Question 1
Question
_______________ autonomic axons exit the CNS at the thoracic level
Answer
-
all
-
Vagus
-
All reflex
-
Sympathetic
-
Rest/digest
Question 2
Answer
-
the arachnoid is the strongest of the meningeal layers
-
the subarachnoid space drains into the 4th ventricle
-
arachnoid villi return CSF to the blood
-
the epidural space is found above the brain
-
most of the CSF flows in the epidural space
Question 3
Question
Which is true about all preganglionic cell bodies from both ANS divisions?
Answer
-
are within the CNS
-
all possess epinephrine receptors
-
found in ganglia
-
found in the ventral root
-
found in the dorsal root ganglion
Question 4
Question
Which is true about CSF?
Answer
-
moves from the ventricles into the choroid plexus
-
flows from 3rd into lateral ventricle, then into the 4th
-
moves into the blood from the subarachnoid space
-
flows from capillaries into the arachnoid villi
-
it is produced by arachnoid villi
Question 5
Question
Thoraci-splanchnic nerves contain _____________
Answer
-
somatic postganglionic axons
-
parasympathetic preganglionic axons
-
parasympathetic postganglionic axon terminals
-
sympathetic preganglionic axons
-
sympathetic and parasympathetic postganglionic axons
Question 6
Question
Which is true about terminal ganglia?
Answer
-
they are the lumps we find in sympathetic nerves
-
close to sympathetic target organs
-
can be found at the distal end of cranial nerve X
-
located to the side of the spinal cord
-
found at the end of all splanchnic nerves
Question 7
Question
Choose the correct phase
Answer
-
the brain does not discriminate ANS pain well
-
the stomach is an example of sympathetic-only control
-
blood vessels are parasympathetic only organs
-
renal activity decreases when parasympathetic stimulation increases
-
flight/flight causes gastric blood vessel dilation
Question 8
Question
Which of the following release ACh?
Answer
-
parasympathetic postganglionic axons
-
all parasympathetic effectors
-
sympathetic postganglionic neurons and effectors
-
postganglionic dendrites
-
all preganglionic neurons plus parasympathetic effectors
Question 9
Question
Which is true about alpha receptors?
Answer
-
sometimes called nicotinic receptors
-
found on all sympathetic dendrites
-
found on sympathetic axonal endings
-
they are examples of a muscarinic receptor
-
usually stimulatory
Question 10
Question
Which is true about sympathetic circuits?
Answer
-
localized effects with a short duration
-
long lasting and widespread effects
-
short duration with widespread effects
-
most organs are controlled by sympathetic-only circuits
-
exhibit widespread effects if in pelvic splanchnic nerves
Question 11
Question
Choose the correct phrase about muscarinic receptors?
Answer
-
they release muscarine or ACh
-
they are found on all postganglionic dendrites
-
mostly found on somatic effectors
-
would be found in reproductive organs
-
found only on parasympathetic postganglionic dendrites
Question 12
Question
Which is a sympathetic-only function?
Question 13
Question
Which area would be considered the main ANS control center?
Answer
-
hypothalamus
-
medulla oblongata
-
spinal cord segments
-
thalamus
-
epithalamus
Question 14
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
white ramus contains somatic axons
-
dorsal root contains preganglionic axons
-
ventral roots that serve lumbar sacral nerves contain vagus axons
-
ventral horn contains motor cell bodies
-
gray ramus contains preganglionic axons
Question 15
Question
What would happen if we cut cranial nerve ten?
Answer
-
all parasympathetic function would cease
-
heart rate would decrease if the person enters fight/flight
-
heart rate would immediately increase
-
there will be a problem with blood vessel control
-
we would lose sympathetic control to a large part of the body
Question 16
Answer
-
spinal nerves split into dorsal and ventral roots after exiting the intervertebral foramina
-
ventral rami serve skin and muscles of the back
-
plexuses arise from the junction of a dorsal and ventral root
-
spinal nerves are branching networks formed by the junction of adjacent ventral rami
-
ventral rami contain more axons than dorsal rami
Question 17
Answer
-
filum terminale is the cone shaped tip of the spinal cord
-
conus medularis is a modification of the pia mater
-
filum terminale is a C.T. extension of the dura mater
-
conus medularis does not extend to the top of the sacrum
-
cauda equina anchor the spinal cord in position
Question 18
Question
What would the brain perceive if 5 mV was applied to a thermo receptor?
Question 19
Question
Choose the correct phrase?
Answer
-
the surface of an axon is wrapped with endomysium
-
epineurium wraps an entire tract
-
perineurium wraps an entire nerve
-
endoneurium directly touches neurofibrils
-
endoneurium is found in splanchnic nerves
Question 20
Question
Which terms belong with each other?
Answer
-
efferent - ascending - sensory
-
afferent - dorsal root - sensory
-
efferent - motor - dorsal root
-
ascending - sensory - efferent
-
descending - dorsal root - efferent
Question 21
Answer
-
dorsal root ganglia contain postganglionic cell bodies
-
all ganglia belong to one of the ANS branches
-
terminal ganglia are associated with efferent pathways
-
paravertebral ganglia are associated with rest/digest functions
-
prevertebral and terminal ganglia are both sympathetic
Question 22
Question
Which is a free sensory ending?
Answer
-
proprioceptors
-
itch receptor
-
Meisner corpuscle
-
Pascinian corpuscle
-
muscle spindle
Question 23
Answer
-
perceptual detection is the highest stage of sensory processing
-
transduction occurs at the receptor level
-
generator potentials are at least 30 mV
-
receptor potentials are all-or-none
-
processing at receptor level is higher than processing at circuit level
Question 24
Question
What would happen if we apply muscarine to the ANS?
