3079809
Descripción
Test por Diana Flores, actualizado hace más de 1 año
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Creado por Diana Flores
hace casi 9 años
|
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Pregunta 1
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation?
Respuesta
-
Rubor
-
Tumor
-
Functio Laesa
-
Crepitus
Pregunta 2
Pregunta
Inflammation ends with permanent destruction of tissue or with complete healing after removal of injurious stimulus
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 3
Pregunta
Chronic inflammation is beneficial
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 4
Pregunta
Cell damage results in the release of
Respuesta
-
Prostaglandins
-
Prostacyclines
-
Eiocosanoids
-
All of the above
Pregunta 5
Pregunta
A fundamental feature of inflammation is
Respuesta
-
Increase permeability of the microvasculature
-
Suppression of leukocytes
-
Relief of symptoms
-
Impaired quality of life
Pregunta 6
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a goal of treatment of inflammation?
Respuesta
-
Relief of symptoms
-
Maintenance of function
-
Slowing tissue damage
-
Short term control
Pregunta 7
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT considered a drug treatment of arthritis?
Respuesta
-
NSAIDS
-
Corticosteroids
-
DMARDS
-
Naltrexone
Pregunta 8
Pregunta
Which of the following is true about NSAIDS?
Respuesta
-
Increases the inflammatory pain response
-
COX-2 inhibitors can decrease the chance of cardiovascular effects
-
COX-2 inhibitors are found to cause Upper GI complications as well as lower GI complications
-
COX-2 selective drugs inhibit PG synthesis through selective inhibition of COX-2 isoenzyme
Pregunta 9
Pregunta
Which of the following is best against release of arachidonic acid?
Respuesta
-
ASA
-
Indomethacin
-
Corticosteroids
-
Acetominophen
Pregunta 10
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a physiologic effect of COX-1?
Respuesta
-
Production of TXA2
-
Regulate renal blood flow
-
Maintain mucosal integrity
-
Induce inflammation and pain
Pregunta 11
Pregunta
Choose ALL of the following that can be seen in OA
Respuesta
-
Bone loss
-
Thickened synovial membrane
-
Eroded cartilage
-
Bone spurs
-
Synovial changes
-
Degenerated cartilage
Pregunta 12
Pregunta
Which best describes Osteoarthritis?
Respuesta
-
Causes systemic symptoms
-
Radiographic findings of narrowed joint space and lipping of marginal bone
-
The least common form of joint disease
-
Can be diagnosed with laboratory findings
Pregunta 13
Pregunta
Prevalence of OA increased due to aging population and obesity
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 14
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a radiographic finding of OA?
Respuesta
-
Heberden nodes
-
Bouchard nodes
-
Thinning subchondral bone
-
Hypertrophy of bone at articular margins
Pregunta 15
Pregunta
OA is overtreated
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 16
Pregunta
Which of the following would NOT be effective to treat nociceptive and inflammatory pain syndromes?
Respuesta
-
NSAIDS
-
COX-2 selective inhibitors
-
Acetominophen
-
SNRIs
Pregunta 17
Pregunta
Which of the following would NOT be effective in treating neuropathic and functional pain syndromes?
Respuesta
-
Gabapentin
-
Amytriptyline
-
Venlafaxine (SNRI)
-
Opioids
Pregunta 18
Pregunta
Nociceptive and inflammatory pain are both adaptive (protective)
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 19
Pregunta
OA pain mechanisms are unknown
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 20
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a method of pain management in OA?
Respuesta
-
Intraarticular injections
-
Topical agents
-
Patient education
-
DMARDS
Pregunta 21
Pregunta
Which of the following is TRUE regarding acetominophen?
Respuesta
-
It has potenet anti-inflammatory activity
-
It acts as a prodrug, activating CB1 receptors in the CNS
-
The recommended daily max dose for alcoholics is 4g
-
It decreases risk of bleeding
Pregunta 22
Pregunta
95% of Acetaminophen is conjugated into NAPQ1, a toxic metabolite
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 23
Pregunta
Why does chronic ingestion of ethanol increase risk of hepatotoxicity?
