Pharmacology Quiz

Question

What is meant by pharmacodynamics?

Answer 1

The effect of a drug on the body - i.e. Cellular effects

Answer 2

The effect of the body on a drug - i.e. Administration Distribution Metabolism Excretion

Answer 3

Carrier molecules

Answer 4

Ion channels

Answer 5

Agonists activate receptors as an endogenous substrate would

Answer 6

Antagonists block the action of agonists

Answer 7

An orthosteric drug binds at the same site as a substrate

Answer 8

An allosteric drug binds away from the substrate site

Answer 9

Drugs cannot act as false substrates in enzymes

Answer 10

Present in the nucleus, form heterodimers, the ligands are lipids

Answer 11

Present in the nucleus, form homodimers, ligands are carbohydrates

Answer 12

Present in the cytoplasm, form homodimers, the ligands are endocrine

Answer 13

Present in the cytoplasm, form homodimers, the ligands are lipids

Answer 14

The response of a particular system measured against agonist concentration

Answer 15

The drug doses required to produce specified response determined in each member of a population

Answer 16

Efficacy is the maximum effect an agonist can produce regardless of dose

Answer 17

A full agonist has a high efficacy and AR* is likely, even while occupying a small number of receptors

Answer 18

A partial agonist has a lower efficacy and AR* is less likely despite occupying the maximum number of receptors

Answer 19

Inverse agonists have a higher affinity for AR* state than for AR state, it produces an effect opposite to that of an agonist, yet binds to the same receptor binding-site.

Answer 20

Desensitisation of receptors with repeated administration

Answer 21

Amplification of a response means a fraction of receptors are needed to elicit a maximal response

Answer 22

The equilibrium dissociation constant, the same for any given receptor and drug combination

Answer 23

The process by which a drug is transported in place of an endogenous substrate or inhibit their transport

Answer 24

All of them

Answer 25

A competitive antagonist can be overcome with increasing agonist concentration. Curve: parallel shift to the right

Answer 26

An irreversible antagonist forms covalent bonds with the receptor. Curve: parallel shift to the right and reduced maximal asymptote

Answer 27

A non-competitive antagonist has signal transduction effects rather than receptor effects. Curve: reduces slope and maximum of curve

Answer 28

Antagonists have no efficacy and AR* doesn't exist

Answer 29

(agonist + antagonist EC50) / agonist EC50

Answer 30

(agonist - antagonist EC50) / agonist EC50

Answer 31

(agonist + antagonist EC50) * agonist EC50

Answer 32

(agonist + antagonist EC50) / antagonist EC50

Answer 33

Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, this affects Cmax.

Answer 34

Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, without affecting Cmax.

Answer 35

Determined by the Schild plot, the higher the Ka the higher the rate of absorption, this affects Cmax.

Answer 36

Determined by the Wagner-Nelson method, the higher the Ka the lower the rate of absorption, without affecting Cmax.

Answer 37

Parenteral route

Answer 38

Vaginal route

Answer 39

Transdermal route

Answer 40

Sublingual route

Answer 41

Inhaled route

Answer 42

Cmax - max concentration of a compound after administration

Answer 43

Tmax - the time at which Cmax is reached

Answer 44

AUC - a measure of systemic exposure (area under curve / time of curve)

Answer 45

Bioavailability (F) - the extent of absorption after extravascular administration

Answer 46

Volume of distribution (Vd) - the amount of a compound in the body vs. plasma concentration

Answer 47

Clearance (CL) - the volume of plasma cleared of compound per unit of time

Answer 48

Ke - elimination rate constant

Answer 49

Albumin (HSA) - produced by the liver, binds acidic and neutral drugs

Answer 50

Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAG) - produced by the liver, binds basic and neutral drugs

Answer 51

Albumin (HSA) - produced by the spleen, binds acidic and neutral drugs

Answer 52

Alpha-1-acid glycoprotein (AAG) - produced by the liver, binds basic and acidic drugs

Answer 53

UDP - glucuronosyl transferases (UGTs)

Answer 54

Cytochrome P450 family

Answer 55

Half life = 0.693 / Ke

Answer 56

Half life = 0.693 / CL

Answer 57

Half life = 0.963 / Ka

Answer 58

Half life = 0.936 / F

Answer 59

They are heme co-factor containing enzymes

Answer 60

They are individually referred to as isozymes

Answer 61

They are always found in the ER of the cell regardless of the organ/tissue

Answer 62

They are mainly found in the liver (hepatocytes) and intestines (enterocytes)