Answer
-
all postganglionic neurons would release neurotransmitter
-
all sympathetic effects will be stimulated
-
the intestines will experience increased activity
-
presynaptic neurons will be prevented from firing
-
postganglionic neurons will be inhibited
Question 25
Question
Which is the highest level of sensory processing?
Answer
-
perceptual processing
-
understanding the location of a stimulus
-
knowing the strength of a stimulus
-
being able to distinguish between submodes
-
transduction
Question 26
Question
Which reflex is ipsilateral and contralateral?
Answer
-
stretch
-
deep tendon
-
crossed extensor
-
flexor
-
ANS
Question 27
Question
Choose the correct phase
Answer
-
specific ascending pathways relay body position information
-
perceptual detection occurs in the diencephalon
-
all ascending pathways terminate in the frontal cortex
-
fixed action patterns are physical circuitry in the spinal cord
-
spinothalamic tracts are sensory
Question 28
Question
We discussed the magnitude estimation in relation to
Question 29
Question
The tenth cranial nerve contributes to all of the following plexuses except
Question 30
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
CPGs are part of the autonomic nervous system
-
basal nuclei are always sensory
-
association circuits in the spinal cord are called specific descending pathways
-
CPGs are mostly found in the hypothalamus
-
determining texture requires feature abstraction
Question 31
Question
Interneuron (association) cell bodies of the spinal cord are found in
Question 32
Question
Which of the following would help us perceive the texture of marble?
Answer
-
pressure receptors
-
Golgi tendon organs
-
proprioceptors
-
photoreceptors
-
muscle spindles
Question 33
Question
What is meant by the phrase: antagonistic autonomic interactions?
Answer
-
organs receive innervation from both branches of the ANS
-
when one branch of the ANS increases an activity, the other decreases it
-
constant partial stimulation occurs, even at rest
-
vasomotor tone is in effect
-
sympathetic can override parasympathetic
Question 34
Question
Which is true of nervous tissue repair?
Answer
-
Wallerian degeneration would only occur in the CNS
-
tracts may repair but nerves do not
-
oligodendrocytes form the regrowth tunnel in the CNS
-
axon growth rate is 1-5 cm per day
-
distal damage is more likely to successfully repair than proximal
Question 35
Question
Choose the correct match
Question 36
Question
Which of the following is not considered an ANS effectors?
Answer
-
iris of the eye
-
smooth muscle
-
intestines
-
rectus abdominis
-
sweat glands
Question 37
Question
Choose the correct statement
Answer
-
somatic postganglionic axons are found in the dorsal root
-
sympathetic postganglionic axons are in thoracolumbar roots
-
all ganglia contain synapses
-
nicotinic receptors are on dendrites found in sympathetic ganglia
-
postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies are found in the brain stem
Question 38
Question
Choose the correct statement
Answer
-
the opthalmic branch of trochlear nerve serves the eyes
-
oculomotor serves only oblique eye muscles
-
accessory nerve controls speech and swallowing
-
trochlear nerve controls oblique eye muscles
-
none of these is true
Question 39
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
all preganglionic dendrites possess cholinergic receptors
-
adrenergic receptors are found on postganglionic sympathetic neurons
-
muscarinic receptors are found on parasympathetic postganglionic dendrites
-
glands are autonomic effectors
-
sympathetic effectors all release norepinephrine
Question 40
Question
Which is correct?
Answer
-
the phrenic nerve is found in the brachial plexus
-
the sacral plexus contains the femoral nerve
-
the lumbar plexus contains the sciatic nerve
-
the "funny bone" is the ulna
-
the median nerve serves flexors
Question 41
Question
Choose the correct order of an autonomic reflex arc
Answer
-
receptor, stimulus, integration center, effector
-
sensory neuron, receptor, integration center, motor neuron, effector
-
receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, pre-ganglionic, postganglionic, effector
-
stimulus, receptor, cerebellum, motor neuron, effector
-
pre-ganglionic, postganglionic, stimulus, receptor, sensory neuron, integration center
Question 42
Question
Which of the following is the shortest?
Answer
-
sympathetic preganglionic axons
-
parasympathetic preganglionic axons
-
most sensory neurons
-
sympathetic postganglionic axons
-
parasympathetic postganglionic axons
Question 43
Question
Choose the correct statement
Answer
-
we are under parasympathetic dominance most of the time
-
thermoregulation is a parasympathetic-only function
-
parasympathetic can override sympathetic under most conditions
-
the heart is under sympathetic dominance most of the time
-
most of the ANS control comes from the cerebral cortex
Question 44
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
sensation is defined as approximately 1% of the total stimuli
-
all motor neuron cell bodies are in the CNS
-
reducing blood glucose level is due to sympathetic activity
-
100% of sensation normally reaches the sensory cortex
-
fight/flight activity causes decreased norepinephrine release
Question 45
Question
a muscle spindle would be classified as a
Answer
-
chemoreceptor
-
visceroceptor
-
pressoceptor
-
exteroceptor
-
nociceptor
Question 46
Question
Which is true of a muscle spindle?
Answer
-
they fire IPSPs when a muscle is stretched
-
they are a form of pressure receptor
-
send information to the cerebellum
-
they fire an action potential when the muscle is relaxed
-
considered to be the same as a golgi tendon organ
Question 47
Question
Which of the following is a complex receptor?
Question 48
Question
Which of the following is stimulated by histamine?
Answer
-
itch receptor
-
Ruffini's corpuscle
-
Meisner corpuscle
-
Merkel disc
-
nociceptor
Question 49
Answer
-
there are a total of 31 spinal nerves
-
capillaries in the blood/brain barrier have the thinnest basement membranes
-
gap junctions are found in blood/brain barrier capillaries
-
spinal cord columns are gray matter
-
spinocerebellar tracts inform the cerebellum of body position
Question 50
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
hemiplegia can also be called a spinal cord transect
-
paraplegia always affects the lower limbs
-
a cord transection in the T5 region results in quadriplegia
-
paraplegia can affect either the upper or lower limbs
-
none of these is true
Question 51
Question
Which is true about water?
