibrinolysis
  • Tissue plasminogen activator is used for lysis of aortic thromboemboli in cats
  • Fibrinolysin is an activator of plasminogen
  • Urokinase is isolated from pee and prevents serosal post-operative adhesions in dogs

Question 40

Question
Which of the following irreversibly binds COX in order to inhibit thromboxane A2 and prostaglandins?
Answer
  • Aspirin
  • Clopidogrel
  • Dipyrimadole
  • Ticlopridine

Question 41

Question
Which of the following inhibits phosphodiesterase, increasing cAMP levels in platelets, which inhibits aggregation?
Answer
  • Aspirin
  • Clopidogrel
  • Dipyrimadole
  • Ticlopidine

Question 42

Question
Which of the following is a P2Y12 receptor inhibitor, resulting in more cAMP and less aggregation of platelets?
Answer
  • Aspirin
  • Dipyrimadole
  • Ticlopidine

Question 43

Question
ANTICONVULSANTS: True or false: seizures are associated with episodic high frequency discharge of impulses by a group of neurons
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 44

Question
Which of the following neurotransmitters is not involved in epileptogenesis?
Answer
  • Glutamate
  • Aspartate
  • Glycine
  • GABA

Question 45

Question
Which of the following is a problem associated with seizures?
Answer
  • Brain edema
  • Hyperthermia
  • Aspiration pneumonia
  • Disseminated intravascular coagulation
  • Permanent brain injury
  • All of the above

Question 46

Question
Which is not a drug used in emergency treatment of seizures that stimulates GABA?
Answer
  • Phenytoin
  • Barbiturates
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Valproate

Question 47

Question
Which of the following drugs is mismatched with its mechanism of action?
Answer
  • Carbamazepine—inhibition of Na channels
  • Zonisamide—inhibition of Ca channels
  • Propofol—inhibition of Ca channels
  • Phenytoin—inhibition of Na channels

Question 48

Question
Which of the following drugs is a GABA agonist?
Answer
  • Zonisamide
  • Carbemazepine
  • Lamotrigrine
  • Etomidate

Question 49

Question
True or false: benzodiazepines decrease frequency of opening of GABA receptors.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 50

Question
Which route should you not use for lorazepam or midazolam?
Answer
  • IV
  • IM
  • Intranasal
  • Intrarectal

Question 51

Question
Which benzodiazepine inhibits T-type calcium channels?
Answer
  • Diazepam
  • Clonazepam
  • Midazolam
  • Lorazepam

Question 52

Question
What is not a side effect of barbiturates?
Answer
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Autoinduction of CYP450
  • Sedation
  • Anorexia

Question 53

Question
True or false: barbiturates enhance GABA A by increasing the frequency of opening of the chloride channel.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 54

Question
Which of the following drugs works by competing with chloride, hyperpolarizing the neuronal membranes?
Answer
  • Gabapentin
  • Midazolam
  • Potassium bromide
  • Phenobarbital

Question 55

Question
Which of the following can potassium bromide be used for?
Answer
  • Only emergencies
  • Only add on
  • Both
  • Neither

Question 56

Question
Which is not a mechanism of action of felbamate?
Answer
  • Blocking NMDA-mediated neuronal excitation
  • Potentiation of GABA-mediated neuronal inhibition
  • Inhibition of voltage sensitive neuronal Cl channels
  • Protects neurons from hypoxic or ischemic damage

Question 57

Question
True or false: felbamate is well absorbed from oral administration and has a wide safety margin
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 58

Question
Which of the following drugs has absorption depending on an L-amino acid carrier, making the process saturable?
Answer
  • Levetiracetam
  • Gabapentin
  • Felbamate
  • Phenobarbital

Question 59

Question
True or false: pregabalin has a long half life
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 60

Question
Which of the following drugs works by binding to SV2A?
Answer
  • Zonisamide
  • Gabapentin
  • Felbamate
  • Levetiracetam

