Psychopharmacology Test 5

Description

Test V: 3, 7, 27, 43, 55, 61, 73, 91, 96, 100, 101, 105, 109, 112, 114, 115, 120, 121, 123, 126, 128, 130, 135, 147, 150
Eleanor garvey
Quiz by Eleanor garvey, updated more than 1 year ago
Eleanor garvey
Created by Eleanor garvey over 4 years ago
10
1

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Test 5 Question 3. While working in the emergency room you evaluate a patient with confusion, myoclonus, diarrhea, hypotension, tachycardia, and a normal creatine phosphokinase (CPK) level. The patient is not speaking. His family tells you that he was recently started on a new medication by his psychiatrist for treatment of bipolar disorder. They don’t know the name of the medication or what kind of medication it was. Using your astute clinical skills and significant psychiatric knowledge you narrow the diagnosis down to either neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) or serotonin syndrome. But alas, you must pick one diagnosis for the medical record. Which one will it be and why?
Answer
  • NMS because the patient is confused
  • NMS because rigidity is more commonly part of serotonin syndrome
  • Serotonin syndrome because it commonly presents with hypotension
  • NMS because it usually presents with normal CPK
  • Serotonin syndrome because it more commonly presents with myoclonus and gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms

Question 2

Question
Test 5 Question 7. Which one of the following is not an inhibitor of cytochrome P450 (CYP) 1A2?
Answer
  • Amiodarone
  • Tobacco
  • Cimetidine
  • Fluvoxamine
  • Grapefruit juice

Question 3

Question
Test 5 Question 27. A patient in treatment for bipolar disorder reports severe mid-upper abdominal pain radiating to the back, nausea, anorexia, fever, and evidence of acute abdominal pain. Pain is worse after eating and upon lying down. She is taking citalopram and valproic acid. Which of the following tests would be most useful in making a diagnosis?
Answer
  • Complete blood count
  • Basic metabolic panel
  • Liver function tests
  • Amylase
  • Prolactin level

Question 4

Question
Test 5 Question 43. Which one of the following is not a substrate for CYP 2D6?
Answer
  • Aripiprazole
  • Bupropion
  • Codeine
  • Duloxetine
  • Haloperidol

Question 5

Question
Test 5 Question 55. Caution should be exercised when prescribing which one of the following to a patient on carbamazepine because the combination will increase carbamazepine levels?
Answer
  • Cyclosporine
  • Doxycycline
  • Erythromycin
  • Phenobarbital
  • Theophylline

Question 6

Question
Test 5 Question 61. Why does mirtazapine decrease nausea?
Answer
  • 5-HT 2 antagonism
  • 5-HT 3 antagonism
  • 5-HT 2 agonism
  • α2 Antagonism
  • α2 Agonism

Question 7

Question
Test 5 Question 73. Mirtazapine works via action on which of the following receptors?
Answer
  • Dopamine type 2 (D2)
  • α2
  • Glutamate
  • α1
  • γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA)

Question 8

Question
Test 5 Question 91. Which of the following classes of psychotropic medications has the best documented treatment effects for agitation in the demented patient?
Answer
  • Antipsychotics
  • Mood stabilizers
  • Benzodiazepines
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants
  • Tricyclic antidepressants

Question 9

Question
Test 5 Question 96. Which one of the following properties of atypical antipsychotics is hypothesized to be responsible for these medications being less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects?
Answer
  • Decreased binding to D2 receptors
  • Rapid dissociation from D2 receptors
  • Affinity for muscarinic cholinergic receptors
  • Binding to multiple dopamine receptors other than D2 receptors
  • Higher affinity for D1 receptors

Question 10

Question
Test 5 Question 100. When triiodothyronine is added to a tricyclic antidepressant for augmentation, the clinician needs to be cautious if:
Answer
  • The patient is a woman over 50years of age
  • The patient has subclinical hypothyroidism
  • The patient has a history of hypertension
  • The patient has a history of cognitive deficits with depression
  • The patient relapsed while on a previously effective tricyclic antidepressant

Question 11

Question
Test 5 Question 101. One of your patients has been taking zolpidem for sleep recently and started having sleep-walking episodes on the medication. She finds these episodes to be disturbing. She asks you about taking eszopiclone instead. Which of the following possible responses to her question is most accurate?
Answer
  • Eszopiclone is a bad choice because she will develop tolerance over time
  • Eszopiclone can also cause sleep walking
  • Eszopiclone works as a melatonin receptor agonist
  • Eszopiclone is used to treat both sleep and depression
  • Unlike with zolpidem, hallucinations do not occur with eszopiclone