Answer 63

Enzyme inhibition = decreased metabolism and decreased drug exposure

Answer 64

Enzyme induction = increased gene transcription, increased metabolism and decreased drug exposure

Answer 65

Glucuronidation

Answer 66

Acidification

Answer 67

Glucomodification

Answer 68

Metabolishment

Answer 69

Glomerular Filtration

Answer 70

Those containing -OH

Answer 71

Those containing -NH2

Answer 72

Those containing -COOH

Answer 73

Those containing -SS

Answer 74

Those containing -C2H6

Answer 75

Sympathetic nervous system: short preganglionic nerves and long postganglionic nerves

Answer 76

Parasympathetic nervous system: long preganglionic nerves and short postganglionic nerves

Answer 77

Somatic nervous system: neuromuscular junction

Answer 78

muscarinic receptors (mACh) - M1,2,3 found in postganglionic parasympathetic synapses

Answer 79

nicotinic receptors (nACh) - Neuronal type found in the brain and autonomic ganglia

Answer 80

nicotinic receptors (nACh) - Muscle type found in the neuromuscular junction

Answer 81

Neuronal type nicotinic agonists and antagonists

Answer 82

Muscle type nicotinic agonists and antagonists

Answer 83

Nicotinic agonists (muscle type)

Answer 84

Nicotinic antagonists (muscle type)

Answer 85

Nicotinic agonists (neuronal type)

Answer 86

Nicotinic antagonists (neuronal type)

Answer 87

Acetylcholine

Answer 88

Noradrenaline

Answer 89

Adrenaline

Answer 90

Neostigmine

Answer 91

Botulinium toxin

Answer 92

Acetyl hydroxylase

Answer 93

Salbutamol

Answer 94

Tyrosine Hydroxylase

Answer 95

DOPA decarboxylase

Answer 96

DA -B-hydroxylase

Answer 97

Tyrosine decarboxylase

Answer 98

DA decarboxylase

Answer 99

L-DOPA Hydrogenase

Answer 100

They exist as A1,2 and B1,2,3

Answer 101

They exist as A1,2,3 and B1,2

Answer 102

They are G protein coupled

Answer 103

They are tyrosine kinase receptors

Answer 104

They are found in the effector tissues of the sympathetic system

Answer 105

They are found in the effector tissues of the parasympathetic system

Answer 106

A1 noradrenergic receptor

Answer 107

A2 noradrenergic receptor

Answer 108

B1 noradrenergic receptor

Answer 109

B2 noradrenergic receptor

Answer 110

B3 noradrenergic receptor

Answer 111

Adrenaline by A1 mediated vasoconstriction

Answer 112

Adrenaline by B1 mediated vasoconstriction

Answer 113

Noradrenaline by A1 mediated vasodilation

Answer 114

Salbutamol bt A2 mediated vasoconstriction

Answer 115

Botulinium toxin by A1 mediated vasodilation

Answer 116

Clonidine - A2

Answer 117

Dobutamine - B1

Answer 118

Prazosin - A1

Answer 119

Salbutamol - B2

Answer 120

Atenolol - B1

Answer 121

Timolol - B2

Answer 122

meDOPA > meDA > meNA

Answer 123

meDOPA > meNA > meDA

Answer 124

L-DOPA > L-DA > L-NA

Answer 125

DA > DOPAC > HVA

Answer 126

Tyrosine > DOPA > DA > NA

Answer 127

Dobutamine

Answer 128

NA reuptake inhibitors

Answer 129

Neostigmine

Answer 130

Parasympathetic bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion

Answer 131

Circulating adrenaline causing bronchodilation

Answer 132

Nonadrenergic Noncholinergic transmitters e.g. inhibitory NO or excitatory substance P or neurokinin A

