Question 1
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Scope management is the function controlling a project in terms of its goals and objectives during the execution phase.
Question 2
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The statement of work is a detailed narrative description of the work required for a project.
Question 3
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A comprehensive statement of work includes an estimate of time and costs, resource requirements, and the scope of the work to be performed.
Question 4
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Until a project has gone through work breakdown structure, it is impossible to determine the relationships among the constituent activities.
Question 5
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The scope baseline is a document that provides a summary description of each reporting relationship along with a schedule for meetings and reports.
Question 6
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A work package may be composed of one or more subdeliverables.
Question 7
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A work package may consist of more than one milestone.
Question 8
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Work authorization functions as the formal "It's OK to begin work," on the project.
Question 9
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The terms lump-sum contract and turnkey contract are interchangeable.
Question 10
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A lump-sum contract requires the customer to pay for the full delivered price of the project before any work is done.
Question 11
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Team building and conflict management skills are two of the most important people skills that project managers can cultivate.
Question 12
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The first step in assembling a project team is to talk to potential team members.
Question 13
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If preferred project team members are not available, the project manager should notify top management of the consequences.
Question 14
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Project managers are best able to promote a sense of enthusiasm within the project team when they create an environment that is challenging, supportive, and personally rewarding.
Question 15
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High turnover among project team members is a key element of success since new team members will bring fresh perspectives and ideas to the group.
Question 16
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Project team productivity is at its peak during the norming phase of group development.
Question 17
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The punctuated equilibrium model suggests that groups spend the majority of their time in stasis.
Question 18
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Cross-functional cooperation directly influences both the actual implementation of the project and the team members' assessment that the project experience was worthwhile.
Question 19
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In general, a superordinate goal is a replacement goal for the goals of all functional groups involved in the project.
Question 20
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Accessibility is the perception of the project team members that they are physically located in such a way that it is easy for them to interact.
Question 21
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The risk is highest in the earliest phase of the project life cycle.
Question 22
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Opportunity emerges from favorable project circumstances and risk from unfavorable events.
Question 23
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As risk decreases in the project life cycle, opportunity increases
Question 24
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Risks can be quantified by multiplying the likelihood a failure will occur by the severity of the failure.
Question 25
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Technical risk is the probability that the project will not perform to the required standards or produce substandard products or have excessive operating cost consumption.
Question 26
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The probability that the investments made to fund the front-end activities will be lost due to project abandonment is financing risk.
Question 27
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One approach to risk mitigation is simply to accept it.
Question 28
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Risk cannot be transferred because ultimately your own project will suffer the consequences if the event occurs.
Question 29
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Contingency reserves require a construction company to hold back some funds in an account just in case something happens that increases the overall project cost.
Question 30
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The highest dollar value of reserves is typically task contingency.
Question 31
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Direct costs are those clearly assigned to the aspect of the project that generated the cost.
Question 32
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Material is an example of a cost that is recurring, variable and direct.
Question 33
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An expedited cost is one that does not vary with respect to their usage.
Question 34
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The term expedited cost has the same meaning as crashing cost in the project management milieu.
Question 35
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An order of magnitude estimate is usually more accurate than a ballpark estimate.
Question 36
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Comparative estimates are more accurate than definitive estimates when applied to the same project.
Question 37
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A learning rate of 90% means that for every doubling of output, the time required by the activity falls by 10%.
Question 38
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Function point analysis is a system for estimating the size of software projects based on the number of lines of code a typical programmer can write in a day.
Question 39
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A common reason for cost overruns in a project is a low initial estimate of project cost.
Question 40
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There is a tendency for different departments or functions to compete for scarce resources in a zero-sum game when bottom-up budgeting is used to develop a project budget.
Question 41
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Preceding activities are those that must occur before others can be done.
Question 42
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A backward pass is performed when it is necessary to undo some work that has been performed in order to complete it properly.
Question 43
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A merge activity has two or more immediate predecessors.
Question 44
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Float is always measured in exactly the same way as slack.
Question 45
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The PERT technique assumes that durations are more deterministic.
Question 46
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Burst activities are those with two or more successor activities.
Question 47
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You must know the mean of an activity in order to determine its standard deviation.
Question 48
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In assigning a value for the most pessimistic (b) duration, the project manager should estimate the duration of the activity to have a 99% likelihood that it will take b or less amount of time.
Question 49
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The late start time should be calculated using a forward pass through the network.
Question 50
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Negative float exists when a project's critical path has been completed more quickly than anticipated.