Question 61

Question
Which of the following drugs is partially excreted unchanged and partly glucuronidated?
Answer
  • Zonisamide
  • Gabapentin
  • Felbamate
  • Levetiracetam

Question 62

Question
Which of the following drugs weakly inhibits GABA transaminase and has some effect on sodium and T-type calcium channels?
Answer
  • Phenytoin
  • Valproate
  • Vigabatrin
  • Carbamazepine

Question 63

Question
Which of the following drugs is metabolized by mixed function oxidases and is well absorbed orally?
Answer
  • Phenytoin
  • Valproate
  • Vigabatrin
  • Carbamazepine

Question 64

Question
Which of the following drugs inhibits GABA transaminase by forming an irreversible covalent bond, resulting in increased GABA?
Answer
  • Phenytoin
  • Valproate
  • Vigabatrin
  • Carbamazepine

Question 65

Question
Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant with hepatic metabolism that is a strong inducer of hepatic enzymes?
Answer
  • Phenytoin
  • Valproate
  • Vigabatrin
  • Carbamazepine

Question 66

Question
BEHAVIOR MODIFIERS: Which of the following is not an indication of psychotropic drugs in vetmed?
Answer
  • Sedation and major tranquillizers
  • Behavioral disorders
  • Central analgesia
  • Peripheral anesthesia
  • Epilepsy

Question 67

Question
Which of the following is false regarding MAOIs?
Answer
  • MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine
  • MAO-A has only central effects
  • MAO-B has only central effects
  • MAO-B’s substrates are norepinephrine and dopamine
  • MAO-A’s substrates are serotonin, norepinephrine, and epinephrine

Question 68

Question
Which of the following is not associated with serotonin syndrome?
Answer
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperthermia
  • Metabolic alkalosis
  • Rhabdomyolysis

Question 69

Question
Which of the following is an example of an MAOI?
Answer
  • Selegiline
  • Amitriptyline
  • Clomipramine
  • Fluoxetine
  • Alprazolam

Question 70

Question
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of selegiline?
Answer
  • Hyperactivity
  • Stereotypic behavior
  • Phobias

Question 71

Question
Which of the following drugs is incorrectly matched with its indication?
Answer
  • Selegiline—dementia in dogs
  • Clomipramine—separation anxiety
  • Fluoxetine—aggression in male dogs
  • FFP—urine spraying in cats

Question 72

Question
7. True or false: SNRIs are metabolized via CYP450
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 73

Question
What isn’t an adverse effect of SNRIs?
Answer
  • Hypertension
  • Tachycardia
  • Arrhythmia
  • Salivation
  • Constipation

Question 74

Question
Which of the following is true about SNRIs according to slide 11 (e.g. generally)?
Answer
  • They have antihistamine effects
  • They have anticholinergic effects
  • They’re alpha-1 antagonists
  • These are all true!

Question 75

Question
Which of the following is not an indication for SNRI use in dogs?
Answer
  • Excessive arousal (mild aggression)
  • Inappropriate urination
  • Compulsive disorders
  • Anxiety

Question 76

Question
Which SNRI has analgesic properties?
Answer
  • Amitriptyline
  • Imipramine
  • Clomipramine

Question 77

Question
Which SNRI has equal effects on serotonin and norepinephrine?
Answer
  • Amitriptyline
  • Imipramine
  • Clomipramine

Question 78

Question
Which SNRI is used for separation anxiety and canine compulsive disorders?
Answer
  • Amitriptyline
  • Imipramine
  • Clomipramine

Question 79

Question
Which is an indication for SSRIs in cats?
Answer
  • Separation anxiety
  • Impulse aggression
  • Compulsive behavior
  • Dominance

Question 80

Question
Which is not an adverse effect of fluoxetine?
Answer
  • GI effects
  • Lethargy
  • Depression
  • Polyphagia

