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PPL 2

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Quiz on PPL 2, created by mehdi mohaqeq on 05/05/2017.
mehdi mohaqeq
Quiz by mehdi mohaqeq, updated more than 1 year ago
mehdi mohaqeq
Created by mehdi mohaqeq over 7 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
The process of converting the……............. in fuel into ……………. Takes place in the cylinder of reciprocating engine.
Answer
  • Mechanical energy – chemical energy.
  • Chemical energy – mechanical energy.
  • Thermal energy – chemical energy.
  • Kinetic energy – potential energy.

Question 2

Question
An air/fuel ratio of 18:1 would be considered as:
Answer
  • Lean
  • Rich
  • Chemically correct.
  • Critically solvent.

Question 3

Question
For internal cooling, reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:
Answer
  • A rich fuel/air mixture.
  • The circulation of lubricating oil.
  • A properly functioning thermostat.
  • A lean fuel/air mixture.

Question 4

Question
The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in the order of their occurrence:
Answer
  • Intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust.
  • Intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust.
  • Intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust.
  • Intake, ignition, power, compression, exhaust.

Question 5

Question
One of the advantages of VOR against NDB is:
Answer
  • Interference - free
  • more distance coverage
  • line of sight
  • B & C are correct

Question 6

Question
Depending on altitude and line of sight, you can use DME facility:
Answer
  • up to 130 NM
  • up to 45 NM
  • up to 199 NM
  • up to 100 NM

Question 7

Question
The magnetic heading is 350° and the relative bearing to a radio beacon is 240° what would be the magnetic bearing TO that radio beacon?
Answer
  • 050 °
  • 230 °
  • 295 °
  • 320 °

Question 8

Question
For minimizing the night effect you should:
Answer
  • Use strong power station
  • Select NDBs with frequency less than 350 MHz.
  • Fly at higher altitude.
  • Fly at lower altitude.

Question 9

Question
Each dot on the scale of CDI deviation represents:
Answer
  • 1 degree off course
  • 2 degree off course
  • 3 degree off course
  • 4 degree off course

Question 10

Question
When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver how many degrees should the OBS be rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side?
Answer
  • 5-10
  • 10-12
  • 15-18
  • 18-20

Question 11

Question
Below 18,000 ft AGL, what is the maximum reception distance of HVOR?
Answer
  • 25 NM
  • 40 NM
  • 130 NM
  • 100 NM

Question 12

Question
Dual VORs (units independent of each other except the antenna) are installed in an aircraft. What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indications when one VOR receiver is checked against the other?
Answer
  • Four degrees in flight and six degrees on the ground
  • Four degrees on the ground and in flight
  • Six degrees in flight and on the ground
  • Six degrees in flight and four degrees on the ground

Question 13

Question
The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the:
Answer
  • Thrust is acting in different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.
  • Vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.
  • Use of aileron has increased the drag.
  • To stop the overbanking tendency as the result of turning.

Question 14

Question
What is a purpose of flight spoilers?
Answer
  • Increase the camber of the wing.
  • Reduce speed by increasing drag.
  • Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.
  • Increase lift and drag simultaneously.

Question 15

Question
An airplane said to be inherently stable will:
Answer
  • Not spin.
  • Be difficult to stall.
  • Require less effort to control.
  • Not overbanking tendency during steep turns.

Question 16

Question
The capability of an airplane to respond to the pilot's inputs, especially with regard to flight path and attitude, is:
Answer
  • Stability
  • Controllability
  • Maneuverability
  • None of above.

Question 17

Question
All stalls in airplane are caused by:
Answer
  • A loss of airspeed.
  • Exceeding the critical angle of pitch.
  • Exceeding the critical angle of attack.
  • Misuse of the elevators.

Question 18

Question
If two aircraft are turning at the same angle of bank the slower aircraft:
Answer
  • Has a greater turning radius and greater rate of turn.
  • Has a smaller turning radius and smaller rate of turn.
  • Has a smaller turning radius and greater rate of turn.
  • Has a greater turning radius and smaller rate of turn.

Question 19

Question
Which of the following is correct?
Answer
  • A wing always stalls at the same angle of attack.
  • A wing may stalls in different attitudes.
  • A wing can stalls at different airspeeds.
  • All answers are correct.