Respuesta
-
Because ethanol induces the CYP2E1 enzymes
-
Because ethanol decreases the amount of glutathione, therefore there isn't enough to convert NAPQ1 into an inactive mtabolite
-
Because ethanol inhibits the CYP2E1enzyme
-
Because it inhibits conjugation of acetominophen
Pregunta 24
Pregunta
Why is acetylcysteine used as an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?
Respuesta
-
It acts as a precursor for glutathione
-
It is an expectorant, thus it expectorates acetominophen from the body
-
It inhibits the CYP2E1 enzymes
-
It induces the CYP2E1 enzyme
Pregunta 25
Pregunta
How do NSAIDs block the COX protein?
Respuesta
-
They block the hydrophobic channel of the COX protein where arachidonic acid binds
-
They block the production of arachidonic acid
-
They bind to Phospholipid A2
-
They bind to the COX protein, which causes inactivation of the enzyme
Pregunta 26
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT possible from the use of NSAIDs?
Respuesta
-
Dyspepsia
-
Gastropathology
-
Decrease renal blood flow resulting in renal ischemia
-
Thrombosis
Pregunta 27
Pregunta
Which of the following is true regarding -oxicam like drugs
Respuesta
-
It is a selective COX inhibitor
-
They inhibit collagenase and proteoglycanase
-
It has a short half-life and therefore requires multiple doses daily
-
Low percentage of patients report adverse effects
Pregunta 28
Pregunta
Which of the following is a possible side effect of -oxicam like drugs when taken for a long period of time?
Respuesta
-
Tinnitus
-
Thrombosis
-
CNS effects
-
Blurred vision
Pregunta 29
Pregunta
Fenamate derivatves are used for severe dysmenorrhea
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 30
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Indomethicin?
Respuesta
-
Used for spondylitis
-
It is an acetic acid derivative
-
Promotes closure of PDA
-
Used when ibuprofen is ineffective or not tolerated
Pregunta 31
Pregunta
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of Indomethacin?
Respuesta
-
Promotes the incorporation of arachidonic acid into triglycerides, thus reducing its availability for COX
-
Inhibits collagenase and proteoglycanase
-
Block the COX-2 enzyme ONLY
-
It is a folic acid analogue
Pregunta 32
Pregunta
Which of the following is true regarding ASA?
Respuesta
-
Decreases the duration of pregnancy
-
Used in treat fetal PDA
-
Reversibly binds to platelets so prolongs bleeding for one day
-
Can cause bronchoconstriction in ASA-sensitive asthmatics
Pregunta 33
Pregunta
Reye's syndrome develops in children who suffer a bacterial infection
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 34
Pregunta
Mr. Smith is a 70 year old male with history of inflammatory GI and gastric ulcers. You would like to prescribe NSAIDs to treat his OA. Which of the following drugs could you also co-prescribe to avoid worsening his other pre-existing conditions?
Respuesta
-
Cytotec
-
ASA
-
Sulindac
-
Naproxen
Pregunta 35
Pregunta
What advantage does Sulindac have over any other NSAID?
Respuesta
-
It causes less renal toxicity
-
It is a synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue
-
It has no significant effect on bleeding time because it is a Cox-2 inhibitor
-
It decreases gastric irritation
Pregunta 36
Pregunta
Long-term NSAID analgesic medication is perfectly acceptable in patients with history of CV disease
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 37
Pregunta
Which of the following drugs is MOST appropriate for a nursing mother?
Respuesta
-
ASA
-
Ibuprofen
-
Celecoxib
-
Ketorolac
Pregunta 38
Pregunta
Why does ASA interact with antihypertensives?
Respuesta
-
Because antihypertensives depend on renal PG to work
-
Because it can cause prolonged bleeding
-
Because ASA prevents excretion of antihypertensives
-
Because antihypertensives increase plasma levels of ASA
Pregunta 39
Pregunta
Why should you not use SSRIs in combination with NSAIDs?
