Question 1
Question
Motion of condylar joint and example
Answer
-
uniaxial and femorotibial joint
-
uniaxial and elbow joint
-
biaxial and elbow joint
-
multiaxial and shoulder/hip joint
-
multiaxial and stifle joint
Question 2
Answer
-
1. compact bone 2. periosteum 3. fibrous layer 4. synovial membrane 5. articular cartilage 6. meniscus 7. joint cavity
-
1. compact bone 2. periosteum 3. meniscus 4. synovial membrane 5. articular cartilage 6. fibrous layer 7. joint cavity
-
1. compact bone 2. periosteum 3. fibrous layer 4. joint cavity 5. articular cartilage 6. meniscus 7. Synovial membrane
-
1. compact bone 2. periosteum 3. fibrous layer 4. synovial membrane 5. meniscus 6. articular cartilage 7. joint cavity
-
1. compact bone 2. periosteum 3. fibrous layer 4. plasma membrane 5. articular cartilage 6. meniscus 7. joint cavity
Question 3
Question
The mature neutrophil in mammalian blood smear can be distinguished from other cells by the presence of at least one very distinctive feature unique to this cell type. Which one of the following features best fits that description?
Answer
-
Its relatively small cell size
-
The presence of most lobulated nucleus
-
The presence of granules in its cytoplasm.
-
The absence of granules in its cytoplasm.
-
The eccentric location of the nucleus within the cell.
Question 4
Question
The mature erythrocyte in a mammalian blood smear can be easily distinguished from all other cells by the presence of one of the most distinctive features unique to this cell type. Which one of the following features best fits this description?
Answer
-
The absence of a nucleus.
-
The presence of a lobulated nucleus
-
Basophilic staining
-
The presence of granules.
-
By very small numbers of this cell type in the blood smear
Question 5
Question
Which one of the following five histological features best characterizes the loose connective tissue?
Answer
-
Lack of much ground substance
-
Abundance of collagen fibres
-
Abundance of ground substance
-
Abundance of elastic fibres
-
Abundance of reticular fibres
Question 6
Question
Which one of the following five features best characterizes the stratified squamous epithelium?
Answer
-
Cells in all layers are squamous in shape and size.
-
Only cells in deeper layers are squamous in shape and size.
-
Cells in basal layers are cuboidal.
-
Only cells in superficial layers are squamous in shape and size.
-
Cells in basal layers are columnar.
Question 7
Question
Some animals in a herd of cattle may suffer from myophosphorylase deficiency. Which of the following five laboratory tests would best confirm your diagnosis?
Answer
-
histochemical test myophosphorylase activity
-
Haematoxylin & Eosin stain
-
Electron microscopic analysis
-
in situ hybridisation for myophosphorylase enzyme
-
immunohistochemical test for myophosphorylase protein
Question 8
Question
Which of the following correctly explains the mechanism by which a change in intracellular calcium concentration enables muscle contraction in skeletal muscle?
Answer
-
Calcium enters the fibre via T tubules and binds to troponin C
-
Calcium released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum induces a conformational change in the tropomyosin-troponin complex
-
Calcium activates the ATPase enzyme on the myosin head
-
Calcium is taken up into the sarcoplasmic reticulum by an ATPase pump and then binds to the ryanodine receptor which activates actin
-
Cell membrane depolarisation activates a sodium –calcium exchanger which induces the power stroke by enhancing metabolism of ADP
Question 9
Question
Which of the following is a correct definition of a motor unit?
Answer
-
A motor neurone and the muscle fibres it innervates
-
All muscle fibres of the same fibre type
-
Muscle fibres within a single fascicle
-
A sarcomere
-
A single muscle fibre
Question 10
Question
Which of the following statements below concerning these two muscles is correct, assuming they are both of equal volume ?
Answer
-
Muscle A contracts at a slower rate than muscle B
-
Muscle B can generate a higher amount of force than muscle A.
-
Muscle A can generate a higher amount of force than muscle B.