Answer
-
it is a compound but not a molecule
-
does not participate in chemical reactions
-
called cytoplasm if found intercellularly
-
none is true
Question 52
Question
Select the correct match
Answer
-
hallux - little finger
-
sural - calf
-
popliteal - elbow
-
crural - forehead
-
brachial - forearm
Question 53
Question
Choose the best statement
Answer
-
RNA is produced in the cytoplasm and used in the nucleus
-
damage to DNA in one liver cell will kill the liver
-
RNA is nice to have in a cell, but not necessary
-
RNA must not be damaged or the cell will die
-
damage to DNA is potentially deadly to a cell
Question 54
Question
Aldosterone is built from
Answer
-
an organic compound
-
glucose
-
phospholipid
-
triglyceride
-
amino acids
Question 55
Question
Which of the following is the location of the urinary bladder?
Answer
-
epigastric
-
lumbar
-
iliac
-
hypochondriac
-
hypogastric
Question 56
Question
Which of the following is true regarding membrane potential?
Answer
-
voltage is chemical kinetic energy
-
membrane potential is considered kinetic energy
-
membrane potential is a form of mechanical energy
-
membrane potential is an osmotic process
-
a semipermeable membrane is required for membrane potential
Question 57
Answer
-
the brain is found in the ventral cavity
-
a reasonable name for the ventral cavity could be: inferior cavity
-
the thoracic cavity is interior to the abdominal cavity
-
the ventral cavity is superior to the dorsal cavity
-
the dorsal cavity is posterior to the ventral cavity
Question 58
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
AB --> A + B is an example of an exergonic reaction
-
CD --> C + D is a synthesis reaction
-
A + B --> AB is a decomposition reaction
-
A+B+C+D --> AB + CD is an exchange reaction
-
an single enzyme catalyzes many different reaction types
Question 59
Question
Which is true about fats?
Answer
-
the term "polyunsaturated" means many double covalent bonds
-
saturated fat - contain no oxygen at all
-
triglycerides contain a fatty acid plus 3 glycerols
-
phospholipids are charged at the lipid end
-
neutral fat - contains only charged phospholipid
Question 60
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
glucose is considered a compound and contains oxygen
-
an organelle is the smallest living structure in the body
-
enzymes are alive but antibodies are not
-
antibodies are considered living organic compounds
-
DNA is an inorganic compound
Question 61
Answer
-
the cell membrane is typically impermeable to everything except opxygen
-
cell membranes are composed mostly of triglycerides and some cholesterol
-
cell membranes are constructed of phosphocholesterol
-
phosphotriglycerides are required to stabilize the membrane
-
plasma membrane pores are transmembrane proteins
Question 62
Question
Which of the following is correctly matched?
Question 63
Question
Which is a structural protein?
Answer
-
elastin
-
antibody
-
enzyme
-
hormone
-
all are structural
Question 64
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
osmosis requires ATP under some circumstances
-
high solute concentration results in high osmotic pressure
-
the Na/K pump is a form of facilitated diffusion
-
osmosis is the bulk transport of water
-
water wants to move away from solutes
Question 65
Question
Choose the correct phrase about control mechanisms
Answer
-
maintaining a set point is characteristic of negative feedback
-
most normal control mechanisms are positive feedback
-
blood pressure is under positive feedback control
-
sweating when too cold is an example of negative feedback
-
homeostatic imbalance is usually a form of negative feedback
Question 66
Question
Choose the correct match
Question 67
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
cholesterol is required to convert an enzyme to fat
-
sucrase is an example of a carbohydrase
-
most lipids are inorganic
-
organic glucose is better for you than inorganic glucose
-
amino acids are inorganics that contain nitrogen
Question 68
Question
Choose the best statement
Answer
-
life processes require a fast rate of chemical reactions
-
people survive longer than normal without oxygen IF their body has been rapidly warmed
-
cold will increase the rate of diffusion
-
higher solute concentration means slower chemical rates
-
smaller particle size means slower chemical reaction rates
Question 69
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
desmosomes can be found in the skin
-
tight junctions are found in the heart
-
microvilli are attached to the cell by tight junctions
-
desmosomes possess connexons
-
microvilli increase membrane potential
Question 70
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
similar charges are attracted to each other
-
6 electrons are being shared in a triple covalent bond
-
weight is always the same as mass
-
opposite charges repel each other
-
hydrogen bonds are stronger than ionic bonds
Question 71
Question
Choose the correct phrase about membrane transport
Answer
-
increasing particle size will increase the reaction rate
-
active membrane transport is powered by ADP
-
enzymes are necessary for all forms of membrane transport
-
phagocytosis is a good example of an active process
-
called passive if the substance goes up its concentration gradient
Question 72
Question
Which is true when comparing a red blood cell to a solution?
Answer
-
a red blood cell in a hypertonic solution will gain net water
-
a red blood cell in a hypotonic solution will stay the same size
-
a red blood cell in a hypotonic solution will look like a raisin
-
a red blood cell in an isotonic solution will gain water
-
a red blood cell in a hypertonic solution will shrink
Question 73
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
meninges are found in the dorsal cavity
-
parietal peritoneum is found covering an organ
-
parietal pleura lines the inside of the lungs
-
visceral pericardium covers the lung
-
pleural membranes are found on the heart
Question 74
Question
Which of the following planes could generate sections that contain tissue from BOTH kidneys?