Question 20

Question
An accumulation of frost on the airplane wings will result in:
Answer
  • An increase in lift and drag.
  • A decrease in lift and increase in drag.
  • An increase in lift and a decrease drag.
  • A decrease in lift and drag.

Question 21

Question
Which of the following components is most important in determining longitudinal static stability?
Answer
  • Fuselage
  • Wings
  • Engines
  • Horizontal tailplane.

Question 22

Question
When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight from takeoff position to fully down position, one will experience:
Answer
  • A large increase in lift and a small increase in drag.
  • A large increase in lift and a large increase in drag.
  • A small increase in lift and a small increase in drag.
  • A small increase in lift and a large increase in drag.

Question 23

Question
In a level banked turn, the stalling speed will:
Answer
  • Decrease
  • Increase
  • Remain the same.
  • Vary inversely with wing loading.

Question 24

Question
The purpose of streamlining is:
Answer
  • To reduce form drag.
  • To reduce induced drag.
  • To increase lift.
  • To reduce skin friction drag.

Question 25

Question
Which location on aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag?
Answer
  • Wing root junction.
  • Engine cowling.
  • Wingtip
  • Landing gear.

Question 26

Question
If pressure is kept constant and temperature increases, the density will:
Answer
  • Increases
  • Decreases
  • Remains constant.
  • Has no effect.

Question 27

Question
A wing has a mean chord of 6 meters and a span of 30 meters. The aspect ratio is: .
Answer
  • 5 to 1.
  • 30 to 1.
  • 180 to 1.
  • 6 to 1.

Question 28

Question
Every physical process of weather is the result of:
Answer
  • The movement of air
  • A pressure differential
  • A heat exchange
  • Moisture

Question 29

Question
Where “St. Elmo’s fire” is usually encountered?
Answer
  • In dry air
  • While penetrating a warm front
  • Along coastal areas in clean air
  • In the vicinity of thunderstorms while in precipitation

Question 30

Question
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?
Answer
  • Cloud coverage increases
  • Precipitation increases
  • Abrupt temperature change
  • Change in wind direction

Question 31

Question
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
Answer
  • A warm moist air mass on the windward side of mountains
  • An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter
  • A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea
  • Warm moist air setting over a warmer surface under no wind conditions

Question 32

Question
The cloud type associated with the most severe turbulence is:
Answer
  • Cumulus
  • Cumulonimbus
  • Altocumulus
  • Standing lenticular altocumulus

Question 33

Question
A narrow band of non-frontal thunderstorms that often develops ahead of a fast-moving cold front is known as
Answer
  • Squall line
  • An occluded front
  • A steady state thunderstorm
  • Convective current

Question 34

Question
In mountain wave turbulence may be marked by …………… clouds:
Answer
  • Rotor cloud
  • Altocumulus standing lenticular
  • Towering cumulus
  • Cap cloud

Question 35

Question
If the temperature is 55°F and slowly decreasing and the dew point is 51°F what type of weather should you expect?
Answer
  • Frost
  • Rain showers
  • Thunderstorms
  • Fog or low clouds

Question 36

Question
Which of the following clouds produces severe turbulence?
Answer
  • CB
  • TCU
  • Rotor
  • Roll cloud

Question 37

Question
Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure?
Answer
  • It is higher in winter than in summer.
  • It decreases with height.
  • It is higher at night than during the day.
  • It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 Hpa per 8 m.

Question 38

Question
The Payload is defined as:
Answer
  • The Total Mass of flight crew, passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel.
  • The Total Mass of crew and passengers excluding any baggage or cargo.
  • The Total Mass of passengers, baggage and cargo.
  • The Total Mass of passengers, baggage, cargo and usable fuel.

Question 39

Question
Define the Useful Load:
Answer
  • Pay Load plus basic empty weight.
  • Pay Load plus Usable Fuel.
  • Basic empty weight plus Usable Fuel Load.
  • That part of the pay Load which generates revenue.