-
Muscles such as A tend to be associated with long elastic energy storing tendons
-
Muscle B is more powerful than muscle A
Question 11
Question
Complete the following sentence with the best match from below. “The mechanism by which horses protract their limbs…..”
Answer
-
Involves the brachiocephalicus muscle
-
Involves muscles that can contract to produce high amounts of muscle power
-
Uses elastic energy storage during stance in order to increase the shortening rate of the muscle- tendon unit during swing
-
Uses elastic energy storage to ensure limb protraction does not require large amounts of energy
-
Differs from that of other fast cursors
Question 12
Question
The fascicles that form the hierarchical structure of tendon and ligaments are composed mainly of
Answer
-
Endotenon
-
Proteoglycans
-
Collagen type I
-
Crimp pattern
-
Collagen type III
Question 13
Question
The graph below shows a typical stress-strain relationship for a tendon loaded to failure. The area under the curve (shown by vertical lines) represents
Question 14
Question
In which layer of the epidermis are melanocyte cell bodies usually present in pigmented skin?
Answer
-
S. corneum
-
s. basale
-
S. lucidum
-
s. granulosum
-
s. spinosum
Question 15
Question
Which statement best describes the sebaceous gland?
Answer
-
Cells exhibit holocrine secretion and gland opens on to hair follicle
-
Cells exhibit merocrine secretion and gland opens on to skin surface
-
Cells exhibit apocrine secretion and gland opens on to skin surface
-
Cells exhibit merocrine secretion and gland opens on to hair follicle
-
Cells exhibit holocrine excretion and gland opens on to skin surface
Question 16
Question
Which of the following best describes changes in chondrocyte behaviour during the endochondral ossification process?
Answer
-
Resting, maturation, proliferation, hypertrophy and death
-
Resting, proliferation, maturation, hypertrophy and death
-
Resting, hypertrophy, proliferation, maturation and death
-
Resting, proliferation, hypertrophy, maturation and death
-
Resting, maturation, hypertrophy, proliferation and death
Question 17
Question
Which of the following best describes the relative abundance of these components in fresh articular cartilage?
Answer
-
Water > type II collagen > proteoglycan > hyaluronan
-
Water > proteoglycan > type II collagen > hyaluronan
-
Type II collagen > water > proteoglycan > hyaluronan
-
Proteoglycan > water > type II collagen > hyaluronan
-
Hyaluronan > water > proteoglycan > type II collagen
Question 18
Question
The predominant collagen fibre type in hyaline cartilage and bone are, respectively:
Answer
-
III and II
-
II and III
-
I and II
-
II and I
Question 19
Question
Which component of hyaline cartilage is responsible for retaining the large quantities of water?
Water
Collagens
Proteoglycans
Chondrocytes
Other proteins
Answer
-
Collagen
-
Chondrocytes
-
Proteoglycan
-
Other
-
None of the above
Question 20
Answer
-
has the capacity of self – replication by mitotic cell division
-
has Nissl substance distributed uniformly throughout the cell body
-
always presents multiple dendrites, which are of a branched pattern
-
always presents one single axone, which is branched in tree-like fashion termination
-
has a single axone process which may measure up to a metre or more in length
Question 21
Question
Which of the following are not correctly paired in terms of structure and function?
Answer
-
Neurilemmal cell/myelination of axone processes in peripheral nervous system
-
Astrocyte/blood-brain barrier
-
Satellite cell/lining of cavities (ventricles) of brain
-
Oligodendrocyte/myelination of axone processes in central nervous system
-
Microglia/phagocytosis
Question 22
Answer
-
occurs between one neurone and another neurone or multiple neurones and always results in excitation of these
-
involves a synaptic delay of approximately 0.5 – 1.0 milliseconds
-
occurs between one neurone and muscle tissue and can only result in excitation of the muscle tissue
-
is always mediated by acetylcholine
-
involves a partial fusion of cell membranes
Question 23
Answer
-
can occur in CNS or PNS
-
is always a collection of cell bodies of pseudounipolar neurones
-
is always a collection of cell bodies of sensory (afferent) neurones
-
is always a site of synapse
-
may be large enough to see at naked-eye level
Question 24
Question
The navicular bone:
Answer
-
is otherwise termed the proximal sesamoid bone
-
lies within the deep digital flexor tendon
-
articulates with both the middle and distal phalanges at the distal interphalangeal joint
-
is palpable at the bulbs of the heel
-
is attached proximally to the distal divisions of the suspensory ligament
Question 25
Question
A ”low palmar digital nerve block” in the forelimb:
Answer
-
blocks nerve fibres derived from only the median nerve.