Answer 133

Sensory receptors - chemical and physical stimuli

Answer 134

Circulating dopamine causing broncoconstriction

Answer 135

Bronchoconstriction

Answer 136

Inflammation/Damage in response to mediators

Answer 137

LTC4, LTD4 - spasmogens

Answer 138

LTB4 - chemotaxins

Answer 139

PGE2, PGI2 vasodilators, cytokines

Answer 140

LTC4 - chemotaxins

Answer 141

LTB4, LTC4, - spasmogens

Answer 142

PGE5, PGL2, chemotaxins

Answer 143

Hypothalamus

Answer 144

Oesophagus

Answer 145

Adrenal medulla

Answer 146

Cerebral cortex

Answer 147

1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels 2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore 3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form 4. Unionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane 5. Most are weak bases 6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of ester/amide bond

Answer 148

1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels 2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore 3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form 4. Ionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane 5. Most are weak bases 6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of disulphide bonds

Answer 149

1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated NA+ channels 2. Interact with B subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore 3. Binds in the ionised (hydrophilic) form 4. Unionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane 5. Most are weak acids 6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of ester/amide bond

Answer 150

1. block electrical signalling in neurones by blocking voltage gated K+ channels 2. Interact with A subunit and plug the inner end of the transmembrane pore 3. Binds in the unionised (hydrophobic) form 4. Ionised form gains acess through nerve sheath and axon membrane 5. Most are weak bases 6.Duration of action is limited by hydrolysis of disulphide bonds

Answer 151

Class I blocking sodium channels and Class II blocking calcium channels

Answer 152

Class I blocking calcium channels and Class II blocking sodium channels

Answer 153

Class I blocking sodium channels and Class II blocking potassium channels

Answer 154

Class I blocking potassium channels and Class II blocking calcium channels

Answer 155

Voltage gated sodium channels

Answer 156

Ligand gated sodium channels

Answer 157

Voltage gated potassium channels

Answer 158

G protein receptors

Answer 159

Tyrosine kinase receptors

Answer 160

Parkinson's disease

Answer 161

Depression

Answer 162

Hyperthyroidism

Answer 163

Cushing's syndrome

Answer 164

Tyrosine hydroxylase

Answer 165

DOPA decarboxylase

Answer 166

DA B-hydroxylase

Answer 167

Tyrosine decarboxylase

Answer 168

DOPA hydroxylase

Answer 169

Carbonic Anhydrase

Answer 170

Monoamine oxidase, then Aldehyde Dehydrogenase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase

Answer 171

Aldehyde Dehydrogenase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase, then Monoamine oxidase

Answer 172

Monoamine oxidase, then Aldehyde Decarboxylase, then Catechol-O-methyl transferase

Answer 173

They are G protein linked

Answer 174

They are ligand gated ion channels

Answer 175

D2-like receptors are inhibitory D1-like receptors are excitatory

Answer 176

D1-like receptors are inhibitory D2-like receptors are excitatory

Answer 177

Inhibitory receptors inhibit adenylate cyclase or open K+ channels

Answer 178

Excitatory receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase

Answer 179

Inhibitory receptors inhibit DOPA decarboxylase

Answer 180

Excitatory receptors stimulate adenylate cyclase or open K+ channels

Answer 181

Increase dopamine

Answer 182

Decrease dopamine

Answer 183

Increase DOPA decarboxylase

Answer 184

Increase reuptake by DAT

Answer 185

Increase transport of DA into vesicles by VMAT

Answer 186

Selegiline - inhibits MAO-B, increasing the DA content of vesicles

Answer 187

Selegiline - inhibits MAO-B, decreasing the DA content of vesicles

Answer 188

Carbidopa - inhibits MAO-A, increasing the DA content of vesicles

Answer 189

Prazosin - inhibits MAO-B, increasing the DA content of vesicles

Answer 190

Locus coeruleus contains cell bodies with projections to the mid brain and the hypothalamus, and the hippocampus and cortex

Answer 191

Dorsal and median raphe nuclei contain cell bodies with projections to the hypothalamus, hippocampus and cortex

Answer 192

Dorsal and median locus coeruleus contain cell bodies with projections to the cerebral cortex, hypothalamus and adrenal medulla

Answer 193

Locus coeruleus contains cell bodies with projections to the andrenal medulla, cortex, and dorsal ventricular brain centre

Answer 194

Tryptophan (Tryptophan hydroxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HT

Answer 195

Tryrosine (Tyrosine hydroxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HT