Question 40

Question
What is the new CG location, if 172 pounds of weight are removed from St. 198"? Airplane gross weight 4200 lbs CG Prior to shift st. 95"
Answer
  • 90.6"
  • 100.0"
  • 193.8"
  • 93.8"

Question 41

Question
What load must be shifted from station 160.0" to station 70.0" to shift CG 0.5 inch forward? Total weight 7400 lbs CG location station 89.0"
Answer
  • 41.1 pounds
  • 52.1 pounds
  • 97.4 pounds
  • 61.1 pounds

Question 42

Question
Takeoff Mass is described as:
Answer
  • The Takeoff Mass subject to departure airfield limitations.
  • The mass of an aeroplane including everything and everyone contained within it at the start of the takeoff run.
  • Basic empty weight & fuel but without Payload.
  • The lowest of performance limited and structural limited TOW.

Question 43

Question
An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
Answer
  • 15.7 gallons
  • 16.2 gallons
  • 17.1 gallons
  • 18.4 gallons

Question 44

Question
The value of variation:
Answer
  • Is zero at the mid-latitude.
  • Has a maximum value of 180°.
  • Has a maximum value of 45°E or 45°W.
  • Cannot exceed 90°.

Question 45

Question
An Isogonic is a line:
Answer
  • Running through all positions having the same magnetic Inclination.
  • Running through all positions having the same magnetic longitude.
  • On the surface of the Earth, running through all positions having the same magnetic latitude.
  • Running through all positions having the same variation.

Question 46

Question
Precession in a gyroscope is:
Answer
  • The tendency it has to remain in its plane of rotation.
  • A caging device.
  • The angular limits to which the gimbals may travel before the gyro topples and the indication becomes useless.
  • The reaction at 90° in direction of rotation caused by a applied force to the spinning wheel.

Question 47

Question
With constant weight and configuration and regardless of an altitude an aircraft always takes off at the same:
Answer
  • Indicated airspeed.
  • Ground speed
  • True airspeed.
  • Equivalent airspeed

Question 48

Question
If the static intakes are completely clogged up by ice during a climb the VSI shows:
Answer
  • A descent if the outside static pressure is less than the pressure in the VSI gauge.
  • Zero
  • A constant rate of climb, even if the aircraft is leveling out.
  • An increasing rate of climb if the ambient static pressure decreases.

Question 49

Question
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system becomes blocked, the indicated airspeed will generally:
Answer
  • Vary excessively during level flight when the actual airspeed is varied.
  • Decrease during climbs.
  • Not change during level flight
  • Increase during descends.

Question 50

Question
Compass acceleration and deceleration error is maximum at:
Answer
  • North and south.
  • East and west.
  • North and we
  • East and south.

Question 51

Question
If a suction gage indicates the pressure to be lower than the minimum limit, which of these air operated instruments would be?
Answer
  • Vertical velocity indicator.
  • Airspeed indicator.
  • Pressure altimeter.
  • Attitude indicator.

Question 52

Question
Slip is ........
Answer
  • Rate of turn is too slow for bank angle
  • Rate of turn is too great for bank angle
  • Ball is in opposite direction of turn
  • B & C are correct

Question 53

Question
The acceptable altimeter error must be within range of ……. To check altimeter before flight:
Answer
  • ± 75m
  • ±75 ft
  • ±25 m
  • ±25 ft

Question 54

Question
What is the immediate indication of VVI about change in pressure?
Answer
  • Rate
  • Trend
  • Trend after 6 to 9 sec
  • RPM

Question 55

Question
What would be the TAS when altitude increase or temperature increase?
Answer
  • Decrease
  • ncrease
  • Decrease first then increase
  • Remain constant

Question 56

Question
What is the time for heading indicator reset against compass during straight and level unaccelerated flight?
Answer
  • Every 20 minutes.
  • Every 15 minutes
  • Every 10 minutes.
  • Reset is not required in this case.

Question 57

Question
Which body system is responsible for distributing oxygen around the body?
Answer
  • The Nervous System.
  • The Circulatory System.
  • The Respiratory System.
  • The Oxidation System.

Question 58

Question
One of the most common types of spatial disorientation occurs when a rapid correction as made to a bank which may cause to reenter to the original attitude, is:
Answer
  • Coriolis illusion.
  • Graveyard spiral.
  • Leans
  • Somatogravic illusion.