-
desensitises ALL structures within the hoof
-
is performed midway between the fetlock joint and the coronary band
-
involves blocking the medial and lateral palmar digital nerves
-
is a “4 point” block
Question 26
Question
Coactivation is the stimulation of lower motoneurons by the upper motor neurons resulting into.
Answer
-
Activation of gamma motoneurons to extrafusal fibres
-
Activation of alpha motoneurons to intrafusal fibres
-
Activation of both alpha and gamma motoneurons to extrafusal fibres and intrafusal fibres respectively.
-
Activation on gamma motoneurons causing the muscle spindles to relax.
Question 27
Question
In crossed-extensor reflex sensory inputs are relayed to the spinal cord and to the interneurons. The interneurons respond by sending inhibitory and facilitatory motor response:
Answer
-
causing the extensor muscles in the affected limb to relax and flexor muscles to contract while both extensor and flexor muscles in the contralateral side relax.
-
causing the extensor muscles in the affected limb (ispilateral) to relax and flexor muscles to contract while extensor muscles in contralateral side relax and flexor muscles contract.
-
causing the extensor muscles in the affected limb to relax and flexor muscles to contract while both extensor and flexor muscles in the contralateral side to contract.
-
causing the extensor muscles in the affected limb (ispilateral) to relax and flexor muscles to contract while extensor muscles in contralateral side contract and flexor muscles to relax.
Question 28
Question
Motion of hinge joint and example
Answer
-
multiaxial and intercarpal joint
-
uniaxial and femorotibial joint
-
multtaxial and shoulder joint
-
uniaxial and elbow joint
Question 29
Question
Motion of ball and socket joint and example
Answer
-
uniaxial and elbow joint
-
uniaxial and femorotibial joint
-
multiaxial and shoulder/hip joint
-
biaxial and radiocarpal joint
Question 30
Question
Motion of plane joint and example
Answer
-
biaxial and radiocarpal joint
-
multiaxial and intercarpal joint
-
uniaxial and atlantoaxial joint
-
multiaxial and shoulder/hip joint
Question 31
Question
Motion of elipsoidal joint and example
Answer
-
uniaxial and atlantoaxial joint
-
biaxial and distal interphalangeal joint
-
multiaxial and intercarpal joint
-
biaxial and radiocarpal joint
Question 32
Question
Motion of pivot joint and example
Answer
-
biaxial and distal interphalangeal joint
-
biaxial and radiocarpal joint
-
uniaxial and atlantoaxial joint
-
multiaxial and intercarpal joint
Question 33
Question
Motion of saddle joint and example
Answer
-
biaxial and distal interphalangeal joint
-
multiaxial and intercarpal joint
-
biaxial and radiocarpal joint
-
uniaxial and femorotibial joint
Question 34
Question
Define the joint cavity structure
Answer
-
A plate of fibrocartilage
-
space unique to synovial joint
-
inner lining of fibrous layer
-
A structure found in only elastic cartilage
-
A structure found in only friborus cartilage
Question 35
Question
The synovial membrane is highly vascularised
Question 36
Question
What is the meniscus
Question 37
Question
What does the meniscus partially or fully divide
Question 38
Question
What is the fibrous layer in joints
Question 39
Question
What is the periosteum structurally?
Answer
-
form of hyaline cartilage
-
a segment of primary osteon
-
the extracellular matrix of bone
-
fibrous covering around bone
Question 40
Question
What best describes the function of the periosteum?
