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8 week prep (2)

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Quiz on Untitled, created by Jesse Clark on 15/09/2016.
Jesse Clark
Quiz by Jesse Clark, updated more than 1 year ago
Jesse Clark
Created by Jesse Clark about 8 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
A double-keyed lock requires ___________
Answer
  • A key to turn the lock on either side of the lock cylinder
  • Two different keys to operate
  • Two keys to be turned at the same time
  • A single key for multiple locks

Question 2

Question
A metal door with a wood or cardboard core is called a __________
Answer
  • Kalamein door
  • Bi-clad door
  • Fire door
  • Shock-proof door

Question 3

Question
Bolt cutters will cut case-hardened steel.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 4

Question
Breaching walls and fllors is difficult, time consuming and usually a last resort.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 5

Question
It is always best to "try before you pry" in an effort to minimize property damage.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 6

Question
Looking from the outside, if the hinges of a door are not visible, the is a/an __________.
Answer
  • inward-opening door
  • hollow core door
  • outward-opening door
  • kalamein door

Question 7

Question
Outward-opening doors are required by the Life Safety Code on which type of occupancy?
Answer
  • Public Assembly
  • Industrial
  • Single-family dwelling
  • Multi-family dwelling

Question 8

Question
The "rabbit tool" is an example of a _____________.
Answer
  • Hydraulic spreading tool
  • Pneumatic spreading tool
  • Rotary saw
  • Striking tool

Question 9

Question
The entry point for a fire attack will usually be the ___________.
Answer
  • Front door
  • Rear door
  • Side window
  • Front window

Question 10

Question
The following are advantages of wire glass except ______________________.
Answer
  • The wire holds the glass together, requiring removal of the glass as one entire piece.
  • It keeps objects from breaking through
  • It deters burglaries.
  • It can inhibit the spread of fire

Question 11

Question
The tool of choice to use in conjunction with a K-tool is the __________.
Answer
  • Halligan tool
  • Flat-head axe
  • Pick-head axe
  • Sledge hammer

Question 12

Question
This type of door is usually distinguishable by its lack of a frame and little or no trim.
Answer
  • Tempered glass
  • Plate glass
  • Electric strike
  • Wooden framed door

Question 13

Question
What is the tool of choice when forcing inward-swinging doors with electric strikes and magnetic locks?
Answer
  • Hydraulic spreading device
  • Halligan tool
  • Maul
  • Battering ram

Question 14

Question
When broken, this type of glass will form large sharp shards.
Answer
  • Plate
  • Tempered
  • Toughened
  • Safety

Question 15

Question
Which is true about forcible entry?
Answer
  • Always try the least destructive method, if time allows.
  • Always try the fastest method.
  • The fastest method will always be the most destructive.
  • Always try the least destructive method

Question 16

Question
Which of the following is not one of the four typical door locks?
Answer
  • Thumb-screw
  • Mortise
  • Rim
  • Key in knob

Question 17

Question
Without power, a fail-secure electric strike will __________________.
Answer
  • Remain locked
  • Unlock until power is restored
  • Unlock once a minute until power is restored
  • Cause a fire

Question 18

Question
A basic water shuttle operation consists of three elements, what are they?
Answer
  • Dump site, fill site, necessary fire apparatus
  • Dump site, fill site, the necessary hose
  • Dump site, fill site, the necessary firefighters
  • Dump site, fill site, the necessary water

Question 19

Question
A reverse lay goes from the fire to the water source.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 20

Question
As a member of the fire service, there are a few other basic properties you should know about water. A gallon of water weighs about ____________.
Answer
  • 8.33 lbs
  • 62.4 lbs
  • 7.48 lbs
  • .434 lbs

Question 21

Question
Engine 6 is responding to a working fire on the east side. They are second due and directed by command to lay in to Engine 13 from a nearby hydrant. What size water main are hydrants typically connected to?
Answer
  • 6-inch
  • 4-inch
  • 8-inch
  • 20-inch

Question 22

Question
Establishing an adequate water supply is _______________________.
Answer
  • One of the first critical elements of a successful fire attack
  • Second only to establishing ground ladders for the points of firefighter egress
  • Not necessary for small bedroom fires in residential structures
  • Requires multiple fire fighters to drag supply line to a distant hydrant

Question 23

Question
Hydrant spacing is typically every ________ feet in high fire load areas, and _______ feet in lesser fire loaded areas such as singe-family neighborhoods.
Answer
  • 300, 500
  • 250, 500
  • 300, 600
  • 350, 550