Answer
-
parasagittal and transverse
-
midsagittal and frontal
-
frontal and transverse
-
parasagittal and frontal
-
frontal, sagittal, and transverse
Question 75
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
a proton is an anion
-
chemical synthesis is an endergonic process
-
triglyceride contains one phosphate plus 2 fatty acids
-
bulk transport is an exergonic process
-
triglyceride could be called an anion
Question 76
Question
Choose the correct statement
Answer
-
peripheral proteins are involved in cell recognition
-
some integral proteins are involved in cell recognition
-
proteins "float" in the phospholipid bilayer
-
peripheral proteins are attached to the surface of the membrane
-
all of these are correct
Question 77
Question
Choose the correct phrase about the standard anatomical position
Question 78
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
lipids contain much oxygen
-
monosaccharides are also called simple sugars
-
sucrose is an example of a polysaccharide
-
maltose is a sucrose monosaccharide
-
testosterone is a steroid enzyme
Question 79
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
the frontal plane physically divides the body into equal right and left parts
-
a transverse plane physically divides the body into anterior and posterior parts
-
a parasagittal plane physically divides the heart into equal halves
-
a frontal plane could go through the nose
-
a microscope is used to view plane
Question 80
Question
Which of the following is correct?
Answer
-
right hypochondriac region is in the lower right quadrant
-
left iliac region is superior to left lumbar region
-
right lumbar region is lateral to umbilical region
-
epigastric region is inferior to the hypochondriac region
-
lumbar region is superior to hypochondriac region
Question 81
Question
Which of the following is an inorganic that contains nitrogen?
Answer
-
monosaccharide
-
water
-
protein
-
triglyceride
-
ammonia
Question 82
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
the hand is medial to the thorax
-
the knees are inferior
-
the eyes are superior
-
the carpal is distal to the olecranal
-
the wrist is proximal to the elbow
Question 83
Question
Which is true about protein denaturation?
Answer
-
cold typically causes it
-
cooling the protein will reverse the denaturation
-
affects all levels of protein structure except primary
-
covalent bonds are always broken
-
a pH of 7.0 will probably cause denaturation
Question 84
Question
What do we fin in the dorsal body cavity?
Answer
-
stomach and intestines
-
lungs and heart
-
brain
-
spinal cord and trachea
-
all are true
Question 85
Question
Which is an example of a positive feedback mechanism?
Answer
-
sweating starts as body temperature rises
-
heart rate decreases when body activity level decreases
-
rising blood glucose causes increased insulin release
-
heart rate rises when exercise level increases
-
the air conditioner starts when the room becomes cold
Question 86
Question
Assume we have high osmotic pressure being measured in an experiment. Which is true?
Answer
-
the membrane is permeable to water
-
osmotic pressure will rise if we cut a hole in the membrane
-
more water will move toward the dilute side
-
solutes are moving through the membrane
-
osmotic pressure will rise if we make the membrane fully permeable
Question 87
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
exocytosis requires ATP
-
visceral membranes are a form of meninges
-
all cells have the same shape
-
high metabolism means slow rates of chemical reactions
-
synthesizing RNA is an exergonic process
Question 88
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
RNA is a single stranded sequence of amino acids
-
hydrogen bonds form the primary structure of DNA
-
only covalent bonds are found in DNA
-
hydrogen bonds are found in tertiary protein structure
-
RNA is held together by H-bonds
Question 89
Question
Choose the correct phrase about covalent bonds
Answer
-
they bond water molecules to each other
-
easily broken by heat and acid
-
can be found in the structure of RNA
-
created when one atom takes an electron from another
-
an example is the attraction between sodium and chloride ions
Question 90
Question
What do we know about the root term?
Answer
-
the substance is an enzyme
-
we use the term to describe phospholipids
-
the material is an enzyme built from lipid
-
it is used to describe each RNA strand
-
none is correct
Question 91
Question
Which is true about RNA?
Answer
-
contains adenine and guanine
-
contains special covalent bonds called peptide bonds
-
is more complex than DNA
-
contains thymine
-
RNA is produced in the cytoplasm
Question 92
Question
Dissolved sugar in water is an example of a
Answer
-
suspension
-
solution
-
colloid
-
osmosis
-
none is true
Question 93
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
all organic molecules contain protons
-
the hydrogen nucleus contains 1 proton and 1 neutron
-
smaller atoms have smaller electrons
-
protons in lithium are larger than protons in sodium
-
all elements contain neutrons
Question 94
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
bases are always organic
-
a hydrogen ion can also be called a proton
-
a base is a compound that accepts sodium ions
-
acids are always organic
-
a potassium donor can be called an acid
Question 95
Question
Which of the following is true about a person that studies membrane transport mechanisms?
Answer
-
they would be called a cellular anatomist
-
their field of study is cell physiology
-
we might consider them to be a gross anatomist
-
they would be a microscopic anatomist
-
none is true
Question 96
Question
When the term homeostatic inbalance is used it is likely that
Answer
-
there is a slight deviation from a set point
-
negative feedback is causing a disease state
-
positive feedback is usually present
-
the body is heading toward a set point
-
none is true
Question 97
Question
Which of the following is a correct match?
Answer
-
inferior - also called caudal
-
superior - away from the head
-
lateral - toward the midline of the body
-
intermediate - on the midline
-
proximal - father away from the body trunk
Question 98
Question
Which is true about hydrogen bonds?
Answer
-
connects nucleotides together in RNA
-
connects the carbons together with glucose
-
repels the hydrogen end of one water from the oxygen end of another water
-
links amino acids in primary protein structre
-
connect the two strands of a DNA molecule to each oer
Question 99
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
small substances like oxygen require specific transmembrane pores
-
oxygen can move directly through a phospholipid bilayer
-
facilitated diffusion protein carriers require ATP
-
glucose moves by active diffusion
-
water moves easily though impermeable membranes
Question 100
Question
If a cell is hypotonic to a solution and it's membrane is permeable only to water
Answer
-
more water will leave the cell than enter it
-
solutes will move from the cell into the solution
-
solutes will move into the cell while water leaves the cell
-
solutes will move from the solution into the cell
-
more water will enter the cell than leave it
Question 101
Question
What is the best epithelial choice for the wall of a capillary?