Answer 196

Tryptophan (Tryptophan decarboxylase) > 5-HTP (5-HTP hydroxylase) > 5-HT

Answer 197

Tryptophan (Tryptophan hydroxylase) > 5-HTS (5-HTS decarboxlase) > 5-HT

Answer 198

Tryptophan (5-HTP decarboxlase) > 5-HTP (5-HT hydroxylase) > 5-HT

Answer 199

Tryptophan

Answer 200

Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing MHPG

Answer 201

Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing DOPEG

Answer 202

Monoamine Oxidase producing MHPG

Answer 203

Aldehyde dehydrogenase producing 5-HIAA

Answer 204

Monoamine Oxidase producing DOPAC

Answer 205

Catechol-O-methyl transferase producing HVA

Answer 206

5-HT-1(A-F)

Answer 207

5-HT-2(A-C)

Answer 208

NA A2 and 5-HT-1B

Answer 209

NA A2 and 5-HT-1A

Answer 210

NA A1 and 5-HT-1B

Answer 211

5-HT-1A and 5-HT-1B

Answer 212

Sensitises LH releasing cells, proliferation of endometrium, inhibits release of FSH

Answer 213

Renders endometrium suitable for the implantation of an ovum, inhibits release of FSH, LH and GRH

Answer 214

Inhibits GRH, sensitises FSH releasing cells, proliferation of endometrium

Answer 215

Renders endometrium suitable for the implantation of an ovum, inhibits release of FSH, sensitises LH releasing cells

Answer 216

Progesterone

Answer 217

human chorionic gonadotropin

Answer 218

Released from anterior pituitary, acts on hypothalamus preventing GRH release

Answer 219

Released from hypothalamus, acts on anterior pituitary preventing GRH release

Answer 220

Released from anterior pituitary, acts on hypothalamus preventing FSH release

Answer 221

Released from hypothalamic nuclei, acts on mammary tissue preventing LH release

Answer 222

Oedema (swelling)

Answer 223

Erythema (redness)

Answer 224

Oedema (redness)

Answer 225

Erythema (swelling)

Answer 226

Inc dopamine

Answer 227

Dec immune response

Answer 228

Leukotrienes

Answer 229

Prostaglandins

Answer 230

Platelet activating factor (PAF)

Answer 231

inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, decreasing the formation of prostanoids

Answer 232

inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of prostanoids

Answer 233

inhibit cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of eicosanoids

Answer 234

stimulate cyclooxygenase activity, decreasing the formation of prostanoids

Answer 235

stimulate cyclooxygenase activity, increasing the formation of prostanoids

Answer 236

Dec synthesis of prostanoids through inhibition of phospholipase 2

Answer 237

Dec prostaglandin-H-synthase transcription

Answer 238

Dec cytokines

Answer 239

Inhibit cyclooxygenase activity

Answer 240

Suppression of the immune system

Answer 241

Synthesised from the amino acid Histidine

Answer 242

Synthesised from the amino acid tyrosine

Answer 243

Stored in granules in mast cells and basophils

Answer 244

Stored in vesicles in macrophages

Answer 245

Released by the complement system and IgEs

Answer 246

Released by IgMs

Answer 247

G protein coupled receptors: H1-4

Answer 248

Tyrosine Kinase receptors: H1-2

Answer 249

Agents that destroy parasites while being relatively non-toxic to the host

Answer 250

Agents that destroy the majority of pathogens without disturbing host cells

Answer 251

Agents that selectively destroy particular parasites

Answer 252

Agents that can target cells of specific organs in order to kill tumour cells

Answer 253

Penicillins

Answer 254

Sulphonamides

Answer 255

Fluoroquinolones

Answer 256

Macrolides

Answer 257

Tetracyclines

Answer 258

Quinolides

Answer 259

Platinum based drugs cross link DNA with other bases and proteins damaging it

Answer 260

Carboplatin has the same mechanism as cisplatin with fewer side effects

Answer 261

Daunorubicin is an antibiotic used to treat cancer, blocking the enzyme that normally untangles strands of DNA

Answer 262

The Philadelphia translocation results in the genes BCR and abl being joined, switching off cell division by activating other proteins