Respuesta
-
Because they can increase the risk of upper GI bleed
-
Because they cause more CNS effects
-
Because together can cause increase in hypersensitivity reactions
-
Because together they can worsen bronchoconstrition
Pregunta 40
Pregunta
The use of anticoagulants and ________ has caused reported fatal hemorrhages
Respuesta
-
ASA
-
NSAIDS
-
Acetominophen
-
Both A and B
Pregunta 41
Pregunta
Choose ALL of the following drugs whose renal clearance is reduced due to use of ASAs and NSAIDS
Respuesta
-
Digoxin
-
Methotrexate
-
Anticoagulants
-
Ethanol
Pregunta 42
Pregunta
High ASA dose can inhibit the metabolism of which drug?
Respuesta
-
Valproic acid
-
Methotrexate
-
Digoxin
-
Cyclosporine
Pregunta 43
Pregunta
Which of the following drugs should be avoided in patients with sulfa allergy (according to Foong, not Chand)?
Respuesta
-
Celecoxib
-
Sulfasalazine
-
Sulfinpyrazone
-
Cyclosporine
Pregunta 44
Pregunta
Celecoxib is metabolized by CYP 2D6
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 45
Pregunta
Which of the following drugs does NOT interact with COX-2 inhibitors?
Respuesta
-
ACE inhibitors
-
Fluconazole
-
Rifampin
-
Valproic acid
Pregunta 46
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of COX-2 inhibitors?
Respuesta
-
Bleeding time
-
Gastric disorder
-
Bronchoconstriction
-
Cardiovascular toxicity
Pregunta 47
Pregunta
Celecoxib and Ibuprofen are overall similar, except for cost, GI effects, and bleeding time effects
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 48
Pregunta
High carb diet can decrease absorption of acetominophen
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 49
Pregunta
SSRIs are more effective than TCAs as adjuvant analgesics
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 50
Pregunta
How can you delay absorption of ASA?
Respuesta
-
Increase pH
-
Food
-
Decrease pH
-
A and B
Pregunta 51
Pregunta
Under normal conditions, which of the following prevents platelet aggregation?
Respuesta
-
PG12
-
PGE2
-
TXA2
-
Both A and B
Pregunta 52
Pregunta
Phospholipase A2 is activated by which of the following?
Respuesta
-
Cytokines
-
Growth factors
-
LPS
-
All of the above
Pregunta 53
Pregunta
Which of the following medications can lower the seizure threshold?
Respuesta
-
Tramadol
-
Morphine
-
Codeine
-
Vicodin
Pregunta 54
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a substrate of CYP2D6?
Respuesta
-
Codeine
-
Tramadol
-
Oxycodone
-
Celecoxib
Pregunta 55
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a clinical use of Naltrexone?
Respuesta
-
Opioid overdose
-
Treatment of alcohol dependence
-
Prevent opioid addiction
-
Analgesia during the induction and maintenance of general anesthesia
Pregunta 56
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT true regarding tramadol?
Respuesta
-
Its active metabolite has a greater affinity for mu receptors than codeine
-
Inhibits reuptake of NE and 5HT
-
Suppresses cough reflex
-
Has a quick onset of action
Pregunta 57
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT true regarding opioids with mixed mechanisms?
Respuesta
-
Large doses can cause anxiety and dysphoria
-
They may antagonize action of opioids
-
Respiratory depression has a ceiling effect
-
Has full agonist effect at mu receptors, thus increasing addiction liability
Pregunta 58
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an indication for use of opioids with mixed mechanisms?