Question 81

Question
True or false: the metabolites of benzodiazepines are not active.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 82

Question
True or false: in a dopaminergic synapse the enzyme beta-dopamine hydroxyls is missing
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 83

Question
Neuroleptics block which of the following?
Answer
  • ACH-M receptors
  • Alpha-adenoreceptors
  • Histamine receptors
  • Serotonin receptors
  • All of the above

Question 84

Question
Which of the following is an incorrect example of receptor cross talk?
Answer
  • Adrenergic a2-receptor stimulation increases the release of dopamine and serotonin
  • Adrenergic B-receptor stimulation inhibits release of serotonin
  • Dopamine down-regulates serotonin auto-receptors
  • All of the above are true!

Question 85

Question
True or false: progestins and estrogen suppress the excitatory effects of glutamate.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 86

Question
True or false: it’s totally fine to combine MAOIs and TCAs.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 87

Question
SEDATIVES AND TRANQUILLIZERS: Which is not a therapeutic target for these?
Answer
  • GABA agonists
  • NMDA antagonists
  • D2 receptor
  • Alpha 1 receptor agonists

Question 88

Question
Which is not a mechanism of action of phenothiazines?
Answer
  • Block D2 receptors in the CNS
  • Block alpha adrenoceptors in the CNS
  • Block D receptors in the periphery
  • Block alpha receptors in the periphery

Question 89

Question
What is not an effect of phenothiazines?
Answer
  • CNS depression
  • Peripheral vasodilation
  • Good muscle relaxation
  • Analgesia

Question 90

Question
True or false: phenothiazines have extensive hepatic metabolism and metabolites are excreted in bile
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 91

Question
Which of the following is false?
Answer
  • You should use chlorpromazine in horses
  • Some boxers have an exaggerated reaction to acepromazine
  • Acepromazine prevents occurrence of halothane induced malignant hyperthermia in pigs
  • Phenothiazines can be used to treat feline lower urinary tract disease

Question 92

Question
Which is false about the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?
Answer
  • They bind to and activate the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA-A receptor
  • They decrease the opening frequency of the Cl channel
  • They hyperpolarize the post-synaptic membrane
  • All of the above are true

Question 93

Question
Which GABA receptor subunit, when mutated, prevents binding of volatile and injectable agents?
Answer
  • Alpha
  • Beta

Question 94

Question
Which of the following is not an effect of benzodiazepines?
Answer
  • Dose dependent muscle relaxation
  • Biphasic cardiovascular response
  • Mild respiratory repression
  • Dose dependent CNS depression
  • Analgesia

Question 95

Question
True or false: benzodiazepines are reduced or glucuronidated and either excreted via the kidneys (diazepam) or both in the kidney and bile (lorazepam)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 96

Question
Which benzodiazepine has active metabolites?
Answer
  • Midazolam
  • Zolazepam
  • Diazepam
  • Lorazepam

Question 97

Question
In which patients should you not use benzodiazepines?
Answer
  • Those with fear-induced aggression
  • Those with hypersensitivity to benzodiazepines
  • Those with hepatic dysfunction
  • All of the above

Question 98

Question
True or false: flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist that has a high affinity for the BZ-binding sites.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 99

Question
Which of the following is false regarding a2 agonists?
Answer
  • They target GPCRs Gi and Go
  • Their target has 7 transmembrane domains
  • A2B is the most important type of receptor for analgesia and anesthesia
  • They’re used for sedation, chemical restraint, and analgesia, as well as for emesis in cats

Question 100

Question
Which of the following is not an effect of a2 agonists?
Answer
  • Depressive on the CNS, reduces blood flow and O2 consumption
  • Mild, dose dependent respiratory depression
  • Poor muscle relaxation
  • Analgesia
  • Biphasic cardiovascular response