Answer
-
simple squamous
-
simple cuboidal
-
simple columnar
-
pseudostratified
-
transitional
Question 102
Question
___________fibers would be the best choice to hold cells of lymph nodes together
Question 103
Question
Choose the correct phase
Answer
-
microvilli are a characteristic of pseudostratified epithelium
-
microvilli are found on all epithelial cells
-
goblet cells are found in transitional epithelium
-
glandular epithelium is considered to be stratified cuboidal
-
stratified columnar is relatively rare
Question 104
Question
Structures like the urinary bladder need __________ epithelium.
Answer
-
simple squamous
-
stratified squamous
-
stratified cuboidal
-
transitional
-
stratified columnar
Question 105
Question
All of the following are functions of bone except
Answer
-
support
-
protection
-
calcium production
-
fat storage
-
blood cell formation
Question 106
Question
Which of the following muscle types is voluntary?
Answer
-
smooth and skeletal
-
only skeletal
-
cardiac and smooth
-
skeletal and cardiac
-
skeletal and smooth
Question 107
Question
Nervous system cancers typically affect
Answer
-
neurons
-
neuroglia
-
nerves
-
macrophages
-
chondrocytes
Question 108
Question
Which is true about the integument?
Answer
-
the hypodermis is the innermost layer of the skin
-
it is a form of serous membrane
-
the papillary layer is superficial to the epidermis
-
it is also called a mucosal membrane
-
it is considered an epithelial membrane
Question 109
Question
Which stratum performs the highest rate of cell division?
Answer
-
corneum
-
lucidum
-
granulosum
-
spinosum
-
basale
Question 110
Question
A feature we call the anti-codon is found in
Answer
-
mRNA
-
tRNA
-
rRNA
-
DNA
-
the ribosome
Question 111
Question
Which skin cell produces a material that protect against UV?
Answer
-
keratinocytes
-
fibroblasts
-
hemocytoblasts
-
langerhan's cells
-
melanocytes
Question 112
Question
Which is true of a protein that is 200 amino acids long?
Answer
-
the RNA that coded for the protein was 203 nucleotides long
-
there were 201 codons in the mRNA that coded for the protein
-
it required 199 polyribosomes to make the protein
-
each tRNA must have possessed 201 anti-codons
-
each ribosome was 201 codons long
Question 113
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
holocrine glands secrete by exocytosis
-
sebaceous cells die when they secrete
-
sudoriferous glands are found mostly in the axillary and pubic areas
-
most endocrine glands perform holocrine secretion
-
goblet cells possess small multicellular ducts
Question 114
Question
Which glands empty into a follicle?
Answer
-
apocrine only
-
eccrine only
-
apocrine and eccrine
-
apocrine and sebaceous
-
sebaceous and eccrine
Question 115
Question
Choose the correct phrase
Answer
-
goblet cells are the smallest of the multicellular glands
-
unicellular glands can be found in some simple columnar epithelia
-
multicellular glands are often called transitional
-
endocrine glands are typically simple coiled tubular
-
goblet cells are part of all mucosal membranes
Question 116
Answer
-
lacunae are the solid layers of calcified tissue found in bone
-
the central canal contains the largest osteocytes
-
perforating canals are found in hyaline cartilage
-
hyaline cartilage contains the lowest number of collagen fibers
-
canaliculi contain microscopic blood vessels and nerves
Question 117
Question
Which of the following is true about cutaneous membrane?
Answer
-
possesses a keratinized epithelium
-
integument lines cavities open to the outside environment
-
it is important in calcium production
-
consists of 3 layers: epidermis, dermis and hypodermis
-
dense regular CT gives it it's strength
Question 118
Question
Choose the correct phase
Answer
-
hematopoietic tissue in adults is found in most long bones
-
the epiphyseal plate is characteristic of bones in children
-
perforating fibers connect the endosteum to the bone
-
endosteum consists entirely of osteoblasts
-
periosteum lines the cavities within bone
Question 119
Answer
-
the osteogenic layer contains only osteoblasts
-
endosteum contains only osteoclasts
-
another name for spongy bone in flat bones is diploe
-
hyaline cartilage lines the medullary cavity
-
the fibrous layer of the periosteum mostly consists of osteoblasts and osteoclasts
Question 120
Question
Which is the best choice of material for the fibrous periosteum?
Answer
-
dense irregular
-
elastic
-
dense regular
-
areolar
-
reticular
Question 121
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
red marrow is found in the osteons of infants
-
fetal bone contains a larger percentage inorganic materials than adult bone
-
lacunae are the solid rings of the bone found in Haversian systems
-
perforating canals run in the same direction as osteons
-
east osteon contains blood vessels and nerves
Question 122
Question
Which conditions must be met so translation can occur?
Answer
-
gene transcription must occur
-
tRNAs must match up with codons
-
mRNA must leave the nucleus
-
rRNA must be available
-
all are true
Question 123
Question
Choose the correct term-definition match
Answer
-
condyle - flat articular surface
-
epicondyle - pointed articular surface
-
process - rounded articular projection
-
foramen - depression in bone
-
none is correctly matched
Question 124
Answer
-
endosteal destruction is faster in osteomalacia
-
osteoporosis is also called "soft bones"
-
the chemical compositions of bone in osteoporosis is normal
-
remodeling occurs before the formation of the bony callus
-
rickets is a form of osteoporosis in children
Question 125
Question
Which is true about muscle tissue?