Answer 263

Imatinib inhibits the BCR-abl protein kinase

Answer 264

9 and 22, Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

Answer 265

9 and 23, Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

Answer 266

9 and 22, Parkinsons

Answer 267

8 and 22, Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

Answer 268

P. falciparum

Answer 269

P. malarie

Answer 270

P. Sporozoa

Answer 271

Sporozoites

Answer 272

Gametocytes

Answer 273

Meterozoites

Answer 274

Trophozoites

Answer 275

4-aminoquinolines

Answer 276

Quinine-methanols

Answer 277

8-aminoquinolines

Answer 278

Antifolates

Answer 279

Hydroxynapthoquinone

Answer 280

Macrolides

Answer 281

Activated charcoal

Answer 282

N-acetylcysteine (NAC)

Answer 283

Glutathione infusion

Answer 284

Sulphate bypass

Answer 285

Glucuronidation

Answer 286

People on medication

Answer 287

Type A drug reaction: Augmented pharmacological effect

Answer 288

Type B drug reaction: Basic - predictable on basis of pharmacology of the drug

Answer 289

Type C drug reaction: Chronic effects - occur after prolonged treatment

Answer 290

Type D drug reaction: Delayed, effects occur remote from treatment (or in the child of the treated)

Answer 291

Type E drug reaction: Expected - common side effects of a drug

Answer 292

Amygdala (Impulsive)

Answer 293

Pefrontal cortex (Reflective)

Answer 294

Prefrontal cortex (Impulsive)

Answer 295

Amygdala (Reflective)

Answer 296

Hypothalamus (Impulsive)

Answer 297

Anterior pituitary (Reflective)

Answer 298

Hypothalamus (Reflective)

Answer 299

There are a total of 11 addictive traits on the scale

Answer 300

There are a total of 9 addictive traits on the scale

Answer 301

Mild = 2/3 symptoms

Answer 302

Mild = 1-4 symptoms

Answer 303

Moderate = 4/5 symptoms

Answer 304

Moderate = 5/6 symptoms

Answer 305

Severe = 6+ symptoms

Answer 306

Severe = 7+ symptoms

Answer 307

Diabetes Mellitus

Answer 308

Diabetes Insipidus

Answer 309

Hypothalamic nuclei, decreasing CRH Anterior pituitary, decreasing ACTH

Answer 310

Hypothalamic nuclei, decreasing ACTH Anterior pituitary, decreasing CRH

Answer 311

Adrenal cortex, decreasing CRH Anterior pituitary, decreasing ACTH

Answer 312

Anterior Pituitary, decreasing CRH Adrenal Cortex, decreasing ACTH

Answer 313

Inc. and maintains normal glucose levels in blood

Answer 314

Dec. protein synthesis

Answer 315

Inc. gluconeogenesis

Answer 316

Dec. glucose uptake into muscle and adipose tissue

Answer 317

Inc. protein synthesis and dec. lipolysis

Answer 318

Inc. glucogenolysis

Answer 319

Dec. and maintain glucose levels in the blood

Answer 320

Metyrapone

Answer 321

Creatinine

Answer 322

Neostigmine

Answer 323

Glucocorticoids

Answer 324

Hormone released in response to stimulation from another hormone

Answer 325

Hormone released directly in response to neural stimulation

Answer 326

Hormone directly influenced by circulating blood levels of substrate that the hormone itself controls

Answer 327

Increase insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

Answer 328

Increase insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing hyperpolarisation)

Answer 329

Decrease insulin secretion from A cells by opening K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

Answer 330

Decrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking Na-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

Answer 331

Decrease insulin secretion from B cells by blocking K-ATP channels (causing depolarisation)

Answer 332

Human chorionic gonadotrophin

Answer 333

Progesterone

Answer 334

Human chorionic gonadotrophin and oestrogen

Answer 335

GRH agonists

Answer 336

GRH antagonists

Answer 337

Mefipristone

Answer 338

Oestrogen and progesterone pill

Answer 339

FSH agonists

Answer 340

Systemic effects

Answer 341

Microvascular events

Answer 342

Mediator release

Answer 343

Inflammatory cell accumulation

Answer 344

Recruitment of inflammatory cells leading to inflammation

Answer 345

Increased vascular permeability

Answer 346

Dilation of arterioles increasing blood flow to site

Answer 347

Constriction of venules decreasing blood flow away from site

Answer 348

Production of oedema

Answer 349

Noradrenaline

Answer 350

Acetylcholine

Answer 351

Leukotrienes

Answer 352

Eicosanoids

Answer 353

Cushing's syndrome

Answer 354

Hyperglycemia

Answer 355

Hypoglycemia

Answer 356

Hypertension

Answer 357

Decrease intracellular cAMP

Answer 358

Increase intracellular cAMP

Answer 359

Activate proton pump

Answer 360

Adenyl cyclase coupled

Answer 361

Phospholipase C coupled

Answer 362

Examples include: Ampicillin, Amoxycillin (developed to have an improved duration)