Question 24

Question
Indentify relay pumping in its simplest form.
Answer
  • One pump supplying water through fire hose to another pump.
  • Two fire crews working together to establish water.
  • An engine crew feeding water to a ladder truck to extinguish fire.
  • Moving water from a dump tank

Question 25

Question
If you bleed the trapped air off of a charged hose line by cracking open the nozzle momentarily and then took a pressure reading at the closed nozzle with no water flowing. What type of pressure reading would you get?
Answer
  • Static pressure
  • Flow pressure
  • Residual pressure
  • Cumulative pressure

Question 26

Question
It should be a goal of fire departments to inspect and maintain fire hydrants annually.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 27

Question
One cubic foot of water is approximately __________.
Answer
  • 7.48 gallons
  • 62.4 gallons
  • 8.33 gallons
  • .434 gallons

Question 28

Question
The best practice to prevent water hammer is by always operating valves and nozzles in a ___________________.
Answer
  • Slow deliverate and cautious manner
  • Rapid motion to stop water flow before damage occurs
  • Controlled setting as directed by the company officer
  • Water hammer damage does not occur in systems with hydrants

Question 29

Question
The chief officer at a working structure fire should not be concerned at all with establishing a water supply; that is a responsibility of company officers and firefighters. The chief should concentrate on running the incident.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 30

Question
The wet barrel hydrant is typically found in freezing climates so that water is quickly available.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 31

Question
According to Boise Fire Department SOP 206.05 "water supply", it is not necessary to ensure that an adequate, uniterrupted supply of water is established when placing fire streams in operation.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 32

Question
Water in motion as it flow out the nozzle represents flow pressure.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 33

Question
Two of the most important physical rules governing water supply are that water seeks it own level and _________________.
Answer
  • Is non-compressible
  • Is wet and absorbs heart
  • Is readily available in domestic water supply systems
  • Can contribute to water damage in both residential and commercial buildings

Question 34

Question
What is the main access point for the fire department water supply in municipal water systems?
Answer
  • Hydrants
  • Pools, rivers and ponds
  • Dump tanks and water tankers
  • Water shuttle operations

Question 35

Question
Which type of fire apparatus is built to carry up to 3,500 gallons of water?
Answer
  • Water tender
  • Super pumper
  • Engine
  • Ladder

Question 36

Question
A CAD system is a _________________.
Answer
  • Computer-aided dispatch system
  • Computer-aided design system
  • Computers-added drafting system
  • Computer-automated dispatch system

Question 37

Question
A Public Safety Communications Center is also referred to as a PSAP. A PSAP is a Public Safety Answering __________.
Answer
  • Point
  • Position
  • Person
  • Place

Question 38

Question
A device used to extend the range of a radio signal over a larger geographical; area is called a _____________.
Answer
  • Repeater
  • Receiver
  • Ranger
  • Redirector

Question 39

Question
A powerful radio located in a fixed location is know as a _________.
Answer
  • Base radio
  • Portable radio
  • Mobile radio
  • Repeater radio

Question 40

Question
Ada County fire departments use what type of radio channels on a structure fire?
Answer
  • 700MHz digital
  • VHF analog
  • UHF analog
  • Duplex analog

Question 41

Question
In a simplex radio system how many parties may speak at one time on one channel?
Answer
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3

Question 42

Question
Documenting the event is part of the communications process.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 43

Question
Of the critical information needed by a telecommunicator, what is the minimum need to effect a response?
Answer
  • Location of and nature of the emergency
  • Callers name and contact number
  • Conditions at the caller location
  • Type of device the caller is using to report the emergency

Question 44

Question
Per SOP 205.01, a progress report includes:
Answer
  • Postion (location), Progress, Needs
  • Position (location), Progress, Accountability
  • Postion (location), Assignment, Progress
  • Assignment, Progress, Accountability

Question 45

Question
Public safety radio communications in the United States is regulated by ___________.
Answer
  • The FCC
  • The IAFF
  • The IAFC
  • The NVFC

Question 46

Question
The Nation Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard for the Installation, Maintenance, and use of Emergency Communications Systems is known as ___________.
Answer
  • NFPA 1221
  • NFPA 1220
  • NFPA 1222
  • NFPA 1212

Question 47

Question
The phonetic equivalent of the letters A, B, N, R and Y are:
Answer
  • Alpha, Bravo, November, Romeo, Yankee
  • Alpha, Baker, Nora, Roberts, Yellow
  • Adam, Boy, Nora, Robert, Yellow
  • Alpha, Bravo, Nora, Roger, Yankee

Question 48

Question
The preferred method of communcations on a radio system is ______________.
Answer
  • Plain language or clear text
  • Plain english
  • Ten-codes
  • Fire service jargon