Answer
-
skeletal muscle is lightly striated
-
cardiac muscle cells possess many nuclei
-
smooth muscle is called "smooth" because the cell lacks striations
-
intercalated discs are a feature of smooth muscle
-
all of these are true
Question 126
Question
Choose the correct phase
Answer
-
osteoid is inorganic
-
osteocytes are part of the inorganic components of bone
-
35% of bone composition is inorganic
-
65% of bone composition is organic
-
bone can withstand 15,000 PSI tension
Question 127
Answer
-
trabeculae are part of compact bone
-
appositional growth is from within
-
all bones continue to grow throughout life
-
there are always exactly 206 bones in the skeleton
-
the girdles are part of the appendicular system
Question 128
Answer
-
arrector pilli are a form of involuntary muscle
-
a tiny skeletal muscle is connected to each hair follicle
-
the connective tissue root sheath is in contact with the hair
-
the hair is a dermal derrivative
-
vellus hairs are thick coarse hairs
Question 129
Answer
-
chromatin is tightly coiled DNA
-
DNA polymerase produces the mRNA strand
-
the nucleus is found within the nucleolus
-
a polyribosome consists of one mRNA with many ribosomes on it
-
DNA is in the chromosome form during translation
Question 130
Question
Which is a sharp, pointed projection
Answer
-
ramus
-
tuberosity
-
crest
-
spine
-
epicondyle
Question 131
Question
Which is true about bone remodeling?
Answer
-
PTH is part of mechanical remodeling
-
PTH stimulates osteoblast activity
-
PTH causes decreased blood calcium
-
PTH stimulates osteoclast activity
-
PTH does not have much of a function in humans
Question 132
Question
Which is found only on the femur?
Answer
-
tubercle
-
tuberosity
-
trochanter
-
crest
-
line
Question 133
Question
Which is a rounded articular projection?
Answer
-
spine
-
crest
-
line
-
condyle
-
epicondyle
Question 134
Question
The patella is a special form of __________ bone that develops within tendons
Answer
-
long
-
short
-
irregular
-
flat
-
None is correct
Question 135
Answer
-
the costal cartilages are elastic
-
respiratory cartilages are formed of fibrocartilage
-
the external ear is hyaline cartilage
-
intervertebral discs are elastic cartilage
-
the menisci of the knee are fibrocartilage
Question 136
Question
Which are correctly paired regarding the skin
Answer
-
Langerhans - chemical protection
-
sweat - physical barrier
-
squamous cells - chemical barrier
-
fibroblasts - found in the dermis
-
none of these are correctly paired
Question 137
Question
Where does keratinization "officially" begin?
Answer
-
stratum granulosum
-
stratum spinosum
-
stratum basale
-
stratum corneum
-
stratum lucidum
Question 138
Question
Which stage of repair involves macrophages cleaning up debris?
Question 139
Question
Epithelia are considered polar because
Answer
-
their outer surface is positively charged and their inner surface is negatively charged
-
they always have a basal surface and an apical surface
-
their outer surface is negatively charged and their inner surface is positively charged
-
they are hydrophilic
-
they contain phospholipids
Question 140
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
all types of epithelial tissue stay together like sheets
-
cilia move things along the surface and are made of microfilaments
-
all connective tissue is very vascular
-
cartilage is vascular but has no nerve supply
-
none of these are true
Question 141
Answer
-
meatus - slit like opening
-
fossa - canal-like passage
-
foramen - furrow
-
groove - indentation at the edge of a structure
-
fossa - shallow depression
Question 142
Question
Which gives rise to the nail?
Answer
-
epithelial root sheath
-
nail matrix
-
nail bed
-
connective root sheath
-
eponychium
Question 143
Question
All apply to eccrine glands except
Answer
-
most common sweat gland
-
simple coiled tubular gland
-
empties into a hair follicle
-
performs merocrine secretion
-
functions in thermoregulation
Question 144
Question
Using the code below ___ amino acids will be placed and ___ codons were required.
A-T-C-T-T-C-T-A-C-G-A-C-C-A-A-T-T-C-G-C-G-T-A-G-G-T-T-A-T-T-A-T-T
Answer
-
5, 6
-
6, 7
-
7, 8
-
9, 10
-
None of these is correct
Question 145
Question
A flattened stack of sac-like membranes describes:
Answer
-
RER
-
SER
-
lysosomes
-
Golgi
-
centrioles
Question 146
Question
Disassembling the mitotic spindle is a characteristic of
Answer
-
metaphase
-
telophase
-
anaphase
-
prophase
-
cytokinesis
Question 147
Question
Carotene is found in the __________
Answer
-
epidermis
-
reticular layer
-
hypodermis
-
papillary layer
-
fibrous layer
Question 148
Question
Which is true of epithelia?
Answer
-
typically consists of closely packed cells
-
there is much ground substance and few cells
-
vascularity of epithelia varies
-
there are four basic cell shapes
-
stratified columnar is a common form of epithelium
Question 149
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
mitosis is the longest part of the cell cycle
-
DNA is synthesized during mitosis
-
DNA is duplicated during the G phase of the cell cycle
-
cytokinesis is called division of the cytoplasm
-
cells only perform their normal functions during mitosis
Question 150
Question
Which must be true of developing bone?
Answer
-
primary and secondary ossification occurs in endochondral formation
-
primary ossification occurs later than secondary
-
the epiphyseal line is a characteristic of fetal bone
-
primary ossification occurs in the epiphysis
-
most long bones form by intramembranous ossification
Question 151
Question
The H-zone is lighter in color than the rest of the A-band because
Answer
-
light only needs to go through myosin in the H-zone
-
light only needs to go through actin in the H-zone
-
the H-zone proteins are thinner than I-band proteins
-
of overlapping sarcomeres
-
actin plus myosin overlap in the H-zone
Question 152
Question
Which of the following muscles is named according to origin/insertion?
