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Vaccines, Preventative Care and Neonatology

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Pediatric pharmacy questions from BGCOP Spring 2018
Cara Carter
Quiz por Cara Carter, atualizado more than 1 year ago
Cara Carter
Criado por Cara Carter mais de 6 anos atrás
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Resumo de Recurso

Questão 1

Questão
When is a glucose tolerance test conducted during pregnancy?
Responda
  • As soon as the pregnancy is discovered
  • At 36 weeks when the pregnancy is at term
  • 24-28 weeks
  • 35-37 weeks

Questão 2

Questão
When should a group B strep culture be conducted during a pregnancy?
Responda
  • At the end of the 1st trimester
  • 35-37 weeks
  • 24-28 weeks
  • 27-36 weeks

Questão 3

Questão
During what time period should a pregnant mother receive a Tdap?
Responda
  • 27-36 weeks
  • Prior to conception
  • At birth/delivery
  • 35-37 weeks

Questão 4

Questão
What are the ABC's of initial pediatric assessment? (Check all that apply)
Responda
  • Breathing
  • Activity
  • Appearance
  • Blinking
  • Conciousness
  • Circulation

Questão 5

Questão
Newborn screening test newborns for conditions that are not detected by physical examination.
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 6

Questão
What diseases can be detected by newborn screening? (Check all that apply)
Responda
  • Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
  • Sickle Cell Disease
  • Cystic Fibrosis
  • Endometriosis
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Homocystinuria
  • PKU
  • Primary Congenital Hypothyroidism

Questão 7

Questão
Breastfeeding should be started within the first [blank_start]hour[blank_end] of life and continued for at [blank_start]least[blank_end] [blank_start]six[blank_end] months.
Responda
  • day
  • hour
  • minute
  • week
  • least
  • most
  • twelve
  • five
  • nine
  • six

Questão 8

Questão
Babies being placed on their back to sleep came from the 1994 "Back to Sleep" campaign to reduce what?
Responda
  • Neonatal Abstinence Syndrome
  • Infant Suffication
  • Asthma
  • Sudden Infant Death Syndrome

Questão 9

Questão
At what age should children play peek-a-boo, say mama or dada and stand alone or take steps?
Responda
  • 12 months
  • 18 months
  • 24 months
  • 9 months

Questão 10

Questão
Children should display what developmental milestones at 2 years? (Select all that apply)
Responda
  • Name items in a picture book
  • Complete potty-training
  • Show defiant behavior
  • Construct short sentences

Questão 11

Questão
An oral syringe should always be used to dose liquids for children.
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 12

Questão
[blank_start]1-800-222-1222[blank_end] is the phone number to poison control.
Responda
  • 1-800-222-1222

Questão 13

Questão
Things that can fit through a toilet paper roll can kill a child under 5.
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 14

Questão
Which of the following are reasons that pediatric pharmacokinetics are different than adult pharmacokinetics?
Responda
  • CYP450 enzymes are still developing
  • Infants lack significant stomach acid
  • All of these are reasons
  • Infants have more body water

Questão 15

Questão
Which of the following is not a reason for increased percutaneous drug absorption in pediatrics?
Responda
  • Children have larger surface area to mass ratio
  • Children have greater skin hydration
  • Children have greater muscle mass
  • Children have thinner skin

Questão 16

Questão
A higher percentage of body water in infants leads to a larger volume of distribution
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 17

Questão
Why do infants and neonates have higher free fraction of drugs?
Responda
  • Higher body water percentage
  • Lower protein stores
  • Lower muscle mass
  • Higher surface area to body mass ratio

Questão 18

Questão
What dose should be the absolute maximum dose for an obese child?
Responda
  • The extrapolated dose based on the child's weight
  • The dose at which results are seen
  • The adult maximum dose
  • The dose at which providers are comfortable with based on individual factors

Questão 19

Questão
What is meconium?
Responda
  • A term used for the first cry
  • A term used for the first bowel movement
  • A term used to describe the birth crawl
  • An element on the periodic table that only infants possess

Questão 20

Questão
Why is the APGAR scoring system used?
Responda
  • To determine if an infant is normal at birth
  • To determine if the infant will experience genetic abnormalities through out life
  • To assess for disease at birth
  • To put parents at ease