Respuesta
-
Obstetric analgesia during labor and delivery
-
Pre and post operative analgesia
-
Orally for mild pain
-
These are all indications
Pregunta 59
Pregunta
OA primarily attacks the joints but also skn, lungs, vessels and muscles
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 60
Pregunta
Rheumatoid arthritis, along with bacterial endocarditis and SLE, is found to have elevated levels of autoantibodies against
Respuesta
-
Rheumatoid factor
-
IgG
-
IgA
-
None of the above
Pregunta 61
Pregunta
Rheumatoid can occur at any age
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 62
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a goal of treating RA
Respuesta
-
Active patient and family participation
-
Preservation of function
-
Prevent deformity
-
These are all objectives
Pregunta 63
Pregunta
Successful treatment of RA is seen with when ________ are started immediately
Respuesta
-
Biological DMARDs
-
Non-biological DMARDs
-
Acetominophen
-
NSAIDs
Pregunta 64
Pregunta
What is the role of glucocorticoids in RA
Respuesta
-
Slow bone erosion and prevent new bone erosion
-
Reverse bone erosion
-
Prevent secondary fungal infection
-
Increase blood sugar
Pregunta 65
Pregunta
Newer biologic DMARDs are known to
Respuesta
-
Mask serious infections (bacterial or fungal)
-
Cause leukopenia
-
Cause thrombocytopenia
-
All of the above
Pregunta 66
Pregunta
Which of the following DMARDs is a folic acid analogue that may also increase adenosine levels?
Respuesta
-
Methotrexate
-
Leflunomide
-
Hydroxychloroquine
-
Penicillamine
Pregunta 67
Pregunta
Which of the following drugs requires monthly monitoring of CBC, liver, and renal function
Respuesta
-
Methotrexate
-
Leflunomide
-
Gold
-
Minocycline
Pregunta 68
Pregunta
Use of methotrexate increases risk of hepatotoxicity with fibrosis and cirrhosis
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 69
Pregunta
Which of the following DMARDs blocks synthesis of UMP, thus reducing B and T cell populations?
Respuesta
-
Methotrexate
-
Leflunomide
-
Minocycline
-
Hydroxychloroquine
Pregunta 70
Pregunta
Leflunomide is currently used for
Respuesta
-
RA
-
SLE
-
Myasthenia gravis
-
All of the above
Pregunta 71
Pregunta
Cholestyramine can be given to clear hydroxychloroquine from the system quickly
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 72
Pregunta
How does Hydroxychloroquine work against RA?
Respuesta
-
Inhibits chemotaxis of eosinophils and neutrophils
-
It is a pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor
-
It inhibits macrophages responsible for inflammation
-
It inhibits matrix metalloproteinase
Pregunta 73
Pregunta
Which drug causes the least toxicity?
Respuesta
-
Hydroxychloroquine
-
Methotrexate
-
Leflunomide
-
TNF inhibitors
Pregunta 74
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine?
Respuesta
-
Pigmentary retinitis
-
Irreversible myopathies
-
Photophobia
-
Visual loss
Pregunta 75
Pregunta
Which of the following is a mechanism of Minocycline
Respuesta
-
Matrixmetalloproteinase inhibitor
-
Inhibits inflammatory cell migration and transformation of lymphocytes
-
Both A and B
-
None of the above
Pregunta 76
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Chrysotherapy?
Respuesta
-
It is erratically absorbed orally
-
It acts by inhibition of macrophages responsible for inflammation
-
It is excreted through the kidneys
-
The intravenous route is preferred
Pregunta 77
Pregunta
Which of the following is true regarding the use of cyclophosphamide in the use of RA?
Respuesta
-
Increases bone erosion
-
It is used to reverse the progression of RA
-
It s used in patients where other anti-inflammatory drugs have been successful
-
Causes hematuria
Pregunta 78
Pregunta
Each of the following is a mechanism of penicillamine except
Respuesta
-
Reduces numbers of T-lymphocytes
-
Decreases IL-1 and rheumatoid factor
-
Prevents collagen from cross-linking
-
Inhibits inflammatory cell migration
Pregunta 79
Pregunta
Monitoring the CBC and liver enzymes is necessary when taking which drug?
Respuesta
-
Leflunomide
-
Gold
-
Penicillamine
-
None of the above
Pregunta 80
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of penicillamine?
Respuesta
-
Bone marrow suppression
-
Dysgeusia
-
Anorexia
-
Dizziness
Pregunta 81
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage when using biological DMARDs?