Answer
-
pectoralis major
-
brachioradialis
-
deltoid
-
adductor longus
-
biceps femoris
Question 153
Question
Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth muscle but not cardiac muscle?
Answer
-
Z-discs
-
calmodulin
-
possesses mitochondria
-
contains sarcoplasm
-
sarcomeres
Question 154
Question
Of these actions, which is the first effect of acetylcholine on a myofiber?
Question 155
Question
Choose the correct phase
Answer
-
the fibula bears only half the weight that the tibia does
-
of the two condyles of the tibia, fibula is closest to the medial condyle
-
the fibula is triangular in cross section
-
the patellar notch is found on the femur
-
medial malleolus is on the fibula
Question 156
Question
Choose the correct phase
Answer
-
sacroiliac joint is between sacrum and L5
-
iliac fossa is the socket of the hip
-
phalanges are classified as short bones
-
the tarsus contains the talus
-
ischial tuberosity is part of the femur
Question 157
Question
What would happen if AChE is removed from the neuromuscular junction yet ACh remains?
Answer
-
sodium gates in the sarcolemma would remain open
-
the all-or-none response would not occur
-
ATP would be depleted (to zero) in the neuron
-
the motor neuron would not be able to generate an impulse
-
the muscle cell would not be able to contract
Question 158
Question
Choose the correct match
Answer
-
femur - largest bone in the upper limb
-
radius - head is distal
-
acromion - found on scapula
-
carpus - palm
-
fibula - proximal end possesses two condyles
Question 159
Question
A fulcrum of a lever system is the
Answer
-
weight that the muscle moves
-
load
-
distance from effort to resistance
-
point on which a lever moves
-
area where the muscle attaches
Question 160
Question
Which is the best match
Answer
-
multi-unit - small intestine
-
multi-unit - large intestine
-
multi-unit - stomach
-
multi-unit - blood vessel wall
-
single unit - iris of the eye
Question 161
Question
Which is true during a muscle twitch (in voluntary muscle)?
Answer
-
actin shortens
-
neither actin nor myosin shortens
-
ACh activates diffuse junctions
-
both actin and myosin shorten
-
myosin shortens
Question 162
Question
Which would be the best design to gain the most strength? A muscle with
Answer
-
long fibers in a second class lever system
-
short fibers attached close to the fulcrum of a third class lever system
-
long fibers in a first class lever system
-
long fibers attached close to the fulcrum in a third class lever system
-
short fibers in a mechanical advantage lever system
Question 163
Question
Choose the correct match
Answer
-
perpendicular plate - ethmoid
-
parietal - posterior inferior part of the skull
-
sphenoid - tympanic region
-
sphenoid - foramen magnum
-
frontal - forms most of the cranium
Question 164
Answer
-
myofibers possess a wrapper called epimysium
-
endomysium surrounds individual myofibrils
-
endomysium covers fascicles
-
perimysium wraps fascicles
-
epimysium directly wraps fascicles
Question 165
Question
Of the list, which allows the most precise control of muscle force production?
Answer
-
the size of the muscle cell (larger diameter means better control)
-
motor units designed with many muscle cells per unit
-
a single neuron innervating an entire muscle
-
the largest number of neuron endings per motor unit
-
muscles with 4 muscle cells per motor unit
Question 166
Question
Choose the correct phase
Answer
-
gomphoses are an example of a diarthrotic joint
-
diarthroses are synovial
-
fibrous joints are amphiarthroses
-
sutures are considered amphiarthrotic
-
synarthroses are considered to be slightly movable
Question 167
Question
Choose the correct phase about the vertebral column
Answer
-
vertebrae possess processes
-
pedicles are located at the base of the spinous processes
-
the transverse process is on the midline of the vertebral body
-
the vertebral arch bears most of the weight
-
the vertebral foramen is posterior to the vertebral arch
Question 168
Question
Choose the correct phase
Answer
-
calcaneus possesses the lateral malleolus
-
talus is the heel
-
two large carpals support the weight of the body
-
Achilles tendon attaches to the calcaneus
-
metatarsus is the palm
Question 169
Answer
-
elastic cartilage is found at the anterior midline of the pelvis
-
the ischium is the largest flaring part of the pelvis
-
the tibial tuberosity is a feature of the femur
-
the heads of the metatarsals are the "knuckles" of a fist
-
none is true
Question 170
Question
Choose the correct match
Answer
-
bursae are wrapped around tendons
-
the fibrous capsule of a tendon sheath is formed of dense regular CT
-
synovial membrane forms the superficial layer of a bursa
-
bursae are fibrous sacs filled with synovial fluid
-
tendon sheaths are built like synarthroses
Question 171
Question
Choose the correct match
Answer
-
ankle - is part of the leg
-
fibula - rotates
-
head of femur - distal
-
medial malleolus - part of the fibula
-
radius - lateral bone in anatomical position
Question 172
Question
Which of the following is named according to its shape?
Answer
-
gluteus medius
-
tibialis anterior
-
levator ventralis
-
temporalis
-
trapezius
Question 173
Question
Rigor mortis occurs because
Answer
-
calcium is not available for the power stroke
-
ATP is not available to release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
-
ATP is not available to detach myosin from actin
-
ATP is not available to reset the myosin ATPase
-
ATP is not available to attach myosin to actin
Question 174
Question
Cartilagenous joints can be found in which of the following categories?
Answer
-
diarthrosis and amphiarthrosis
-
synarthrosis and diarthrosis
-
synarthrosis only
-
amphiarthrosis only
-
amphiarthrosis and synarthrosis
Question 175
Question
Which of the following is an example of a purely isometric contraction?
Answer
-
riding a bicycle for a full day
-
lifting a book
-
running a marathon
-
walking carefully so that you do not become fatigued
-
unsuccessfully trying to lift a weight
Question 176
Question
Which is true about a striated myofiber that is contracting?