Question 101

Question
Which of the following is false regarding a2 agonists?
Answer
  • It can be administered parenterally, orally, or epidurally
  • It’s synergistic with opioids, local anesthetics, and NMDA antagonists
  • Medetomidine has a strong correlation between the effect and plasma concentration
  • Bioavailability of medetomidine is 100% in dogs and cats

Question 102

Question
In which animal can a2 agonists cause hypercapnia?
Answer
  • Horse
  • Cattle
  • Sheep
  • Cat

Question 103

Question
In which animal does xylazine cause activation of pulmonary intravascular macrophages, resulting in acute lung injury?
Answer
  • Horse
  • Cattle
  • Sheep
  • Cat

Question 104

Question
Which animal has an a2D receptor, making them more susceptible to the effects of sedatives?
Answer
  • Horse
  • Cattle
  • Sheep
  • Cat

Question 105

Question
In whom can you use a2 agonists?
Answer
  • Patients with diabetes mellitus
  • Patients with epilepsy
  • Patients with compromised cardiac function
  • Agitated animals

Question 106

Question
Which of the following regarding a2 antagonists is true?
Answer
  • They’re competitive antagonists at the a1 receptor
  • They have varying effects on the a2 receptor
  • They have varying effects at the a1 receptor
  • All of the above are false

Question 107

Question
Which of the following is a non-selective a-adrenergic antagonist?
Answer
  • Tolazoline
  • Yohimbine
  • Atipamezole
  • Romifidine

Question 108

Question
True or false: the answer to the previous question also has histaminergic and cholinergic effects
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 109

Question
Butyrophenone derivatives work via all of the following except:
Answer
  • Antagonism of the D2 receptor
  • Antagonism of the a2 receptor
  • Some antihistaminergic properties
  • All of the above are true

Question 110

Question
Which of the following is not an effect of butyrophenones?
Answer
  • CNS depressive
  • Cardiovascular depressive
  • Reduced muscle tone
  • Analgesia

Question 111

Question
ANESTHESIA & ANALGESIA: Which is not a post-synaptic target for these drugs?
Answer
  • AMPA receptors
  • Synaptic vesicle proteins
  • NMDA receptors
  • EAAT

Question 112

Question
Which receptor type is incorrectly matched with its number of subunits?
Answer
  • NMDA—7
  • AMPA—4
  • Kainite—5
  • All of the above are correct!

Question 113

Question
Which ion blocks NMDA receptors?
Answer
  • Ca
  • Na
  • Mg
  • K

Question 114

Question
Activation of glutamate receptors requires the binding of which of the following?
Answer
  • Glutamate
  • Glycine
  • Both
  • Neither

Question 115

Question
Where do almost all anesthetics potentiate the action of GABA?
Answer
  • GABA-A
  • GABA-B
  • GABA-C
  • Somewhere else entirely

Question 116

Question
Which ion passes through the channel in the GABA receptors?
Answer
  • Na
  • Ca
  • Cl
  • Mg

Question 117

Question
Generally how many subunits are present in GABA receptors?
Answer
  • 3
  • 4
  • 5
  • 6

Question 118

Question
True or false: tyrosine hydroxylase (TH) is the rate limiting step in dopamine neurotransmission
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 119

Question
Which of the following dopamine receptors increase adenylate cyclase activity (thereby increasing cAMP)?
Answer
  • D1
  • D2
  • D3
  • D4

Question 120

Question
True or false: presynaptic receptors are the clinically relevant ones in the a2 adrenergic synapse (on the slide from the review…)
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 121

Question
HISTAMINE & SEROTONIN: Which is false regarding autacoids?
Answer
  • They’re local hormones
  • They’re long-lived
  • They include histamine, serotonin, nitric oxide
  • They include angiotensin and eicosanoids

Question 122

Question
Which of the following is not mediated by H1?
Answer
  • Inflammation
  • Allergies
  • Gastric acid secretion
  • Anaphylaxis

Question 123

Question
Which of the following is an H3 effect?
Answer
  • Smooth muscle contraction
  • Relaxing small arterioles
  • Gastric acid secretion
  • Modulating neurotransmitter release in the CNS

Question 124

Question
Where do you not have H4 receptors?
Answer
  • Dendritic cells
  • Mast cells
  • Basophils
  • Eosinophils

Question 125

Question
Which of the following is false regarding the production of histamine?
Answer
  • You start with histidine
  • Histidine decarboxylase is the enzyme
  • The group removed to form histamine is CO2
  • All of the above are true!