Answer 363

Examples include: Ciprofloxacin and Streptogramins

Answer 364

Early forms were effective against gram positives and only a few gram negatives

Answer 365

Early forms were effective against gram negatives and gram positives

Answer 366

Expanded spectrum versions are effective against pseudomonads

Answer 367

Reversed spectrum versions have greater activity on gram positives

Answer 368

Can exist in B-lactamase resistant forms (Fludoxacillin)

Answer 369

Excreted by the kidney in levels that can be reduced by probenecid

Answer 370

Excreted in the bile in levels that can be increased by N-acetylglucosamine

Answer 371

Inhibit transpeptidases that establish cross links in peptidoglycan from N-acetylmuramic acid causing bacteria to swell and rupture (bacteriocidal)

Answer 372

Selectively targets metabolic pathways: Folate biosynthesis

Answer 373

Targets prokaryotic ribosomes and protein synthesis

Answer 374

Bacteriocidal

Answer 375

The normal substrate the drugs block is PABA

Answer 376

Their use is declining outside dentistry

Answer 377

Oral administration is given as protected tablets to prevent them being inactivated by gastric juice

Answer 378

Bacteriostatic

Answer 379

Half life of 30-80 minutes

Answer 380

Half life of 6-18 hours

Answer 381

Use is declining outside of dentistry

Answer 382

Excreted in the kidney and the bile

Answer 383

Interrupts the termination phase of protein synthesis in bacterial ribosomes

Answer 384

Don't usually enter the CSF (unless meninges inflammation)

Answer 385

They are based on naladixic acid

Answer 386

Target DNA replication via type II topoisomerases

Answer 387

Examples include ciprofloxacin

Answer 388

Target protein synthesis

Answer 389

Inhibitor of CYP1A2

Answer 390

Inhibits DNA gyrase in gram positives and DNA topoisomerase IV in gram negatives

Answer 391

Examples include streptogramins and lincosamides

Answer 392

Streptogramins such as erythromycin are effective for gram positives and spirochaetes but not gram negatives

Answer 393

Lincosamides such as clindamycin are effective for gram positive cocci and anaerobes

Answer 394

Target 30S ribosomal subunit

Answer 395

Block translocation of newly forming peptide by binding to site near RNA exit tunnel causing peptidyl-transferase RNA drop off

Answer 396

Administered IV to bypass metabolism in the stomach

Answer 397

Administered orally in protected tablets

Answer 398

Excreted in the kidneys

Answer 399

Crosses the placenta but not the blood brain barrier

Answer 400

Do not enter the CSF

Answer 401

Metabolised by demethylation (CYP3A4)

	Erstellt von Phil Oklam vor mehr als 9 Jahre

Nächster

Pharmacology Quiz

Beschreibung

Zusammenfassung der Ressource

Frage 1

Frage 2

Frage 3

Frage 4

Frage 5

Frage 6

Frage 7

Frage 8

Frage 9

Frage 10

Frage 11

Frage 12

Frage 13

Frage 14

Frage 15

Frage 16

Frage 17

Frage 18

Frage 19

Frage 20

Frage 21

Frage 22

Frage 23

Frage 24

Frage 25

Frage 26

Frage 27

Frage 28

Frage 29

Frage 30

Frage 31

Frage 32

Frage 33

Frage 34

Frage 35

Frage 36

Frage 37

Frage 38

Frage 39

Frage 40

Frage 41

Frage 42

Frage 43

Frage 44

Frage 45

Frage 46

Frage 47

Frage 48

Frage 49

Frage 50

Frage 51

Frage 52

Frage 53

Frage 54

Frage 55

Frage 56

Frage 57

Frage 58

Frage 59

Frage 60

Frage 61

Frage 62

Frage 63

Frage 64

Frage 65

Frage 66

Frage 67

Frage 68

Frage 69

Frage 70

Frage 71

Frage 72

Frage 73

Frage 74

Frage 75

Frage 76