Question 49

Question
The radio used by a fire officer on the fireground is a ___________.
Answer
  • Portable radio
  • Base radio
  • Mobile radio
  • Repeater radio

Question 50

Question
What items must be communicated initially when transmitting a Mayday (prior to acknowledgement from Command)?
Answer
  • Mayday, Identifier, Location
  • Mayday, Identifier, Situation, Location
  • Mayday, Identifier, Situation
  • Mayday, Identifier, Situation, Location, Plan

Question 51

Question
The rumor mill is a good source of information on what is going on in the fire department.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 52

Question
What term is used to clear all non-essential communications on the fireground for urgent communications?
Answer
  • Emergency traffic
  • Mayday
  • Tone alert
  • Shut up so I can talk

Question 53

Question
What term is used to have fire personnel evacuate a structure in rapid retreat, utilizing the closest egress withotu tools and equipment (except hand tools)?
Answer
  • Abandon
  • Evacuate
  • Withdraw
  • Emergency traffic

Question 54

Question
Which of the following is the standard communication model?
Answer
  • Sender calls receiver, receiver acknowledges sender, sender transmits message, receiver confirms message.
  • Sender transmits message, receiver confirms message, sender acknowledges receiver understood message, receiver reports "over and out".
  • Sender transmits message, receiver confirms message, sender confirms receiver understands message.
  • Sender sends message, receiver confirms message

Question 55

Question
Which term is used on an emergency scene and indicates that you are ready for a new assignment?
Answer
  • Available
  • In service
  • Task complete
  • Good to go

Question 56

Question
ICS 100. At the incident scene, who handles media inquires?
Answer
  • Public Information Officer
  • Communications Officer
  • External Affair Specialist
  • Media Relations Specialist

Question 57

Question
ICS 100. If the Incident Commander designates personnel to provide public information, safety, and liaison services, the personnel are collectively referred to as the:
Answer
  • Command Staff
  • Director Staff
  • Executive Staff
  • Incident Staff

Question 58

Question
ICS 100. In ICS, the members of the Command Staff assume the title of:
Answer
  • Officer
  • Executive
  • Leader
  • Director

Question 59

Question
ICS 100. Span of control refers to:
Answer
  • The number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during an incident.
  • The process fo moving the responsibility for incident command from one Incident Commander to another.
  • An orderly line of authority that exists without the ranks of the incident management organization
  • The act of directing, ordering, or controlling by virture of explicit statutory, reulatory, or delegated authority.

Question 60

Question
ICS 100. The Operations Section Chief:
Answer
  • Directs tactical actions to achieve the incident objectives
  • Prepares and impleents the Incident Commuication Plan
  • Coordinates communication between all responding agencies
  • Sets up and maintains all incident facilites and good services

Question 61

Question
ICS 100. The difference between a Strike Team and a Task Force is:
Answer
  • Strike Teams have similar resources while Task Forces are comprised of mixed resources.
  • Strike Teams report to an Officer while Task Forces report to ladder.
  • Strike Teams are in the Operations Section while Task Forces are in the Planning Section.
  • Strike teams have a lower span of control ration when compared to Task Forces.

Question 62

Question
ICS 100. Which of the following organizational entities within the Operations Section may be used to divide an incident geographically?
Answer
  • Divisions
  • Groups
  • Regiments
  • Units

Question 63

Question
ICS 100. Who has overall responsibility for managing the on-scene incident?
Answer
  • Incident Commander
  • Operations Section Chief
  • Emergency Operations Center Manager
  • Agency Executive

Question 64

Question
ICS 100. You are a Group Supervisor wordking in a Branch within the Operations Section. Who is your immediate supervisor?
Answer
  • Branch Director
  • Branch Executive Officer
  • Branch Leader
  • Branch Chief

Question 65

Question
ICS 200. General Staff position conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization, and directs all tactical resources?
Answer
  • Operations Section Chief
  • Finance/Administration Section Chief
  • Planning Section Chief
  • Logistics Section Chief

Question 66

Question
ICS 200. Smith is the Situation Unit Leader. No Planning Section Chief is assigned. Who does Chris Smith report to?
Answer
  • Incident Commander
  • No Direct Supervisor
  • Operations Section Chief
  • Public Information Officer

Question 67

Question
ICS 200. Is responsible fo deteming the appropriate tactics for an incident?
Answer
  • The Operations Section
  • The Planning Section
  • The Safety Officer
  • The Deputy Incident Commander

Question 68

Question
ICS 200. Level of the ICS organization may have Deputy positions: - Branch - Incident Commander - ___________________
Answer
  • Section
  • Division
  • Staging Area
  • Group

Question 69

Question
ICS 200. The TRUE statement:
Answer
  • Span of control is accomplished by organizing resources into Teams, Divisions, Groups, Branches, or Sections
  • Span of control should be established without consideration of factor such as the type of incident, nature of the task, hazards, and safety factors.
  • Span of control may be extended beyond 1:10 in order to ensure that more resources can be deployed on complex, large incidents.
  • Span of control is less of a factor of concern for incidents that are resolved within the initial operational period.

