Pharm II Exam III practice quiz

Question

Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?

Answer 1

Functio Laesa

Answer 2

Prostaglandins

Answer 3

Prostacyclines

Answer 4

Eiocosanoids

Answer 5

All of the above

Answer 6

Increase permeability of the microvasculature

Answer 7

Suppression of leukocytes

Answer 8

Relief of symptoms

Answer 9

Impaired quality of life

Answer 10

Relief of symptoms

Answer 11

Maintenance of function

Answer 12

Slowing tissue damage

Answer 13

Short term control

Answer 14

Corticosteroids

Answer 15

Naltrexone

Answer 16

Increases the inflammatory pain response

Answer 17

COX-2 inhibitors can decrease the chance of cardiovascular effects

Answer 18

COX-2 inhibitors are found to cause Upper GI complications as well as lower GI complications

Answer 19

COX-2 selective drugs inhibit PG synthesis through selective inhibition of COX-2 isoenzyme

Answer 20

Indomethacin

Answer 21

Corticosteroids

Answer 22

Acetominophen

Answer 23

Production of TXA2

Answer 24

Regulate renal blood flow

Answer 25

Maintain mucosal integrity

Answer 26

Induce inflammation and pain

Answer 27

Thickened synovial membrane

Answer 28

Eroded cartilage

Answer 29

Bone spurs

Answer 30

Synovial changes

Answer 31

Degenerated cartilage

Answer 32

Causes systemic symptoms

Answer 33

Radiographic findings of narrowed joint space and lipping of marginal bone

Answer 34

The least common form of joint disease

Answer 35

Can be diagnosed with laboratory findings

Answer 36

Heberden nodes

Answer 37

Bouchard nodes

Answer 38

Thinning subchondral bone

Answer 39

Hypertrophy of bone at articular margins

Answer 40

COX-2 selective inhibitors

Answer 41

Acetominophen

Answer 42

Gabapentin

Answer 43

Amytriptyline

Answer 44

Venlafaxine (SNRI)

Answer 45

Intraarticular injections

Answer 46

Topical agents

Answer 47

Patient education

Answer 48

It has potenet anti-inflammatory activity

Answer 49

It acts as a prodrug, activating CB1 receptors in the CNS

Answer 50

The recommended daily max dose for alcoholics is 4g

Answer 51

It decreases risk of bleeding

Answer 52

Because ethanol induces the CYP2E1 enzymes

Answer 53

Because ethanol decreases the amount of glutathione, therefore there isn't enough to convert NAPQ1 into an inactive mtabolite

Answer 54

Because ethanol inhibits the CYP2E1enzyme

Answer 55

Because it inhibits conjugation of acetominophen

Answer 56

It acts as a precursor for glutathione

Answer 57

It is an expectorant, thus it expectorates acetominophen from the body

Answer 58

It inhibits the CYP2E1 enzymes

Answer 59

It induces the CYP2E1 enzyme

Answer 60

They block the hydrophobic channel of the COX protein where arachidonic acid binds

Answer 61

They block the production of arachidonic acid

Answer 62

They bind to Phospholipid A2

Answer 63

They bind to the COX protein, which causes inactivation of the enzyme

Answer 64

Gastropathology

Answer 65

Decrease renal blood flow resulting in renal ischemia

Answer 66

Thrombosis

Answer 67

It is a selective COX inhibitor

Answer 68

They inhibit collagenase and proteoglycanase

Answer 69

It has a short half-life and therefore requires multiple doses daily

Answer 70

Low percentage of patients report adverse effects

Answer 71

Thrombosis

Answer 72

CNS effects

Answer 73

Blurred vision

Answer 74

Used for spondylitis

Answer 75

It is an acetic acid derivative

Answer 76

Promotes closure of PDA

Answer 77

Used when ibuprofen is ineffective or not tolerated

Answer 78

Promotes the incorporation of arachidonic acid into triglycerides, thus reducing its availability for COX