Question 12

Question
Test 5 Question 105. Which of the following is true about administering different mood stabilizers together?
Answer
  • Valproic acid will increase lamotrigine levels
  • Lamotrigine will increase valproic acid levels
  • Valproic acid will decrease lamotrigine levels
  • Valproic acid will decrease carbamazepine levels
  • Carbamazepine will increase lithium levels

Question 13

Question
Test 5 Question 109. Which of the following statements about benzodiazepines is correct?
Answer
  • Clonazepam has a rapid rate of absorption
  • Alprazolam has a half-life of 2.5hours
  • Diazepam has a half-life of 200 hours
  • Lorazepam is considered a short-acting benzodiazepine
  • Clonazepam is considered a short-acting benzodiazepine

Question 14

Question
Test 5 Question 112. The following choices are potential side effects of lithium except:
Answer
  • Hair loss
  • Tremor
  • Confusion
  • Neural tube defects
  • Seizures

Question 15

Question
Test 5 Question 114. Which of the following terms refers to spastic contractions of discrete muscle groups such as the neck, tongue, eyes, or back?
Answer
  • Akathisia
  • Tardive dyskinesia
  • Acute dystonia
  • Blepharospasm
  • Tardive dystonia

Question 16

Question
Test 5 Question 115. Which one of the following is not an inducer of CYP 3A4?
Answer
  • Carbamazepine
  • Oxcarbazepine
  • Phenytoin
  • Fluoxetine
  • Rifampin

Question 17

Question
Test 5 Question 120. A 67-year-old male carries a diagnosis of bipolar disorder and is being treated with carbamazepine. His family brings him to the ER because he has become confused and disoriented over the past 2 days. He is afebrile and has no neurological deficits. Although you could reasonably order any of the following tests to evaluate his condition, which of the following is most important that you check given the patient’s history?
Answer
  • Head CT
  • Chest X-ray
  • Urinalysis
  • Basic metabolic panel
  • TSH

Question 18

Question
Test 5 Question 121. Which of the following medications would be the best choice for a patient with psychosis and impaired hepatic function?
Answer
  • Olanzapine
  • Quetiapine
  • Paliperidone
  • Ziprasidone
  • Risperidone

Question 19

Question
Test 5 Question 123. Which one of the following statements is false concerning desvenlafaxine extended-release tablets (Pristiq)?
Answer
  • Desvenlafaxine may cause orthostasis and hyponatremia in the elderly
  • Dosage should be adjusted for patients with renal disease
  • Monitoring must be conducted for increase in suicidality during treatment, especially in children and teens
  • Taking desvenlafaxine in combination with an monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) may precipitate a serotonin syndrome
  • Desvenlafaxine has no impact on blood pressure, unlike venlafaxine

Question 20

Question
Test 5 Question 128. Naltrexone extended-release injectable suspension (Vivitrol) is indicated for treatment of which of the following disorders?
Answer
  • Major depressive disorder
  • Generalized anxiety disorder
  • Psychosis
  • Alcohol dependence
  • Cocaine withdrawal

Question 21

Question
Test 5 Question 130. Which of the following medications is a serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, lacks significant antihistaminic effects, can cause withdrawal symptoms if stopped abruptly, and has an indication for neuropathic pain?
Answer
  • Mirtazapine
  • Quetiapine
  • Nefazodone
  • Paroxetine
  • Duloxetine

Question 22

Question
Test 5 Question 126. Which one of the following statements is false concerning atomoxetine (Strattera)?
Answer
  • Atomoxetine works as a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
  • Full results are seen within 2 weeks of initiating treatment with atomoxetine
  • Once-daily dosing of atomoxetine works well for most patients
  • Most common side effects include dizziness and reduced appetite
  • Atomoxetine carries a black box warning for suicidality

Question 23

Question
Test 5 Question 135. Which of the following statements is correct concerning clozapine?
Answer
  • Smoking will not affect clozapine levels
  • Risk of agranulocytosis is dose-related
  • Clozapine carries a high risk of prolactin elevation
  • Doses of clozapine greater than 600 mg/day carry a much higher risk of seizures than lower doses
  • Adding lithium to clozapine lowers the chances of NMS

Question 24

Question
Test 5 Question 147. Which of the following medications is a partial nicotine agonist that decreases craving and withdrawal in patients trying to stop smoking?
Answer
  • Bupropion
  • Buspirone
  • Nicotine gum
  • Nicotine nasal spray
  • Varenicline

Question 25

Question
Test 5 Question 150. One of your patients asks you for information about mirtazapine. If you made all of the following statements to the patient, which one would be considered factually inaccurate?
Answer
  • Mirtazapine blocks serotonin reuptake
  • Mirtazapine causes minimal sexual dysfunction
  • Mirtazapine can be very sedating
  • Mirtazapine is a potent H1 receptor antagonist
  • Mirtazapine can cause weight gain
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