10755546
Beschreibung
Quiz von Stewart Thompson, aktualisiert more than 1 year ago
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Erstellt von Stewart Thompson
vor etwa 7 Jahre
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Frage 1
Frage
What does TGA stand for?
Antworten
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Therapeutic goods association
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Therapeutic goods administration
-
Therapeutic goods analgesics
-
The Good administration
Frage 2
Frage
What is the TGA responsible for?
Antworten
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Evaluating, assessing and monitoring therapeutic goods in Australia
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Prescribing medications to patients
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Educating patients about the safety of drugs
-
Checking the validity of drug orders
Frage 3
Frage
Schedule 2 drugs are:
Antworten
-
Pharmacist only e.g. panadiene
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Controlled drugs e.g. morphine
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Pharmacy medicine e.g. paracetamol
-
Prescription only e.g. antibiotics
Frage 4
Frage
Schedule 4 drugs are:
Antworten
-
Pharmacist only e.g. panadiene
-
Prescription only e.g. antibiotics & hypertensive drugs
-
Controlled drugs e.g. morphine & endone
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Pharmacy medicine e.g. paracetamol & ibuprofen
Frage 5
Frage
What are some considerations involved with schedule 8 - controlled drugs? (2 answers)
Antworten
-
Can be administered by 1 RN
-
Are kept in an unlocked cupboard
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Administration needs 2 RNs
-
Need to be kept in a locked cupboard
Frage 6
Frage
Generally schedule 3,4 & 8 medication are not advertised in the popular media except inhaled corticosteroids, vaginal anti-infective agents and nicotine to treat smoking dependence.
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 7
Frage
What are the 6 rights of drug administration?
Antworten
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Right patient, right drug, right dose, right time, right route, right to refuse
-
Right patient, right drug, right time, right dose, right hand, right to restrain
-
Right colour, right flavour, right drug, right dose, right patient, right route
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Right patient, right drug, right dose, right time, right route
Frage 8
Frage
Which of the following are necessary for a medication order to be valid? (Pick 5 answers)
Antworten
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It needs to be dated
-
Is the drug name there?
-
Does NOT need to be legible
-
Signed by a nurse
-
Dose and unit of measurement need to be present
-
Route needs to be documented
-
Signed by a doctor, nurse practitioner or dentist
Frage 9
Frage
Which answer is not correct regarding roles and responsibilities of the healthcare team when administering drugs?
Antworten
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Doctor can diagnose and prescribe
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Nurse can Prescribe and dispense
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Nurse can assess, administer and evaluate
-
Pharmacist can advise and dispense
Frage 10
Frage
The generic name is also called the trade name, when drug companies market a drug they select a name and copyright it.
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 11
Frage
The Brand name is the official drug name, approved name given by the manufacturer and local authority.
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 12
Frage
Enteric coated preparations are not:
Antworten
-
designed so disintegration occurs in the intestines rather than the stomach
-
Abbreviated EC on the container
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to be crushed
Frage 13
Frage
Capsules can be either Hard gelatine capsules containing a drug as a solid, or soft gelatine capsules which can be opened and are useful for liquids drugs, or those that do not dissolve easily in water
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 14
Frage
What type of drug form is released slowly in the GIT and consists of layers of a drug enclosed in successive layers of inert coating?
Antworten
-
Controlled release
-
Capsules
-
enteric coated preparations
-
Sustained/slow release
Frage 15
Frage
what type of drug has a semi permeable membrane coating, and can end up in faeces as a "ghost tablet"
Antworten
-
Oral liquids
-
Controlled release tablets
-
topical preparations
-
Enteric coated preparations
Frage 16
Frage
A nicotine patch would be considered a(n)
Antworten
-
oral liquid
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Topical preparation
-
Capsule
-
Ointment
Frage 17
Frage
Linctus - is a syrup specially formulated for coughs
Elixers - is an alcoholic solution that is used when the required drug is water insoluble
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 18
Frage
Intradermal, subcutaneous, IM, IV, intraarterial & intrathecal are all what forms of administration?
Antworten
-
Enteral
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Parenteral
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Transdermal
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Gastro-intestinal
Frage 19
Frage
Pharmacodynamics is:
Antworten
-
What the body does to the drug
-
What the drug does to the body
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How the drug is altered as it travels through the body
Frage 20
Frage
Pharmacokinetics is:
Antworten
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What the drug does to the body
-
What the body does to the drug
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the integration at a molecular level - between the drug molecules and the target cell, receptor where it will stimulate or inhibit the natural chemicals of the body
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The drugs interaction with structural proteins
Frage 21
Frage
what is not 1 of the 4 aspects of pharmacokinetics:
Antworten
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Absorption - movement of drug molecules into the body from the site of administration
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Distribution - the drug enters the bloodstream, and travels to the site of action, will be improved if the drug binds to albumin + globulins in the blood.