Answer
-
Articulation surface between joints
-
Bone growth, repair, nutrition, ligament/tendon attachment
-
a structure to allow endochondral ossification
-
a reservoir for osteoblast cells
Question 41
Question
What is the major constituent of tendon?
Answer
-
water
-
type 2 collagen
-
type 1 collagen
-
proteoglycans
-
hyaluronic acid
Question 42
Question
The types of cartilaginous joints
Answer
-
synchondrosis and symphysis
-
sutures, syndesmoses and gomphosis
-
sutures, syndesmoses, symphysis and gomphosis
-
symphysis and syndesmoses
-
synchondrosis and gomphosis
Question 43
Question
Which one of these is not typically present in synovial fluid?
Question 44
Question
The types of dense fibrous joints
Answer
-
synchondrosis and symphysis
-
sutures, syndesmoses and gomphosis
-
sutures and synchondrosis
-
Gomphosis, synchondrosis and symphysis
-
Gomphosis, synchondrosis , syndesmoses and symphysis
Question 45
Question
What cells produce synovial fluid
Answer
-
type A fibroblasts
-
chondrocytes
-
type B fibroblasts
-
osteoblasts
-
erythrocytes
Question 46
Question
How many chondrocytes are found in lacunae
Answer
-
1
-
5
-
2-4 (usually in pairs)
-
6
-
none
Question 47
Question
Define Wolff's law
Question 48
Question
Describe remodelling
Answer
-
bone resorption by osteoclasts followed by deposition of osteoid by osteoblasts
-
only osteoblast depositon
-
only osteoclast resorption
-
bone resorption by osteoblasts followed by deposition of osteoid by osteoclasts
Question 49
Question
Describe modelling
Answer
-
the degradation of bone
-
a process to arrange collagen firbres
-
the growth of bone and change in bone shape due to bone deposition and or resporption
-
osteoblast and osteoclast activity to repair fatigue damage but no change in bone shape
Question 50
Question
What does intramembranous ossification form
Answer
-
flat bones and skulls
-
bones with articulations
-
cartilage
-
mesenchyme
Question 51
Question
what best describes the process of intramembranous ossification
Answer
-
direct replacement of mesenchyme with bone
-
the formation of new haversion systems containing blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves
-
the generation of bone by osteoblast cells
-
only occurs to repair fatigue damage
Question 52
Question
What do primary and secondary osteons form
Answer
-
new haversion systems containing blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves
-
bone
-
cartilage
-
blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves
-
articulations
Question 53
Question
what cells are involved in primary osteons
Question 54
Question
where does primary osteons form
Answer
-
surface of bone generating smooth channels
-
fibrocartilage
-
pre-existing bone from inside
-
surface of hyaline cartilage
Question 55
Question
What cells are involved in secondary osteons
Question 56
Question
where does secondary osteons take place
Question 57
Question
What shape are osteoblasts and where are they present
Answer
-
simple cells with bone extracellular matrix
-
multinuclear cells on surface of bone
-
squamous cells on surface of bone
-
cuboidal cells on the surface of bone
Question 58
Question
Function of osteoblasts
Answer
-
secrete osteoid and signal osteoclasts for resorption/secretion balance
-
resorb bone matrix by secreting HCl and proteases
-
cell body in lacunae which detect microdamage and attract osteoclasts
Question 59
Question
Shape of osteoclasts and where they are present
Answer
-
multinuclear cells on surface of bone
-
cuboidal cells on the surface of bone
-
simple cells within bone extracellular matrix
-
squamous cells on surface of bone
-
multinuclear cells bone extracellular matrix
Question 60
Question
Function of osteoclasts
Answer
-
secrete osteoid and signal osteoclasts for resorption/secretion balance
-
resorb bone matrix by secreting HCl and proteases
-
cell body in lacunae which detect microdamage and attract osteoclasts
Question 61
Question
Function of osteocytes
Answer
-
cell body in lacunae which detect microdamage and attract osteoclasts
-
resorb bone matrix by secreting HCl and proteases
-
secrete osteoid and signal osteoclasts for resorption/secretion balance
Question 62
Question
What best describe tendons functional organisation of collagen
Question 63
Question
Where are tenocytes located?