Questão 21

Questão
The first A in APGAR stands for [blank_start]appearance[blank_end] and is used to determine if a neonate's [blank_start]color[blank_end] is normal.
Responda
  • appearance
  • activity
  • angiogenesis
  • color
  • muscle tone
  • visible blood vessels

Questão 22

Questão
The P in APGAR stands for [blank_start]pulse[blank_end]
Responda
  • pulse

Questão 23

Questão
The GAR in APGAR stands for which of the following
Responda
  • Grimace, Activity, Respiration
  • Grin, Action, Respiration
  • Grimace, Action, Reflex
  • Grim, Activity, Reflex

Questão 24

Questão
Which of the following prophylaxis treatments and disorders are correctly matched
Responda
  • Gonococcal ophthalmia-erythromycin ointment or silver nitrate solution
  • Chlamydia- Oral amoxicillin
  • Vitamin K deficiency- IM phytonadione
  • Platelet aggregation-enoxaparin

Questão 25

Questão
What is respiratory distress syndrome?
Responda
  • The name given to a condition in which infants are born with only one lung
  • A developmental disorder in which lungs are immature at birth
  • Cystic Fibrosis when diagnosed in utero
  • Lack of airway operation due to asthma or COPD at birth

Questão 26

Questão
[blank_start]Surfactant[blank_end] deficiency, poor [blank_start]muscle[blank_end] development and incomplete development in the lungs are common causes of respiratory distress syndrome and typically seen in neonates less than [blank_start]28[blank_end] weeks.
Responda
  • 28
  • Surfactant
  • muscle

Questão 27

Questão
Which of the following is a common sign that an infant is struggling to breath?
Responda
  • Nasal flaring
  • Nasal salute
  • Excessive sleeping
  • Hyperactivity

Questão 28

Questão
Why is surfactant given to neonates experiencing respiratory distress syndrome? (Select all that apply)
Responda
  • It is the most simple and quickest treatment
  • To cause an increase in alveolar surface tension
  • It has been proven to reduce mortality and morbidity
  • None of these
  • All of these
  • To replace deficient amounts

Questão 29

Questão
What are tocolytics?
Responda
  • Drugs used to induce labor or contractions
  • Drugs used to stop labor or contractions
  • Drugs used during a cesarean section
  • Drugs used to increase fetal lung development

Questão 30

Questão
[blank_start]Indomethacin[blank_end] is given at 24-32 weeks to halt labor while [blank_start]calcium channel blockers[blank_end] are given at 32-34 weeks. [blank_start]magnesium sulfate[blank_end] is used for neuroprotective effects.
Responda
  • Indomethacin
  • Calcium Channel Blockers
  • Magnesium sulfate
  • calcium channel blockers
  • magnesium sulfate
  • indomethacin
  • magnesium sulfate
  • indomethacin
  • calcium channel blockers

Questão 31

Questão
Antenatal steroids are given to treat respiratory distress syndrome. Why?
Responda
  • They are thought to decrease overall morbidity and mortality
  • They decrease the incidence of intraventricular hemorrhage
  • They decrease the incidence of patent ductus arteriosus
  • All of these are reasons to give antenatal steriods

Questão 32

Questão
Which of the following drugs and drug classes is correctly matched as first line therapy for bronchopulmonary dysplasia?
Responda
  • HCTZ (Diuretic)
  • Theophylline (Bronchodialator)
  • Inhaled Prednisone (Corticosteroid)
  • Furosemide (Potassium supplement)

Questão 33

Questão
Hypoxemia, reflex bradycardia, resuscitation and organ damage are concerns of what condition associated with prematurity?
Responda
  • Low birth weight
  • Respiratory distress syndrome
  • Apnea
  • Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia

Questão 34

Questão
There is a positive correlation between the incidence of neonatal apnea and [blank_start]low birth weight[blank_end]
Responda
  • low birth weight
  • fetal lung development
  • cystic fibrosis
  • asthma

Questão 35

Questão
Prevention of apnea is thought to occur by competitively inhibiting adenosine. Which of the following drugs is thought to do this and thus is used to treat apnea?
Responda
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Theophylline
  • Caffeine
  • Azothioprine

Questão 36

Questão
In utero the blood flow from the placenta goes through the [blank_start]right[blank_end] side of the heart and bypasses the lungs via the [blank_start]ductus arteriosus[blank_end]
Responda
  • ductus arteriosus
  • right

Questão 37

Questão
What is the name of the condition when the ductus does not normally close on its own?
Responda
  • Open ductus
  • Patent ductus arteriosus
  • Infantile coronary artery syndrome
  • Early onset atrial fibrilation