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Disruption to the cellular membrane
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Metabolism - alters chemical properties of drugs making them less lipophilic (fat soluble) and more readily excreted
-
Excretion - Excreted from the system in various ways e.g. urine, saliva, sweat, tears, breathing
Frage 22
Frage
Factors affecting;
absorption - chemical nature of the drug, pH of the stomach, Surface area available for absorption & route/solubility of drug
Distribution - lipid solubility
Metabolism - Hepatic 1st pass effect (oral meds)
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 23
Frage
What is the term for the fraction of the drug available to the systemic circulation, and is measured on a scale of 0 - 1
(1=100%)
Antworten
-
Half life
-
Absorption percentage
-
Bioavailability
-
Hepatic first pass effect
Frage 24
Frage
Oral meds have a bioavailability of 1 or 100% and IV drugs have a bioavailability of <1
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 25
Frage
The following are listed in order of ________ to ________ regarding Rate of absorption
liquids
syrups
parenteral
suspensions
powders
capsules
tablets
coated tablets
enteric coated tablets
Antworten
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Fasted - Slowest
-
Slowest - Fasted
Frage 26
Frage
Where is the major site of metabolism?
Antworten
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Brain
-
Anus
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Spleen
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Liver
Frage 27
Frage
What is not efficient as a barrier to drugs, and may result in congenital abnormalities?
Antworten
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Blood brain barrier
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Semipermeable membrane
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Placental Barrier
-
Swiss cheese model
Frage 28
Frage
Metabolism occurs in 2 phases
Phase 1 - enzymes modify chemical structure of the drug
Phase 2 - the phase 1 metabolite is joined (conjugated) with another molecule to render the product soluble for excretion
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 29
Frage
The hepatic first pass effect
Antworten
-
Removes the drug entirely
-
Increased bioavailability
-
Does not remove entire drug but it does reduce the bioavailability
-
recruits the cremaster muscles to aid in the metabolism of drugs
Frage 30
Frage
The kidneys, GIT as well as saliva, sweat, tears, breath and breast milk are all sites of excretion (drug clearance)
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 31
Frage
If the blood concentration of a drug is 1000mg/L at a 12pm, and this level drops to 500mg/L by 4pm. What is the half life?
Antworten
-
2 hours
-
4 hours
-
6 hours
-
8 hours
Frage 32
Frage
An antihypertensive medication reducing a patients blood pressure too much and causing hypotension would be an example of a drug having:
Antworten
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The correct response
-
Too little response
-
Too much response
-
a nightmare
Frage 33
Frage
The use of many drugs at once, the use of drugs with no apparent indication, & the duplication of medication taking would indicate _________, which presents a major health care risk to patients
Antworten
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Polydrugs
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Polydynamesis
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Polysynthesis
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Polypharmacy
Frage 34
Frage
The systems approach to errors identifies that : (pick 3 answers)
Antworten
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Errors occur just because people are dumb
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Humans are fallable (capable of making mistakes)
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Errors are deemed as causes not consequences
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errors are deemed as consequences not causes
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Investigations are needed to seek new ways of completing tasks.
Frage 35
Frage
The Swiss cheese model identifies that there are holes in the layers of defence which include:
Antworten
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Active conditions & Latent failures
-
Active failures & Latent conditions
Frage 36
Frage
Active failures may lie dormant for some time before combining with a latent condition to create an opportunity for error and if identified they can be remedied before these errors occur (e.g. staffing issues, inexperience or inadequate equipment/training)
Latent conditions are unsafe acts committed by people in direct contact with the patient (e.g. slips, trips, lapses, fumbles, mistakes & procedural violations)
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 37
Frage
The ANS (autonomic nervous system) is divided in the Sympathetic nervous system (rest & digest) and the Parasympathetic nervous system (fight or flight).
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 38
Frage
The sympathetic nervous system has short pre-ganglionic neurons that release _______ and long post-ganglionic neurons that release _____________ or noradrenaline onto the effector organ. These nerves are adrenergic
Antworten
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Adrenaline - Renin
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Acetylcholine - Adrenaline
-
Adrenaline - Acetylcholine
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Renin - Angiotensin II
Frage 39
Frage
The parasympathetic nervous system has long pre-ganglionic neurons that release ___________ and short post-ganglionic neurons that release ___________ . These nerves are cholinergic
Antworten
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Acetylcholine - Acetylcholine
-
Adrenaline - Adrenaline
-
Adrenaline - Acetylcholine
-
Acetylcholine - Adrenaline
Frage 40
Frage
The sympathetic nervous system dilates pupils, inhibits flow of saliva, accelerates heartbeat, dilates bronchi, inhibits peristalsis + gastric secretions, coverts glycogen to glucose (glycolysis), releases adrenaline + noradrenaline, and inhibits bladder contractions.