Question 64
Question
Collagen synthesis involves?
Answer
-
triple helix of polypeptide chains translated as procollagen and cleaved into collagen
-
double helix of polypeptide chains translated as procollagen and cleaved into collagen
-
triple helix of polypeptide chains translated as collagen
-
procollagen and glycosylated into collagen
Question 65
Question 66
Answer
-
work / time
-
force x distance
-
time x force
-
distance x work
Question 67
Question
What do short fibers at an angle increase
Question 68
Question
Best description for large moment arms
Question 69
Question
Best description for small moment arms
Question 70
Question
The name for muscle cells
Answer
-
muscle fibre
-
myofibrils
-
myofilaments
Question 71
Question
What process involves the formation of syncitical structure formed by union of several embyonic myoblast cells which fuse to form a multinuclear cells
Answer
-
Myogenesis
-
Muscle cell atrophy
-
Sarcomere increase
Question 72
Question
The properties of a cardiac cell
Answer
-
Uninucleated
-
Branched
-
Central nuclei
-
All of the answers
-
Striated
Question 73
Question
Which one of these properties would not be attributed to smooth muscle cells
Answer
-
Branched
-
Central nuclei
-
Uninucleated
-
Unicellular
Question 74
Question
Which one of these properties are not attributed to skeletal muscle cells
Answer
-
Striated
-
Multicellular
-
Nuclei at periphery
-
Central nuceli
-
Multinuclear
Question 75
Question
What is the excitatory neurotransmitter of skeletal muscle
Answer
-
acetylcholine
-
somatostatin
-
GABA
-
histamine
-
tryptamine
Question 76
Question
The muscle cells which are slow oxidative with low myosin ATPase activity, fatigue resistant, high oxidative ability and stain light
Answer
-
Type 1 muscle fibres
-
Type 2a muscle fibres
-
Type 2b muscle fibres
Question 77
Question
The muscle cells which have high myosin ATPase activity, high oxidative and glycolytic capacity
Answer
-
Type 2a muscle fibres
-
Type 1 muscle fibres
-
Type 2b muscle fibres
Question 78
Question
The muscle cells with high myosin ATPase activity, high glycolytic ability, fatigue easily and stain dark
Answer
-
Type 2b muscle fibres
-
Type 2a muscle fibres
-
Type 1 muscle fibres
Question 79
Question
Alpha dystroglycan and integrins are molecules involved with
Question 80
Question
The innervation ratio of muscles is best described as?
Answer
-
the number of muscle fibres innervated by a single motor unit
-
the contractile force generated from a singular molar of neurotransmitter
-
the concentration of neurotransmitter required for contraction
-
the total number of depolarization of a motor neuron to induce contraction of muscle fibres
Question 81
Question
In the sarcomere structure where are thick filaments PRIMARILY myosin found
Answer
-
A band
-
I band
-
H band
-
Z line
-
M line
Question 82
Question
In the sarcomere structure where are thin filaments primarily actin located
Answer
-
I band
-
A band
-
H band
-
Z line
-
M line
Question 83
Question
In the sarcomere structure where is ONLY myosin located
Answer
-
H band
-
A band
-
I band
-
Z line
-
M line
Question 84
Question
Where in the sarcomere is the end region containing alpha actinin
Answer
-
Z line
-
A band
-
H band
-
I band
-
M line
Question 85
Question
In the sacromere where are the protein filaments which anchor thick filaments during contraction?
Answer
-
M line
-
Z line
-
H band
-
I band
-
A band
Question 86
Question
Titin is the largest protein in the body.
What is its function in muscle contraction?