Answer 79

Inhibits collagenase and proteoglycanase

Answer 80

Block the COX-2 enzyme ONLY

Answer 81

It is a folic acid analogue

Answer 82

Decreases the duration of pregnancy

Answer 83

Used in treat fetal PDA

Answer 84

Reversibly binds to platelets so prolongs bleeding for one day

Answer 85

Can cause bronchoconstriction in ASA-sensitive asthmatics

Answer 86

It causes less renal toxicity

Answer 87

It is a synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue

Answer 88

It has no significant effect on bleeding time because it is a Cox-2 inhibitor

Answer 89

It decreases gastric irritation

Answer 90

Because antihypertensives depend on renal PG to work

Answer 91

Because it can cause prolonged bleeding

Answer 92

Because ASA prevents excretion of antihypertensives

Answer 93

Because antihypertensives increase plasma levels of ASA

Answer 94

Because they can increase the risk of upper GI bleed

Answer 95

Because they cause more CNS effects

Answer 96

Because together can cause increase in hypersensitivity reactions

Answer 97

Because together they can worsen bronchoconstrition

Answer 98

Acetominophen

Answer 99

Both A and B

Answer 100

Methotrexate

Answer 101

Anticoagulants

Answer 102

Valproic acid

Answer 103

Methotrexate

Answer 104

Cyclosporine

Answer 105

Sulfasalazine

Answer 106

Sulfinpyrazone

Answer 107

Cyclosporine

Answer 108

ACE inhibitors

Answer 109

Fluconazole

Answer 110

Valproic acid

Answer 111

Bleeding time

Answer 112

Gastric disorder

Answer 113

Bronchoconstriction

Answer 114

Cardiovascular toxicity

Answer 115

Increase pH

Answer 116

Decrease pH

Answer 117

Both A and B

Answer 118

Growth factors

Answer 119

All of the above

Answer 120

Opioid overdose

Answer 121

Treatment of alcohol dependence

Answer 122

Prevent opioid addiction

Answer 123

Analgesia during the induction and maintenance of general anesthesia

Answer 124

Its active metabolite has a greater affinity for mu receptors than codeine

Answer 125

Inhibits reuptake of NE and 5HT

Answer 126

Suppresses cough reflex

Answer 127

Has a quick onset of action

Answer 128

Large doses can cause anxiety and dysphoria

Answer 129

They may antagonize action of opioids

Answer 130

Respiratory depression has a ceiling effect

Answer 131

Has full agonist effect at mu receptors, thus increasing addiction liability

Answer 132

Obstetric analgesia during labor and delivery

Answer 133

Pre and post operative analgesia

Answer 134

Orally for mild pain

Answer 135

These are all indications

Answer 136

Rheumatoid factor

Answer 137

None of the above

Answer 138

Active patient and family participation

Answer 139

Preservation of function

Answer 140

Prevent deformity

Answer 141

These are all objectives

Answer 142

Biological DMARDs

Answer 143

Non-biological DMARDs

Answer 144

Acetominophen

Answer 145

Slow bone erosion and prevent new bone erosion

Answer 146

Reverse bone erosion

Answer 147

Prevent secondary fungal infection

Answer 148

Increase blood sugar

Answer 149

Mask serious infections (bacterial or fungal)

Answer 150

Cause leukopenia

Answer 151

Cause thrombocytopenia

Answer 152

All of the above

Answer 153

Methotrexate

Answer 154

Leflunomide

Answer 155

Hydroxychloroquine

Answer 156

Penicillamine

Answer 157

Methotrexate

Answer 158

Leflunomide

Answer 159

Minocycline

Answer 160

Methotrexate

Answer 161

Leflunomide

Answer 162

Minocycline

Answer 163

Hydroxychloroquine

Answer 164

Myasthenia gravis

Answer 165

All of the above

Answer 166

Inhibits chemotaxis of eosinophils and neutrophils

Answer 167

It is a pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor

Answer 168

It inhibits macrophages responsible for inflammation

Answer 169

It inhibits matrix metalloproteinase

Answer 170

Hydroxychloroquine

Answer 171

Methotrexate

Answer 172

Leflunomide

Answer 173

TNF inhibitors

Answer 174

Pigmentary retinitis

Answer 175

Irreversible myopathies

Answer 176

Photophobia

Answer 177

Visual loss

Answer 178

Matrixmetalloproteinase inhibitor

Answer 179

Inhibits inflammatory cell migration and transformation of lymphocytes

Answer 180

Both A and B

Answer 181

None of the above

Answer 182

It is erratically absorbed orally

Answer 183

It acts by inhibition of macrophages responsible for inflammation

Answer 184

It is excreted through the kidneys

Answer 185

The intravenous route is preferred

Answer 186

Increases bone erosion

Answer 187

It is used to reverse the progression of RA

Answer 188

It s used in patients where other anti-inflammatory drugs have been successful

Answer 189

Causes hematuria

Answer 190

Reduces numbers of T-lymphocytes

Answer 191

Decreases IL-1 and rheumatoid factor

Answer 192

Prevents collagen from cross-linking

Answer 193

Inhibits inflammatory cell migration

Answer 194

Leflunomide

Answer 195

Penicillamine

Answer 196

None of the above

Answer 197

Bone marrow suppression

Answer 198

They are very expensive

Answer 199

They increase risk of bcterial infections

Answer 200

Demyelination can occur

Answer 201

These are all disadvantages of biological DMARDs

Answer 202

They inhibit cytokines, thus preventing PG production and up-regulation of COX-2

Answer 203

They decrease joint destruction

Answer 204

They are also used for Crohn's disease

Answer 205

They prevent latent infections such as fungal or tuberculoid

Answer 206

Not used with methotrexate

Answer 207

Rash occurs in 30% of patients

Answer 208

No cardiovascular effects

Answer 209

It is a T-cell activation inhibitor

Answer 210

Prevents T-cell activation by complexing with 'co-stimulatory' molecules

Answer 211

Inhibits cytokines such as TNF alpha/IL-1 thus preventing PG production

Answer 212

Targets CD20 and depletes T lymphocytes

Answer 213

All of the above

Answer 214

Rheumatoid

Answer 215

Osteoartritis

Answer 216

Kidney stones

Answer 217

Asymptomatic hyperuricemic

Answer 218

Intercritical

Answer 219

These are all stages of gout

Answer 220

Allopurinol

Answer 221

Decreasing motility of neutrophils

Answer 222

Deactivating URAT 1 transporter

Answer 223

Inhibit cytokines such as TNF alpha/IL-1 thus preventing PG production and up-regulation of COX-2