Question 70

Question
ICS 200. Within the ICS organization can be established:
Answer
  • Geographically or functionally
  • Within Groups to organize resources
  • Along agency jurisdictional lines
  • Under the supervision of a Leader

Question 71

Question
ICS 200. Representatives from Assiting or Cooperating Agencies and Organizations coordinate through:
Answer
  • Liason officer
  • Public Information Officer
  • Logistics Sections Chief
  • Operations Section Chief

Question 72

Question
________________ means that each individual involved in incident operations will be assigned to only one supervisor.
Answer
  • Unity of Command
  • Supervisor Authority
  • Span of Control
  • Unified Command

Question 73

Question
After aeration, the discharged foam product is called _______ foam.
Answer
  • Finished
  • Mixed
  • Aerated
  • Aspirated

Question 74

Question
All of the following are possible causes of foam generating problems EXCEPT ONE, CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
Answer
  • Attaching the eductor directly to the apparatus discharge
  • Partially closed nozzle
  • Failure to match eductor and nozzle flow
  • Nozzle is too high above the eductor

Question 75

Question
Foam is effective on flammable liquid fires for all of the following reason EXCEPT ON, CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
Answer
  • It dilutes the fuel
  • It forms an oxygen-excluding blanket
  • It seperates the vapors from the heat source
  • It cools the fuel

Question 76

Question
In addition to extinguishing flammable liquid fires, what else can class B foams be used for?
Answer
  • To suppress vapor emission from unignited fuels
  • For extinguishing charged electrical equipment
  • As a detergent for haz-mat decontamination applications
  • As a smothering agent for class D fires

Question 77

Question
Portable foam extinguishers are examples of _________ systems.
Answer
  • Premixed
  • Induction
  • Draft
  • Venturi proportioned

Question 78

Question
Raw liquid foam as it comes from the manufacturer is known as:
Answer
  • Foam concentrate
  • Chemical foam
  • Undiluted foam solution
  • Foam solution

Question 79

Question
The application rate for AFF and FFFP is ________ gpm of foam solution per square foot of ignited hydrocarbon fuel.
Answer
  • .10
  • .01
  • 1.0
  • 10

Question 80

Question
What foam formulation is effective on polar solvents?
Answer
  • Alcohol resistant AFFF
  • Protein
  • Fluoroprotein
  • Film forming fluoroprotein

Question 81

Question
What is adding foam concentrate to a fire apparatus tank at the time it is needed called?
Answer
  • Batch mixing
  • Premixing
  • Tank mixing
  • Ready mixing

Question 82

Question
What is batch-mixing foam most appropriate for?
Answer
  • Class A foam
  • Class B foam
  • Car fires
  • Foam requiring a mechanical generator

Question 83

Question
What is the term for the mixture of foam concentrate and water before air has been added?
Answer
  • Foam solution
  • Un-aerated foam
  • Foam mix
  • Proportioned foam

Question 84

Question
Which appliance mixes the correct amount of foam concentrate with water?
Answer
  • Proportioner
  • Aerator
  • Venturi device
  • Aspirator

Question 85

Question
Which is one of the sides of the foam tetrahedron?
Answer
  • Mechanical agitation
  • Proportioning
  • Aerating
  • Educting

Question 86

Question
Which is the usual foam application method for aboveground storage tank fires?
Answer
  • Rain-down
  • Roll-on
  • Bank-down
  • Subsurface injection

Question 87

Question
Which one of these is an example of a hydrocarbon fuel?
Answer
  • Benzene
  • Acetone
  • Lacuer thinner
  • Ketones

Question 88

Question
Which statement about an in-line foam eductor is correct?
Answer
  • It uses the venturi priniciple to draft foam concentrate
  • There are two types, mechanical and manifold-driven
  • The eductor draws air into the foam solution
  • The pickup tube tends to clog easily

Question 89

Question
Which type of foam can be used to reduce the surface tension of water?
Answer
  • Class A
  • High Expansion
  • Fluoroprotein
  • Protein

Question 90

Question
Why are regular foams ineffective on polar solvents?
Answer
  • The foam mixes into the solvent
  • The solvent has too high a vapor pressure
  • The solvent floats on the foam
  • The solvent floats on the foam solution
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