Answer
-
A molecular spring responsible for the passive elasticity of muscle
-
Responsible for anchoring thick filaments during muscle contraction
-
A catabolic enzyme responsible for muscle atrophy
-
A anabolic enzyme responsible for muscle hypertrophy
Question 87
Question
Which description best describes the sliding filament theory
Answer
-
shortening of sarcomeres towards origin, Z line distance reduces, strokes of myosin cross bridges pull the thin filament, A band remains the same and H band shortens
-
lengthening of sarcomeres towards origin, Z line distance reduces, strokes of myosin cross bridges pull the thin filament, A band remains the same and H band shortens
-
shortening of sarcomeres towards origin, Z line distance reduces, strokes of myosin cross bridges pull the thick filament, A band remains the same and H band shortens
Question 88
Question
What description best describes the cross bridge cycle?
Answer
-
without ATP the crossbridge is strongly bound to actin, the ATP binds to myosin and crossbridge detaches due to a conformational change, ATP hydrolysed to ADP, the ADP released causing power stroke to occur
-
with ATP the crossbridge is strongly bound to actin, the ATP disscoiates from myosin and crossbridge detaches due to a conformational change, ATP binds causing power stroke to occur
-
without ATP the crossbridge is strongly bound to actin, Calcium binds to myosin and crossbridge detaches due to a conformational change, ATP hydrolysed to ADP, the ADP released causing power stroke to occur
Question 89
Question
What is the Ca2+ concentration required for muscle contraction?
Answer
-
10-6 M
-
10-9 M
-
10-7 M
-
10-6 mM
Question 90
Question
Where is Ca2+ stored for muscle contraction
Answer
-
sarcoplasmic reticulum
-
sarcoplasma
-
T tubules
-
mitochondria
-
lysosomes
Question 91
Question
DHP receptors changing leading to opening of Ryanodine receptors is due to what?
Answer
-
T tubules conducting an action potential affects what receptors
-
Calcium entering cytoplasm from sarcoplasmic reticulum
-
Movement of the tropomyosin complex
-
Osteoblast activity
Question 92
Question
Ca2+ released into sarcoplasm occurs by...? (pick the most direct cause)
Answer
-
The opening of Ryanodine receptors causes what
-
T tubules conducting action potentials
-
tropomyosin complex movement
-
Satellite cells fusing into muscle fibers
Question 93
Question
What is the effect of Ca2+ in muscle?
Answer
-
binding to troponin C causing tropomyosin complex to move and expose binding sites on actin
-
T tubules conducting action potentials
-
muscle relaxation
-
DHP receptors change which opens Ryanodine receptors
Question 94
Question
What is osteoporosis?
Answer
-
Bones becoming brittle and fragile from loss of tissue due to hormonal changes and deficiency of Ca and Vit D
-
bone becomes dense and susceptible to fracture due to failure in osteoclasts to resorb bone
-
Monotonic failure of bone
-
process of fatigue repair in bone
Question 95
Question
Genetic mutation in CA2 gene can cause
Answer
-
osteopetrosis
-
osteoporosis
-
muscle atrophy
-
muscle dysplasia
Question 96
Question
Describe osteopetrosis
Answer
-
bone becomes dense and susceptible to fracture due to failure in osteoclasts to resorb bone
-
bones becoming brittle and fragile from loss of tissue due to hormonal changes and deficiency of Ca and Vit D
-
Montonic failure of bone
-
Muscle dysplasia
Question 97
Question
Which muscle fibers will undergo hypertrophy twice as fast
Question 98
Question
Muscle size increase by increase of what?