Questão 38

Questão
What pharmacologic therapy is used to treat patent ductus arteriosus?
Responda
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Calcium Channel Blockers
  • Beta Blockers
  • Prostaglandin inhibitors

Questão 39

Questão
Ductal dependent [blank_start]congenital heart disease[blank_end] is the only reason to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.
Responda
  • congenital heart disease
  • congenital heart defect
  • arteriole bypass
  • arteriole stenosis

Questão 40

Questão
This drug causes vasodilation by direct effect on vascular and ductus arteriosus smooth muscle to keep the patent ductus arteriosus open.
Responda
  • Ibuprofen
  • Indomethacin
  • Pseudophedrine
  • Alprostail

Questão 41

Questão
Match each of the congenital heart defects with their descriptions [blank_start]Atrial Septal Defect[blank_end] -Opening between atria [blank_start]Ventricular Septal Defect[blank_end] -Opening between ventricles [blank_start]Coarctation of Aorta[blank_end] -Narrowing of the aorta [blank_start]Transposition of Great Arteries[blank_end] -Vessel connection of aorta and pulmonary artery [blank_start]Tetralogy of Fallot[blank_end] -Opening between ventricles, right ventricular outflow obstruction and right aorta shift [blank_start]Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome[blank_end] -Underdeveloped left ventricle, opening between atria, small aorta, vessel connecting aorta and pulmonary artery
Responda
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Atrial Septal Defect
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Coarctation of Aorta
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Atrial Sepatal Defect
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Coarctation of Aorta
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Atrial Septal Defect
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Coarctation of Aorta
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Atrial Septal Defect
  • Coarctation of Aorta
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Coarctation of Aorta
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Atrial Septal Defect
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Tetralogy of Fallot
  • Transposition of Great Arteries
  • Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
  • Atrial Septal Defect
  • Ventricular Septal Defect
  • Coarctation of Aorta

Questão 42

Questão
Early onset sepsis occurs in the first [blank_start]7 days[blank_end], typically manifests as [blank_start]pneumonia[blank_end] and is caused by bacteria from [blank_start]the mother[blank_end]. Late onset sepsis occurs afters the first [blank_start]7 days[blank_end], typically manifests as [blank_start]meningitis and sepsis[blank_end] and is caused by bacteria from [blank_start]the environment[blank_end].
Responda
  • 7 days
  • 14 days
  • 30 days
  • 90 days
  • pneumonia
  • ear infection
  • difficulty breathing
  • heart problems
  • the mother
  • the environment
  • formula
  • neonatal cleaning
  • 7 days
  • 14 days
  • 30 days
  • 90 days
  • meningitis and sepsis
  • cold
  • pneumonia
  • cystic fibrosis
  • the environment
  • formula feedings
  • the mother
  • nosicomial setting

Questão 43

Questão
Listeria monocytogenes, E. Coli, Group B strep and H. influemzae are the common bacteria causing what?
Responda
  • The common cold
  • Hospital Acquired Pneumonia in infants
  • Early Onset Sepsis
  • Late Onset Sepsis

Questão 44

Questão
Which of the the following are typically used to treat early onset sepsis? (Select all that apply)
Responda
  • Amoxicillin +/- Clavulanate
  • Ampicillin
  • Levofloxacin
  • Zosyn
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Cefotaxime
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Ceftaroline

Questão 45

Questão
Late onset sepsis is usually treated with what?
Responda
  • Rest and BRAT diet
  • Broad spectrum antibiotics
  • Anti-viral or anti-retroviral therapy
  • Amoxicillin

Questão 46

Questão
TORCH is an acronym for a group of diseases that cause what due to in utero exposure?
Responda
  • congenital conditions
  • chronic conditions
  • neurodegenerative conditions
  • genetic conditions

Questão 47

Questão
The acronym TORCH stands for [blank_start]taxoplasmosis[blank_end], [blank_start]other[blank_end], [blank_start]rubella[blank_end], [blank_start]cytomegalovirus[blank_end], [blank_start]herpes infection[blank_end].
Responda
  • taxoplasmosis
  • trichomoniasis
  • other
  • oligobacteria
  • rubella
  • rabies
  • cytomegalovirus
  • Chlamydia
  • herpes infection
  • H. influenzae