Respuesta
-
They are very expensive
-
They increase risk of bcterial infections
-
Demyelination can occur
-
These are all disadvantages of biological DMARDs
Pregunta 82
Pregunta
Biological DMARDs are not recommended until at least one non-biological DMARD has been administered without sufficient success
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 83
Pregunta
Which of the following is FALSE regarding TNF inhibitors such as Entanercept?
Respuesta
-
They inhibit cytokines, thus preventing PG production and up-regulation of COX-2
-
They decrease joint destruction
-
They are also used for Crohn's disease
-
They prevent latent infections such as fungal or tuberculoid
Pregunta 84
Pregunta
Which of the following is true regarding rituximab?
Respuesta
-
Not used with methotrexate
-
Rash occurs in 30% of patients
-
No cardiovascular effects
-
It is a T-cell activation inhibitor
Pregunta 85
Pregunta
Rituximab depletes B lymphocytes by apoptosis
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 86
Pregunta
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of abatacept?
Respuesta
-
Prevents T-cell activation by complexing with 'co-stimulatory' molecules
-
Inhibits cytokines such as TNF alpha/IL-1 thus preventing PG production
-
Targets CD20 and depletes T lymphocytes
-
All of the above
Pregunta 87
Pregunta
Abatacept cannot be used as monotherapy but can be used combination with other DMARDS
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 88
Pregunta
Which of the following is best described as "unique" and caused by deposition of urate crystals in joints
Respuesta
-
Gout
-
Rheumatoid
-
Osteoartritis
-
Kidney stones
Pregunta 89
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT one of the four stages of gout?
Respuesta
-
Tophi
-
Asymptomatic hyperuricemic
-
Intercritical
-
These are all stages of gout
Pregunta 90
Pregunta
Which of the following would not be used for gout
Respuesta
-
NSAIDs
-
Colchine
-
Allopurinol
-
Rituximab
Pregunta 91
Pregunta
Colchicine can be used in low doses as prophylaxis for acute attacks of gout
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 92
Pregunta
Colchicine can be taken continuously at high doses
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 93
Pregunta
Colchicine limits the inflammatory response by which of the following mechanisms?
Respuesta
-
Decreasing motility of neutrophils
-
Deactivating URAT 1 transporter
-
Inhibit cytokines such as TNF alpha/IL-1 thus preventing PG production and up-regulation of COX-2
-
All of the above
Pregunta 94
Pregunta
Which drug shares the same mechanism as Allopurinol?
Respuesta
-
Febuxostate
-
Cochicine
-
Methotrexate
-
Probenecid
Pregunta 95
Pregunta
Why can't allopurinol be used for monotherapy?
Respuesta
-
Because it does not have any anti-inflammatory effects
-
Because it has no uric acid prevention mechanism
-
Because allopurinol only works in the presence of colchicine
-
Because it only works in the presence of NSAIDs
Pregunta 96
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Allopurinol?
Respuesta
-
Steven Johnson rash
-
Hepatic necrosis
-
Vomiting
-
Renal stones
Pregunta 97
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Probenecid
Respuesta
-
It deactivates the URAT 1 transporter, thus preveting reabsorption of urate
-
Can cause renal stones
-
Used for treatment of chronic hyperuricemia
-
Makes uric acid levels fall which causes more crystal deposition in the synovium
Pregunta 98
Pregunta
Febuxostat requires dose adjustment during renal insufficiency
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 99
Pregunta
Which of the following gout medications could also be useful in a patient with hypertension
Respuesta
-
Losartan
-
Sulfinpyrazone
-
Glucocorticoids
-
Febuxostate
Pregunta 100
Pregunta
Which of the following has a similar mechanism to Probenecid but should be used with caution in patients taking anticoagulants?
Respuesta
-
Losartan
-
Sulfinpyrazone
-
Glucocorticoids
-
None of the above
Pregunta 101
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT true regarding SLE?