Answer
-
the number of sarcomeres
-
the number of muscle fibers
-
the number of satellite cells
-
increase in the rate of myogenesis
Question 99
Question
From left to right label the neuron cell type
Answer
-
multipolar, bipolar, pseudo unipolar
-
bipolar, multipolar, pseudo unipolar
-
pseudo unipolar, bipolar, multipolar
-
multipolar, pseudo unipolar, bipolar
Question 100
Question
The Na/K pump pumps how many Na+ out and K+in
Answer
-
3 Na+ out 2 K+ in
-
2 Na+ out 3 K+ in
-
3 Na+ out 3 K+ in
-
3 Na+ out 1 K+ in
Question 101
Question
The resting membrane potential value
Question 102
Question
Threshold of depolarisation for Na+ channels to open
Question 103
Question
Value of depolarisation for K+ channels to open and cause repolarisation
Question 104
Question
How is hyperpolarisaion of -75mV commonly known as the refractory period restored the the resting membrane potential
Question 105
Question
The cells responsible for myelination in the peripheral nervous system
Answer
-
Schwann cells
-
Oligodendrocytes
-
Satellite cells
-
Neuroglia
Question 106
Question
The cells responsible for myelination in the central nervous system
Answer
-
Oligodendrocytes
-
Schwann cells
-
Neuroglial cells
-
Satellite cells
Question 107
Question
Action potentials only occurring at the nodes of ranvier is known as?
Answer
-
Saltatory conduction
-
Saltatory convection
-
Salivatory conduction
-
Neurogenic conduction
Question 108
Question
Which one of these is NOT involved with neurotransmitter release?
Answer
-
action potentials reaches axon terminal, voltage gated Ca2+ channels open
-
Ca2+ binds to sensor proteins in cytoplasm,
-
Ca2+ protein complex stimulates docking, fusion and exocytosis of neurotransmitter
-
Lysomome degradation of neurotransmitter granules
Question 109
Question
The effects of excitatory neurotransmitters
Question 110
Question
The effects of inhibitory neurotransmitters
Answer
-
Activation of Na/K pump
-
Cl- channels opens and inhibit postsynaptic potential
-
Na+ channels open and depolarise cell
-
Depolarization of cell membrane
Question 111
Question
Alpha motor neurons stimulate what
Answer
-
extrafusal fibers the normal muscle fibers
-
intrafusal fibres the muscle spindles
-
intrafusal fibers the normal muscle fibers
-
xtrafusal fibers the muscle spindles
Question 112
Question
Gamma motor neurons stimulate what
Answer
-
intrafusal fibers the muscle spindles
-
extrafusal fibers the normal muscle fibers
-
extrafusal fibers the muscle spindles
-
intrafusal fibers the normal muscle fibers
Question 113
Question
What do muscle spindles consist of
Answer
-
intrafusal fibres
-
nuclear bag
-
nuclear chain
-
All of the answers
Question 114
Question
Primary annulospiral and secondary flower spray sensory neurons serve what?
Answer
-
the intrafusal fibers
-
the extrfusal fibers
-
interneurons
-
Bipolar neurons
Question 115
Question
What do primary annulospiral sensory neurons respond to and where are they located
Answer
-
respond to onset of strecth and are located centrally
-
respond to onset of strecth and are located peripherally
-
respond to onset of flexion and are located centrally
-
respond to onset of pain and are located centrally
Question 116
Question
What do secondary flower spray sensory neurons respond to and where are they located
Answer
-
respond to tonic stretch and are located at the poles
-
respond to tonic stretch and are located at centrally
-
respond to tonic stretch and are located at the peripherally
-
respond to pain and are located at the poles
Question 117
Question
Which one of these describes the golgi tendon reflex?
Answer
-
disynaptic reflex which inhibits alpha motor neurons
-
monosynaptic reflex which stimulates alpha motor neurons
-
monosynaptic reflex which stimulates gamma motor neurons
-
disynaptic reflex which inhibits gamma motor neurons
Question 118
Question
Which one of these describes the muscle spindle reflex?
Answer
-
monosynaptic reflex which stimulates alpha motor neurons
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disynaptic reflex which inhibits alpha motor neurons
-
disynaptic reflex which inhibits gamma motor neurons
-
monosynaptic reflex which stimulates gamma motor neurons
Question 119
Question
Which structure is NOT part of the Triosseal canal?
Answer
-
scapula
-
coracoid
-
clavicle
-
humerus
Question 120
Question
Hollow bones are known as what
Answer
-
Trabecular bone
-
pneumatised bone
-
osteoporotic bone
-
osteopetrotic bone