Question 126

Question
Which of the following is true regarding histamine stores?
Answer
  • The mast cell pool synthesizes histamine more quickly than the non-mast cell pool
  • The non-mast cell pool occurs in basophils
  • The mast cell pool continuously synthesizes and releases histamine
  • The mast cell pool plays a key role in drug reactions

Question 127

Question
In order to release histamine from mast cells, the cells must become more permeable to which ion?
Answer
  • Na
  • Ca
  • Cl
  • K

Question 128

Question
Which of the following is not a role of histamine?
Answer
  • Stimulate sensory nerve endings
  • Relax arterioles
  • Decrease capillary permeability
  • All of the above are roles of histamine!

Question 129

Question
Which is not an effect of histamine on the cardiovascular system?
Answer
  • Dilation of terminal arterioles
  • Decrease in blood pressure briefly
  • Dilation of large arteries and veins
  • Edema from increased capillary permeability

Question 130

Question
Which of the following is true regarding histamine-mediated vasodilation?
Answer
  • H2 has a long duration
  • H1 mediated is slow onset
  • H2 is at small doses
  • H2 induces high levels of tachycardia

Question 131

Question
In which group of animals does histamine relax bronchial smooth muscle?
Answer
  • Rabbits and dogs
  • Calves and pigs
  • Cats and sheep
  • Humans and guinea pigs

Question 132

Question
Which other smooth muscles are contracted by histamine?
Answer
  • Intestinal muscle
  • Uterine smooth muscle
  • Neither
  • Both

Question 133

Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
  • H1 is Gi while H2 is Gq
  • H1 is Gq while H2 is Gs
  • H1 is Gs, H2 is Gq
  • H1 is Gs, H2 is Gi

Question 134

Question
Which of these other receptors has the same pathway as endothelial H1 receptors?
Answer
  • Alpha 2
  • M3
  • D1
  • Nm

Question 135

Question
True or false: histamine is poorly absorbed from parenteral administration
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 136

Question
Which is NOT part of the the metabolism of histamine:
Answer
  • Methylation and oxidation
  • Histamine N-methyltransferase enzyme acts on histamine to form methyl histamine (further acted upon by MAO)
  • Histaminase enzyme cleaves histamine into inactive metabolites
  • All of them are part of histamine metabolism

Question 137

Question
Which of the following is false regarding histamine agonists?
Answer
  • Histamine phosphate is used to test for achlorhydria
  • So is betazole
  • Betazole is more selective
  • Histamine phosphate is more selective

Question 138

Question
Which of the following will give you CNS sedation?
Answer
  • Cetirizine
  • Trimeprazine
  • Loratadine
  • Fexofenadine

Question 139

Question
Which of the following lacks antimuscarinic effects?
Answer
  • Chlorpheniramine
  • Clemastine
  • Dimenhydrinate
  • Desloratidine

Question 140

Question
Which of the following is false regarding the pharmacokinetics of antihistamines?
Answer
  • You can use them IV in emergencies (acute anaphylaxis)
  • You can use them topically
  • They don’t bind to plasma proteins
  • They’re excreted in urine and feces

Question 141

Question
Which is not a pharmacologic effect of antihistamines?
Answer
  • Vasodilation
  • Relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle
  • Relaxation of intestinal smooth muscle
  • Local anesthetic action
  • Anti-inflammatory response
  • Inhibits arterial hypertension
  • Anti-motion sickness