Answer 224

All of the above

Answer 225

Febuxostate

Answer 226

Methotrexate

Answer 227

Probenecid

Answer 228

Because it does not have any anti-inflammatory effects

Answer 229

Because it has no uric acid prevention mechanism

Answer 230

Because allopurinol only works in the presence of colchicine

Answer 231

Because it only works in the presence of NSAIDs

Answer 232

Steven Johnson rash

Answer 233

Hepatic necrosis

Answer 234

Renal stones

Answer 235

It deactivates the URAT 1 transporter, thus preveting reabsorption of urate

Answer 236

Can cause renal stones

Answer 237

Used for treatment of chronic hyperuricemia

Answer 238

Makes uric acid levels fall which causes more crystal deposition in the synovium

Answer 239

Sulfinpyrazone

Answer 240

Glucocorticoids

Answer 241

Febuxostate

Answer 242

Sulfinpyrazone

Answer 243

Glucocorticoids

Answer 244

None of the above

Answer 245

Can be cause by environmental factors

Answer 246

Increased IgA production

Answer 247

Failure to remove immune complexes from circulation can lead to vasculitis and disease

Answer 248

There is impaired T cell regulation

Answer 249

Calcium is a B-cell stimulator

Answer 250

IL-10 is a B-cell stimulator

Answer 251

Estrogen is a B-cell stimulator

Answer 252

Prolactin is a B-cell stimulator

Answer 253

the least side effects

Answer 254

the lowerst dose to control disease

Answer 255

long term damage prevention

Answer 256

steroids in mild disease

Answer 257

Possible adrenal insufficiency

Answer 258

Immunosuppresion

Answer 259

Exact mechanism is unknown

Answer 260

May lead to regression of skin lesions

Answer 261

May improve psoriasis

Answer 262

Ophthalmologic examinations should be performed prior to administration and periodically after

Answer 263

Ziconitide

Answer 264

Omega-conotoxin

Answer 265

Gabapentin

Answer 266

Bradykinins

Answer 267

COX-2 inhibitors

Answer 268

Indomethicin

Answer 269

Acetominophen

Answer 270

Nitric oxide synthase

Answer 271

Substance P

Answer 272

Bradykinins

Answer 273

Both A and B

Answer 274

Both A and C

Answer 275

They activate descending PAG neurons

Answer 276

They directly activate opioid receptors

Answer 277

They activate descending NMR and LC neurons

Answer 278

They activate presynaptic potassium channels which decreases conductance

Answer 279

Meperidine

Answer 280

Pentazocine

Answer 281

Hydrocodone

Answer 282

Hydromorphone

Answer 283

Meperidine

Answer 284

Pentazocine

Answer 285

Naltrexone

Answer 286

Buprenorphine

Answer 287

Mu; Kappa and delta

Answer 288

Kappa; Mu and delta

Answer 289

Delta; kappa and mu

Answer 290

Mu; Kappa and sigma

Answer 291

Respiratory depression

Answer 292

Physical dependence

Answer 293

Naltrexone

Answer 294

Pentazocine

Answer 295

Hydromorphone

Answer 296

Meperidine

Answer 297

Both B and C

Answer 298

Through the bile

Answer 299

Both and A and B

Answer 300

None of the above

Answer 301

Through breast milk

Answer 302

Both A and B

Answer 303

Both A and C

Answer 304

Codeine is a more effective analgesia than morphine

Answer 305

Codeine provides little euphoria

Answer 306

Physical dependence is common in users of low daily dose

Answer 307

No risk of opiate withdrawal symptoms with sudden stop

Answer 308

Meperidine

Answer 309

Propoxyphene

Answer 310

Meperidine

Answer 311

Propoxyphene

Answer 312

Meperidine

Answer 313

Meperidine

Answer 314

Meperidine

Answer 315

Fentanyl<morphine<codeine

Answer 316

Fentanyl<codeine<morphine

Answer 317

Morphine<codeine<fentanyl

Answer 318

Codeine<morphine<fentanyl

Answer 319

It may induce skeletal rigidity at high doses

Answer 320

Does NOT cause histamine release

Answer 321

Smaller safety margin than morphine

Answer 322

Minimal respiration depression

Answer 323

Good if concerned about drug abuse

Answer 324

Quick onset

Answer 325

Residual activity after patch is removed

Answer 326

It's cheap

Answer 327

May antagonize action of opioid agonists

Answer 328

Increases addiction liability

Answer 329

Small doses can cause hallucinations

Answer 330

Large doses can cause euphoria

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Pharm II Exam III practice quiz

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