Question 59

Question
Whenever you are replenishing an aircraft’s oxygen system, always use …………………….. oxygen.
Answer
  • Environmental
  • Medical breathing.
  • Aviator's breathing.
  • All answers are correct.

Question 60

Question
When making an approach to a narrower than usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach:
Answer
  • Altitude may be higher than it appears.
  • Altitude may be lower than it appears.
  • May result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
  • May result in shallower approach and long landing.

Question 61

Question
Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of:
Answer
  • Pitching up.
  • Pitching down.
  • Leveling off.
  • Turning

Question 62

Question
Breathing large amounts of carbon monoxide can result in:
Answer
  • A warm sensation.
  • Loss of muscle power.
  • An increased sense of well-being.
  • Tightness across the forehead and neck.

Question 63

Question
When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is the:
Answer
  • Proprioceptive sensitivity.
  • Cochlea
  • Sense of balance.
  • Vision

Question 64

Question
Anxiety and fear can cause:
Answer
  • Spatial disorientation
  • Hyperventilation
  • Hypoxia
  • Hypoglycemia

Question 65

Question
Given: Pressure Altitude: 28,000 ft Outside Air Temperature: -30°C Calibrated Altitude: 27,800 ft Find True Altitude.
Answer
  • 29,800 ft
  • 29,000 ft
  • 27,800 ft
  • 27,000 ft

Question 66

Question
Given: True Track: 352° Variation: 11° W Deviation: -5° Drift: 10° R What is the compass heading?
Answer
  • 078°
  • 346°
  • 358°
  • 025°

Question 67

Question
During a night flight, you see a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead, the other aircraft is:
Answer
  • Crossing from right to left.
  • Crossing from left to right.
  • Approaching head on.
  • Headed away from you.

Question 68

Question
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to:
Answer
  • Look to the side of the object and scan slowly.
  • Scan the visual field very rapidly.
  • Look to the side of the object and scan rapidly.
  • Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9- and 12-o’clock position.

Question 69

Question
Selection of mode C on the SSR provides ATC with information based on:
Answer
  • Aircraft height above the QFE.
  • Aircraft altitude as indicated in the captain’s altimeter.
  • Aircraft pressure altitude.
  • Aircraft position only.

Question 70

Question
A mode S transponder will:
Answer
  • Not respond to interrogations made on mode A.
  • Respond normally to mode A or C interrogations.
  • Respond to mode A interrogation but not mode C.
  • Respond to mode C interrogations but not mode A.

Question 71

Question
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-controlled airport?
Answer
  • Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
  • Make all turns to the left.
  • Comply with any ICAO traffic pattern established for the airport.
  • Make all turns to the right.

Question 72

Question
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity (Pilot Controlled Lighting System), the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it:
Answer
  • One time within four seconds.
  • Three times within three seconds.
  • Five times within five seconds.
  • Seven times within five seconds.

Question 73

Question
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
Answer
  • Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
  • Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
  • Denotes intersecting runways.
  • A & B are correct.

Question 74

Question
Taxiway markings and aircraft stand markings are:
Answer
  • White
  • Gray
  • Yellow
  • Red

Question 75

Question
The “stop way” is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of takeoff run available prepared as a suitable area where:
Answer
  • A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
  • A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
  • An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned takeoff.
  • An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.

Question 76

Question
What does the word “CANCEL” mean?
Answer
  • Wait and I will call you.
  • A change has been made to your last clearance.
  • Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
  • Consider that transmission as not sent.

Question 77

Question
You obtain a clearance to descend to an altitude of 2500 feet, the clearance should also include the following pressure setting or settings:
Answer
  • QFE
  • QNH
  • QFE or QNH
  • QNE

Question 78

Question
What does the phrase "BREAKBREAK" mean?
Answer
  • The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.
  • It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.
  • It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in a very busy environment.
  • My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.

Question 79

Question
A message preceded by the phrase "TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE RECEIVER FAILURE" shall be transmitted:
Answer
  • On the regional guard frequency.
  • On the frequency presently in use.
  • On the international emergency frequency.
  • On all available aeronautical stations.