Answer
-
calcium gates in the SR are open
-
sodium gates are closed
-
ACh diffuses into the sarcoplasm
-
calmodulin has moved out of the way
-
Z-discs are shortening
Question 177
Question
Which is an example of a first-class lever system?
Answer
-
load in the middle, effort and fulcrum at either end
-
fulcrum and effort together at one end and load at the other
-
effort in the middle, fulcrum and load at either end
-
load and effort together at one end and fulcrum at the other
-
fulcrum in the middle and effort and resistance at either end
Question 178
Question
What is the definition of the origin of a muscle?
Answer
-
the distal attachment of a muscle to a structure
-
any attachment of muscle to bone
-
the attachment of a muscle to a structure that will be moving
-
the proximal attachment of a muscle to a structure
-
the attachment of a muscle to the stationary structure
Question 179
Question
Which bone helps in laryngeal movement?
Answer
-
hyoid
-
vomer
-
petrous portion
-
zygomatic
-
palatine
Question 180
Question
What would happen if a weight lifter began training to be a marathon runner?
Answer
-
the fibers would become less red in color
-
small red fibers would be transformed into intermediate fibers
-
the number of mitochondria in the fibers would decrease
-
the number of myofilaments in the fibers would increase
-
cell diameter would decrease
Question 181
Question
If a person was born with a long torso (like the one in lab), where would we find the extra vertebra?
Answer
-
lumbar
-
thoracic
-
cervical
-
sacral
-
coccygeal
Question 182
Question
Muscles are named according to their
Question 183
Question
Which is true of myofibers?
Answer
-
they contract to 70% of their resting length
-
a long muscle cell is stronger than a short muscle cell
-
partial contraction is possible if there is a small amount of neurotransmitter released
-
they are graded rather than all-or-none
-
a short muscle cell is stronger than a long muscle cell
Question 184
Question
Which is the most reasonable about a muscle named Pronator teres?
Question 185
Question
Choose the correct statement
Answer
-
the pelvis is the girdle for the lower limb
-
the femur is part of the leg
-
digit 1 is formed of three bones
-
the radius is part of the arm
-
none of these are correct
Question 186
Question
Why are striations seen in muscle tissue? Because of
Answer
-
the thin and thick areas of the sarcolemma
-
the stretching of the connective tissues
-
the shadow of the Z-disc
-
the way troponin and tropomyosin interact
-
the way that actin and myosin filaments overlap
Question 187
Question
Choose the correct matches about the arches of the foot
Answer
-
transverse - runs from ankle to toe
-
medial longitudinal - arches higher than the lateral longitudinal
-
medial longitudinal - same side as digit 5
-
lateral longitudinal - same side as digit 1
-
all of these are true
Question 188
Question
Which of the following is true?
Answer
-
petrous region of maxilla forms the bridge of the nose
-
vomer does not articulate with any other bone
-
palatine is the posterior 1/3 of the soft palate
-
sphenoid contains hypophyseal fossa
-
perpendicular plate is about the size of a fingernail
Question 189
Question
Choose the correct statement
Answer
-
vertebrosternal ribs are attached posteriorly to the sternum
-
vertebrosternal ribs are in between vertebrochondral and vertebral ribs
-
vertebrosternal ribs are the last 5 pair
-
floating ribs articulate posteriorly with lumbar vertebrae
-
the number of thoracic vertebrae typically does not vary from one person to the next
Question 190
Question
Which would result in the largest increase in muscle force production?
Answer
-
activate wave summation
-
applying more ACh to the synaptic cleft
-
stimulating the existing motor units more rapidly
-
stimulating the muscle cells to contract with more force
-
activating additional motor units
Question 191
Question
The all-or-none concept applies to
Question 192
Question
Immediately after the voltage sensitive gates in the S.R. open
Answer
-
sodium endocytosis begins
-
sarcoplasmic calcium level rises
-
there is a dramatic decrease in ATP consumption
-
it's voltage-senstive sodium gates open
-
the myofiber pumps calcium into the interstitial area
Question 193
Question
Which is the agonist in forearm extension?
Answer
-
brachioradialis
-
trapezius
-
triceps femoris
-
triceps brachii
-
biceps brachii
Question 194
Question
Choose the correct phase
Answer
-
the joint capsule is formed of dense regular connective tissue
-
reinforcing ligaments are always found inside joints
-
the synovial membrane contains areolar connective tissue
-
the joint cavity is filled with hyaline cartilage
-
articular cartilage is usually fibrocartilage for strength reasons
Question 195
Question
Which phrase best describes a motor unit?
Answer
-
myofiber and all the neurons it stimulates
-
nerve and all the muscle cells it stimulates
-
neuron and all the myofilaments it stimulates
-
neuron and all the myofibers it stimulates
-
group of muscles working together
Question 196
Question
The lambdoidal suture is formed between the
Question 197
Question
Which muscle has fascicle arrangement on a single side of a central tendon?
Answer
-
convergent
-
unipennate
-
circular
-
multipennate
-
parallel
Question 198
Question
What would happen if you applied a chemical that blocks ACh binding to muscle cells?
Answer
-
calcium will quickly flood the sarcoplasm
-
the neuron would no longer produce ACh
-
the neuron would not be capable of firing
-
voltage sensitive gates in the S.R. would not open
-
sodium would immediately enter the muscle cell
Question 199
Question
Which is true about smooth muscle?
Question 200
Question
Choose the correct phase
Answer
-
nodding the head is a function of the atlas moving on the axis
-
the posterior inferior part of the coxal bone is called the ilium
-
trochlea is found on the ulna
-
the intervertebral foramen contains the spinal cord
-
maxillary bones are fused along the midline