Question 142

Question
What is not a therapeutic use of antihistamines in bovines?
Answer
  • Bloat
  • Acetonemia
  • Mastitis
  • Gut edema
  • Metritis
  • Pregnancy toxemia
  • Pulmonary emphysema
  • Retained placenta

Question 143

Question
Which of the following is not a therapeutic use of antihistamines?
Answer
  • Myoglobinuria
  • Periodic opthalmia
  • Gastric stasis
  • Laminitis

Question 144

Question
Which antihistamine can cause polyphagia, sedation, increased vocalization, and vomiting in cats?
Answer
  • Cyproheptadine
  • Trimeprazine
  • Chlorpheniramine
  • Diphenhydramine

Question 145

Question
True or false: antihistamines can cause hyperexcitability and convulsions at high doses
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 146

Question
Which is false regarding cromolyn sodium?
Answer
  • It inhibits the release of histamine from mast cells
  • It closes Cl- channels
  • It’s used for nasal allergies in horses
  • It’s used for conjunctivitis

Question 147

Question
True or false: serotonin is derived from tryptophan
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 148

Question
Which of the following serotonin receptors is mismatched with their mechanism?
Answer
  • 5-HT1—Gi
  • 5-HT3—Gs
  • 5-HT5—Gi
  • 5-HT4--Gs
  • 5-HT2—Gq
  • 5-HT6—Gs
  • 5-HT7—Gs

Question 149

Question
Which of the following is false regarding the triphasic response to rapid IV injection of serotonin?
Answer
  • The Bezold-Jarisch reflex involves an initial fall in systemic arterial pressure with accompanying reflex tachycardia
  • The second phase is a short period of a pressor effect
  • The third phase is a prolonged fall in systemic BP
  • All of the above are correct!

Question 150

Question
Which of the following is not caused by serotonin?
Answer
  • Contraction of smooth muscles
  • Increased GIT motility
  • Decreased pulmonary pressure
  • Relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle

Question 151

Question
Which of the following is not an SSRI?
Answer
  • Sertraline
  • Fluoxetine
  • Paroxetine
  • Fluvoxamine
  • Buspirone

Question 152

Question
Which of the following serotonin agonists would you use to control postpartum hemorrhage and for uterine involution? (Hint: it’s an agonist of the 5-HT2 receptor!)
Answer
  • Cisapride
  • Ergometrine
  • Metoclopramide
  • Cyproheptadine

Question 153

Question
Which drug is used for constipation and megacolon in cats? (But let’s be honest here, all I care about is its use for stasis in rabbits.)
Answer
  • Cisapride
  • Ergometrine
  • Metoclopramide
  • Cyproheptadine

Question 154

Question
Which drug is an agonist of the 5-HT4 receptor and a D2 antagonist that, while being useful for gastric stasis and anti-emesis, can also change your mood/behavior?
Answer
  • Cisapride
  • Ergometrine
  • Metoclopramide
  • Cyproheptadine

Question 155

Question
Which antagonist of the 5-HT1 receptor (and first gen antihistamine) is used for head shaking in horses and feline asthma?
Answer
  • Ketaserin
  • Cyproheptadine
  • Methysergide
  • Ondansetron

Question 156

Question
Which of the following is an antagonist of the 5-HT2 receptor and alpha adrenergic receptor, antihistamine, and is used for glaucoma?
Answer
  • Ketaserin
  • Cyproheptadine
  • Methysergide
  • Ondansetron

Question 157

Question
Which drug (that sounds like a transformer) is used as an antiemetic during chemotherapy?
Answer
  • Ketaserin
  • Cyproheptadine
  • Methysergide
  • Ondansetron

Question 158

Question
Which 5-HT2 antagonist is used for carcinoid syndrome (cancerous tissues producing too much serotonin)?
Answer
  • Ketaserin
  • Cyproheptadine
  • Methysergide
  • Ondansetron
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