Respuesta
-
Can be cause by environmental factors
-
Increased IgA production
-
Failure to remove immune complexes from circulation can lead to vasculitis and disease
-
There is impaired T cell regulation
Pregunta 102
Pregunta
There is a prevalence of SLE in women. One possible reason for this is because
Respuesta
-
Calcium is a B-cell stimulator
-
IL-10 is a B-cell stimulator
-
Estrogen is a B-cell stimulator
-
Prolactin is a B-cell stimulator
Pregunta 103
Pregunta
Increased levels of erythrocyte sedimentation rate is specific to SLE
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 104
Pregunta
For treatment of SLE, we should NOT use drugs with
Respuesta
-
the least side effects
-
the lowerst dose to control disease
-
long term damage prevention
-
steroids in mild disease
Pregunta 105
Pregunta
Corticosteroids can cause muscle wasting
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 106
Pregunta
What is a concern with abruptly withdrawing corticosteroids?
Respuesta
-
Possible adrenal insufficiency
-
Infection
-
Retinitis
-
Immunosuppresion
Pregunta 107
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the use of hydroxychloroquine?
Respuesta
-
Exact mechanism is unknown
-
May lead to regression of skin lesions
-
May improve psoriasis
-
Ophthalmologic examinations should be performed prior to administration and periodically after
Pregunta 108
Pregunta
What leads to the formation of PGE2 and PGI2?
Respuesta
-
B1
-
B2
-
Protons
-
ATP
Pregunta 109
Pregunta
Which of the following does NOT use a voltage-gated calcium channel?
Respuesta
-
Ziconitide
-
Omega-conotoxin
-
Gabapentin
-
Glutamate
Pregunta 110
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a common mediator in peripheral sensitization?
Respuesta
-
Glutamate
-
Bradykinins
-
Protons
-
NGF
Pregunta 111
Pregunta
For peripheral sensitization, which of the following is NOT used to target analgesia?
Respuesta
-
ASA
-
COX-2 inhibitors
-
Indomethicin
-
Acetominophen
Pregunta 112
Pregunta
Which of the following does NOT contribute to central sensitization?
Respuesta
-
Nitric oxide synthase
-
Glutamate
-
Substance P
-
Bradykinins
Pregunta 113
Pregunta
L-NAME can be used to inhibit NOS which prevents further retrograde stimulation of glutamate release
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 114
Pregunta
Which ion is usually associated with NMDA in its inactive state ?
Respuesta
-
Magnesium
-
Sodium
-
Calcium
-
Potassium
Pregunta 115
Pregunta
Which of the following inhibits the dissociation of Mg from the NMDA receptor, thus preventing activation?
Respuesta
-
Ketamine
-
DM
-
GABA
-
Both A and B
-
Both A and C
Pregunta 116
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of opioids?
Respuesta
-
They activate descending PAG neurons
-
They directly activate opioid receptors
-
They activate descending NMR and LC neurons
-
They activate presynaptic potassium channels which decreases conductance
Pregunta 117
Pregunta
Which of the following opioid receptors does NOT mediate the main pharmacological effects of opiates?
Respuesta
-
Mu
-
Kappa
-
Delta
-
Epsilon
Pregunta 118
Pregunta
Which opioid receptor subunit is responsible for most of the analgesic effects along with some unwanted effects?
Respuesta
-
Mu
-
Kappa
-
Delta
-
Sigma
Pregunta 119
Pregunta
Opioid receptor activation is G-coupled
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 120
Pregunta
Select ALL of the strong opiods
Respuesta
-
Morphine
-
Meperidine
-
Methadone
-
Fentanyl
-
Codeine
-
Oxycodone
-
Pentazocine
-
Hydrocodone
Pregunta 121
Pregunta
Select ALL of the pure opioid agonists
Respuesta
-
Morphine
-
Hydromorphone
-
Codeine
-
Oxycodone
-
Meperidine
-
Fentanyl
-
Pentazocine
-
Naloxone
-
Naltrexone
-
Buprenorphine
Pregunta 122
Pregunta
Opiod pure agonists have a higher affinity for_________ receptors.
Respuesta
-
Mu
-
Kappa
-
Delta
-
B and C
Pregunta 123
Pregunta
Pentazocine is an antagonist at the ___________ receptor, but a partial agonist at the _____________ receptor.