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 41
Frage
The parasympathetic nervous system stimulates flow of saliva, slows HR, contracts bronchi, stimulates peristalsis + gastric secretions, stimulates release of bile, contracts pupils and contracts the bladder.
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 42
Frage
Sympatholytics are Agonist drugs that will stimulate and induce the effects of fight or flight
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 43
Frage
Sympathomimetics are Antagonist drugs that will inhibit sympathetic stimulation.
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 44
Frage
Select the adrenergic receptors:
Antworten
-
Nicotinic (responds to stimulation by nicotine, located in smooth + cardiac muscle as well as neuromuscular junction of skeletal muscle)
-
Alpha 1 (abundant on major arteries, associated with vasoconstrictive responses and increased BP)
-
Muscarinic (acetylcholine receptors, acting as the main end-receptor stimulated by acetylcholine released from postganglionic fibers in the parasympathetic nervous system.)
-
Beta 2 (abundant on bronchiolar smooth muscle and blood vessels within skeletal muscle, heart, brain and kidneys. Associated with bronchodilation and increased tissue perfusion)
-
Beta 1 (located on myocardium, smooth muscles, GIT sphincters and renal arterioles. Associated with rate/force of heart contraction)
-
Alpha 2 (Abundant on presynaptic terminal, involved with autoregulation of synaptic activity)
Frage 45
Frage
The roles of ___________ receptors include vasoconstriction (increased BP) , pupil dilation + contraction, urinary retention, glucose release, generalised sweating & GIT constriction (decrease motility).
Antworten
-
Alpha 2
-
Alpha 1
-
Beta 1
-
Beta 2
Frage 46
Frage
The role of __________ receptors are bronchodilation, vasodilation, insulin release and decreased GIT motility.
Antworten
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Alpha 1
-
Alpha 2
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Beta 1
-
Beta 2
Frage 47
Frage
The role of _________ receptors are increased HR, increased contractility of the heart, increased atrioventricular conduction, increased renin release and vasoconstriction.
Antworten
-
Alpha 1
-
Alpha 2
-
Beta 1
-
Beta 2
Frage 48
Frage
Alpha 1 ________ drugs would cause ____________ , increased BP, pupil dilation, glucose release, sweating and reduced GIT motility.
Antworten
-
Antagonist - vasodilation
-
cholinergic - vasoconstriction
-
agonist - vasoconstriction
-
blocker - vasoconstriction
Frage 49
Frage
Alpha 1 __________ drugs would cause __________ , reduced BP, pupil constriction, impotence, increased urination and increased GIT motility.
Antworten
-
Agonist - vasoconstriction
-
Antagonist - vasoconstriction
-
Antagonist - vasodilation
-
Agonist - vasodilation
Frage 50
Frage
Alpha 2 agonist drugs can be used to treat ____________
Antworten
-
Hypertension
-
Hyperglycaemia
-
Hypothyroidism
-
Diabetes mellitus
Frage 51
Frage
_________ agonist drugs would increase HR and CO, reduce GIT motility and stimulate the release of renin (increase blood flow and BP)
Antworten
-
Alpha 1
-
Alpha 2
-
Beta 1
-
Beta 2
Frage 52
Frage
Select the incorrect statement from the following regarding phases of clinical trials:
Antworten
-
Phase 1 clinical trials involve 20-80 health volunteers
-
Phase 2 clinical trials involve 100-150 volunteers with the targeted illness
-
Phase 3 clinical trials involve 1000-3000 volunteers with the targeted illness
-
Phase 4 clinical trial involves comparisons with other treatments and ongoing safety monitoring whilst out on the market.
-
Phase 1 clinical trials - drugs are tested on individuals from a lower socioeconomic background
Frage 53
Frage
__________ antagonist drugs (beta blockers) __________ HR, SV, and CO, increase GIT motility and inhibit renin release. Side effects can be dizziness, lethargy, insomnia, diarrhoea, bradycardia and hypotension.
Antworten
-
Beta 2 - decrease
-
Alpha 1 - increase
-
Beta 1 - reduce
-
Beta 1 - increase
Frage 54
Frage
_______ agonist drugs cause _________ , an increase in skeletal muscle excitability (tremors), vasodilation, relaxation of the uterus, reduced bile secretion and increase glycogenolysis.