Question 80

Question
Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot is performing a missed approach?
Answer
  • Pulling up.
  • Overshooting
  • Will make another approach.
  • Going around

Question 81

Question
Where the "SELCAL" should be submitted?
Answer
  • operational flight plan
  • operating manual
  • departure message
  • ATS flight plan

Question 82

Question
For which of the following phrases,"ROGER" is used?
Answer
  • READ BACK
  • AFFIRM
  • NEGATIVE
  • None

Question 83

Question
The standard of noise certification is contained in?
Answer
  • Annex 18
  • Annex 16 Vol I
  • Annex 16 Vol II
  • Annex 8

Question 84

Question
All aeroplane on all flights shall carry:
Answer
  • Interception procedures
  • Flight manual
  • Current suitable chart
  • All answers are correct

Question 85

Question
The instruments and equipment, including their installation in aeroplanes shall be approved or accepted by:
Answer
  • State of Operator
  • Operator
  • State
  • State of Registry

Question 86

Question
Who is responsible to approve and publish an Instrument approach procedure?
Answer
  • Operator
  • State of the operator
  • ATC
  • State of the aerodrome

Question 87

Question
If the incident occurs and necessitates to report by Pilot-in-command it shall be made normally within:
Answer
  • 10 days
  • 90 days
  • 1 month
  • 3 months

Question 88

Question
In a forecast what does the code "GR" stand for?
Answer
  • Severe icing
  • Thunderstorm in vicinity and light rain showers
  • Hail
  • Embedded thunderstorm with hail

Question 89

Question
What is the validity of TAF when it issues every 3 hours?
Answer
  • Less than 9 hours
  • Less than 12 hours
  • Less than 24 hours
  • Less than 30 hours

Question 90

Question
What does the code "VV002" in METAR mean?
Answer
  • Vertical visibility is 200 ft.
  • Vertical visibility is 200 m.
  • Vertical visibility is 20 ft.
  • Vertical visibility is 20 m.

Question 91

Question
What does the term METAR signify?
Answer
  • A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.
  • A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR.
  • A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly or hourly intervals.
  • A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report.

Question 92

Question
Anti-collision and navigation light shall be displayed on aircraft during:
Answer
  • Sunset to sunrise
  • Sunrise to sunset
  • Any other time prescribed by appropriate ATS authority
  • A and C are correct

Question 93

Question
Which signal may be initiated by, an intercepted aircraft which is in distress?
Answer
  • Irregular flashing landing lights
  • Irregular flashing navigation lights
  • Regular flashing all lights
  • Irregular flashing all available lights

Question 94

Question
When an aircraft flying on a route with magnetic track of 315 what shall be its assign flight level (non RVSM airspace)?
Answer
  • 310
  • 320
  • 330
  • 340

Question 95

Question
Which one is not correct?
Answer
  • An aircraft that is aware that another aircraft is approaching to land, shall give way to that aircraft.
  • An aircraft taxiing on maneuvering area of an aerodrome, shall give way to aircraft taking-off.
  • An aircraft in flight or operating on the ground shall give way to aircraft on final stage.
  • An aircraft with medium category shall give way to heavy category aircraft.

Question 96

Question
Who is the appropriate authority regarding flight over other than the high seas?
Answer
  • State of operator
  • State of registry
  • State of occurrence
  • State of territory being overflown

Question 97

Question
For which type of operation, the advisory service may be provided?
Answer
  • Controlled IFR
  • SVFR
  • CVFR
  • IFR

Question 98

Question
How does a decreased pressure altitude at an airport affect airplane performance?
Answer
  • Increased landing distance.
  • Increased takeoff distance required.
  • Decreased takeoff distance required.
  • Increased takeoff run.

Question 99

Question
For a piston-engine airplane at a constant altitude, angle of attack and configuration, an increased weight will require:
Answer
  • More power but less speed.
  • More power and the same speed.
  • More power and more speed.
  • The same power but more speed.

Question 100

Question
If tailwind is …… takeoff speed the takeoff distance will increase by …… .
Answer
  • 10%-19%
  • 14%-21%
  • 7%-19%
  • 10%-21%
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