Respuesta
-
Mu; Kappa and delta
-
Kappa; Mu and delta
-
Delta; kappa and mu
-
Mu; Kappa and sigma
Pregunta 124
Pregunta
Most mixed mechanism opioids cause
Respuesta
-
Dysphoria
-
Euphoria
-
Respiratory depression
-
Physical dependence
Pregunta 125
Pregunta
Which peripherally acting opioid antagonist can be used to reduce post-op ileus and opioid-induced constipation?
Respuesta
-
Alvimopan
-
Morphine
-
Naltrexone
-
Pentazocine
Pregunta 126
Pregunta
Opioids have a ceiling effect
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 127
Pregunta
Which of the following does NOT have a 90% first pass effect?
Respuesta
-
Morphine
-
Codeine
-
Hydromorphone
-
Meperidine
Pregunta 128
Pregunta
Which of the following receptors does codeine activate?
Respuesta
-
Kappa
-
Delta
-
Mu
-
Both B and C
Pregunta 129
Pregunta
How is morphine excreted?
Respuesta
-
Renally
-
Through the bile
-
Both and A and B
-
None of the above
Pregunta 130
Pregunta
How is codeine excreted?
Respuesta
-
Renally
-
Through breast milk
-
Hepatic
-
Both A and B
-
Both A and C
Pregunta 131
Pregunta
Which of the following is true?
Respuesta
-
Codeine is a more effective analgesia than morphine
-
Codeine provides little euphoria
-
Physical dependence is common in users of low daily dose
-
No risk of opiate withdrawal symptoms with sudden stop
Pregunta 132
Pregunta
Codeine does not cause tolerance over prolonged use
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 133
Pregunta
Which of the following is an alternative to codeine when a weak opiod is required?
Respuesta
-
Meperidine
-
Fentanyl
-
Propoxyphene
-
Oxycodone
Pregunta 134
Pregunta
Which of the following is an alternative to codeine when a strong opiod is required?
Respuesta
-
Morphine
-
Meperidine
-
Propoxyphene
-
Fentanyl
Pregunta 135
Pregunta
Which of the following is equipotent to morphine but has greater oral efficacy?
Respuesta
-
Methadone
-
Meperidine
-
Codeine
-
Fentanyl
Pregunta 136
Pregunta
Which of the following is used to treat opioid addiction?
Respuesta
-
Methadone
-
Meperidine
-
Morphine
-
Codeine
Pregunta 137
Pregunta
Which of the following opioids can prolong QT interval
Respuesta
-
Methadone
-
Meperidine
-
Morphine
-
Fentanyl
Pregunta 138
Pregunta
Methadone has a long duration and therefore can be given has a single dose daily
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 139
Pregunta
It is better to give meperidine orally rather than IV because it decreases risk of anxiety and other CNS side effects
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 140
Pregunta
Which of the following is correct, starting with the least potent to the most potent
Respuesta
-
Fentanyl<morphine<codeine
-
Fentanyl<codeine<morphine
-
Morphine<codeine<fentanyl
-
Codeine<morphine<fentanyl
Pregunta 141
Pregunta
Which of the following is NOT true regarding fentanyl?
Respuesta
-
It may induce skeletal rigidity at high doses
-
Does NOT cause histamine release
-
Smaller safety margin than morphine
-
Minimal respiration depression
Pregunta 142
Pregunta
There is no ceiling effect of respiratory depression with use of opioids with mixed mechanisms
Respuesta
- True
- False
Pregunta 143
Pregunta
Which of the following is an advantage of fentanyl patches?
Respuesta
-
Good if concerned about drug abuse
-
Quick onset
-
Residual activity after patch is removed
-
It's cheap
Pregunta 144
Pregunta
Which of the following is true regarding opioids with mixed mechanisms
Respuesta
-
May antagonize action of opioid agonists
-
Increases addiction liability
-
Small doses can cause hallucinations
-
Large doses can cause euphoria
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