Antworten
-
Beta 1 - vasoconstriction
-
Beta 2 - bronchodilation
-
Beta 1 - bronchodilation
-
Alpha 2 - bronchodilation
Frage 55
Frage
Ach (acetylcholine) is removed from the synaptic gap by an enzyme called ________________.
Antworten
-
Acetylcholinesterase
-
Acetylcholinogen
-
Acetylcholinogenolysis
-
Acetylcholine converting enzyme
Frage 56
Frage
some side effects of Beta 2 agonist drugs include fine muscle tremors, nervousness, tachycardia, increased BGL + insulin levels and hypokalaemia (low k+)
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 57
Frage
Nicotinic agonists increase the feeling of relaxation and well being, also increase skeletal muscle tone (tremors)
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 58
Frage
What drug inhibits the breakdown of AcH and therefore enhances the effects of AcH at nicotinic and muscarinic receptors?
Antworten
-
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
-
Acetylcholinesterase agonists
-
Autocoids
-
Muscarinic agonists
Frage 59
Frage
I am classed as an autocoid, I am a locally acting substance, I am released and confined to the same tissue and I am found in high concentration in the lungs, skin, GIT and CNS. what am I?
Antworten
-
Prostaglandin
-
White blood cell
-
a robot
-
Histamine
Frage 60
Frage
Histamines are released from ________ and ________ when an allergen, foreign body, or injury is encountered.
Antworten
-
G cells - red blood cells
-
enteroendocrine cells - basophils
-
Mast cells - Basophils
-
Sail cells - neutrophils
Frage 61
Frage
Histamines play a vital role in allergic and inflammatory reactions, some effects can be anaphylaxis, stimulation of pain receptors (nociceptors), vasodilation, and increased capillary permeability (leads to swelling).
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 62
Frage
1st generation anti-histamine drugs:
Antworten
-
can cross the Blood brain barrier, causing drowsiness and possibly sedation.
-
can only cross the blood brain barrier in small amounts and are therefore not sedating
Frage 63
Frage
2nd generation anti-histamine drugs:
Antworten
-
can only cross the blood brain barrier in small amounts and are therefore not sedating
-
can cross the blood brain barrier, causing drowsiness and sedation
Frage 64
Frage
___________ can reduce acid stimulation in the stomach so these are beneficial when treating __________ and GORD (gastro - oesophageal reflux disease)
Antworten
-
H1 agonists - hypertension
-
H2 antagonists - Peptic ulcers
-
H3 antagonists - peptic ulcers
Frage 65
Frage
NSAIDs block the synthesis of _____________ by interfering with the ________ and _________ enzymes.
Antworten
-
histamines - COX 3 - COX 4
-
Prostaglandins - DIX 1 - DIX 2
-
Prostaglandins - COX 1 - COX 2
-
Histamines - COX 1 - COX 2
Frage 66
Frage
Regarding Chemical mediator communication which answer is most correct:
Antworten
-
Endocrine signalling - molecules travel from signalling cell through the bloodstream to the target cell
-
Paracrine signalling - Signalling cell and the target cell are close together
-
All of these
-
Autocrine signalling - Signalling and target cell are the same cell.
Frage 67
Frage
all of the following are non-specific COX inhibitors, except:
Antworten
-
Aspirin
-
Ibuprofen
-
Diclofenac
-
Celecoxib
-
Indomethicin
Frage 68
Frage
Prostaglandins do not cause constriction of smooth muscle, vasodilation, aggregation of platelets, increased sensitivity of neurons to pain, the mediation of inflammation, fever (pyrogenic) or the inhibition of acid secretion in the stomach.
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 69
Frage
Which of the following is not a cardiac medication (antihypertensive)
Antworten
-
ACE inhibitors (suffix "pril")
-
Beta blockers (suffix "olol")
-
Calcium channel inhibitors
-
Anti diuretics
-
Loop diuretics
Frage 70
Frage
The inhibition of COX in peripheral tissue will reduce pain + inflammation. The inhibition of COX in the stomach removes the protective effect of PG (prostaglandin) and results in damage to the GI mucosa.
Antworten
- True
- False
Frage 71
Frage
When a patient is on multiple medications that affect the metabolism, synthesis or uptake of serotonin, what happens to serotonin levels.
Antworten
-
Builds up
-
Breaks down
-
No issues
-
Patient gets cooked
Frage 72
Frage
Serotonin builds up in the neurons of the CNS and it can cause:
Antworten
-
A change in mental status
-
Hypertension
-
Hyperpyrexia
-
All of these
-
Ataxia (lack of voluntary coordination of muscle movements)
Frage 73
Frage
Noradrenaline, adrenaline and dopamine are known as catecholamines
Antworten
- True
- False
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