Questão 48

Questão
Toxoplasmosis is caused by [blank_start]Toxoplasma gondii[blank_end] which is a [blank_start]protozoan parasite[blank_end] found in the feces of [blank_start]cats[blank_end] and contaminated [blank_start]meat or vegetables[blank_end].
Responda
  • Toxoplasma gondii
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Toxoplasma denticola
  • bacteria
  • protozoan parasite
  • virus
  • cats
  • dogs
  • fish
  • hamsters/rodents
  • meat or vegetables
  • fruit or vegetables
  • beans or poultry

Questão 49

Questão
Select all correctly matched congenitally acquired infectious diseases and their treatments
Responda
  • Vibrio cholerae- Amoxicillin
  • Trepodema pallidum -Penicillin G for 10 days
  • E. coli -Vancomycin
  • Streptococcus faecalis - Ceftriaxone
  • Klebsiella pneumoniae -Metronidazole
  • Cytomegalovirus -Ganciclovir

Questão 50

Questão
Match the congenitally acquired infectious diseases with their treatment. Chlamydia trachomatis -[blank_start]systemic erythromycin or azithromycin[blank_end] [blank_start]Hepatitis B[blank_end] - Vaccine and HBIG within 12 hours of birth Herpes Simplex - [blank_start]High dose acyclovir[blank_end]
Responda
  • systemic erythromycin or azithromycin
  • oral vancomycin
  • IM cefazolin
  • Hepatitis A
  • Hepatitis B
  • Hepatitis C
  • HIV
  • High dose acyclovir
  • Low dose valacyclovir
  • Gancyclovir
  • Valgancyclovir

Questão 51

Questão
Finnergan Score is used to assess [blank_start]neonatal abstinence syndrome[blank_end].
Responda
  • neonatal abstinence syndrome

Questão 52

Questão
Which of the following are first line treatments for neonatal abstinence syndrome? (Select all that apply)
Responda
  • diazepam
  • morphine
  • hydromorphone
  • oxycodone
  • phenobarbital
  • methadone
  • clonidine
  • pseudoephedrine

Questão 53

Questão
[blank_start]TDAP[blank_end] vaccine is recommended more for the protection of children and infants and should be given every 10 years.
Responda
  • TDAP

Questão 54

Questão
What recombinant vaccine is recommended for immunocompromised individuals aged 50 and older?
Responda
  • Tdap
  • Shingrix
  • HiB
  • Prevnar 13

Questão 55

Questão
[blank_start]High dose[blank_end] or [blank_start]adjuvanted IIV[blank_end] are formulation of influenza vaccines recommended for people aged 65 and older.
Responda
  • High dose
  • IM
  • Intranasal
  • low dose
  • adjuvanted IIV
  • recombinant

Questão 56

Questão
Prevnar (PCV 13) and Pneumovax (PPSV23) are pneumococcal vaccinces recommended for whom?
Responda
  • Adults 65 and older
  • Adults 55 and older with a comorbidity
  • Immunocompetent individuals
  • A and C
  • All of the above
  • None of the above

Questão 57

Questão
The maximum number of doses of Pneumovax (PPSV23) that any person should receive is [blank_start]three[blank_end] with each dose being a minimum of [blank_start]five[blank_end] [blank_start]years[blank_end] apart.
Responda
  • three
  • two
  • four
  • five
  • five
  • three
  • two
  • four
  • years
  • months
  • days
  • weeks

Questão 58

Questão
When is the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine given?
Responda
  • At the first well baby check up
  • At birth
  • At 3 months
  • At hospital discharge

Questão 59

Questão
The minimum age for HPV vaccination is what?
Responda
  • thirteen in boys and nine in girls
  • nine
  • thirteen
  • nine in boys and thirteen in girls
  • puberty in box sexes

Questão 60

Questão
The [blank_start]second[blank_end] dose of the meningococcal vaccine is given at [blank_start]sixteen[blank_end].
Responda
  • second
  • first
  • third
  • thirteen
  • sixteen
  • eighteen

Questão 61

Questão
IIV formulation of the influenza vaccine can be given at what age minimum?
Responda
  • No age minimum
  • 5 years
  • 12 months
  • 6 months

Questão 62

Questão
What vaccines are recommended for all pregnant women? (Select all that apply)
Responda
  • Tdap
  • Influenza
  • DTap
  • HiB
  • Herpes Zoster

Questão 63

Questão
Adults younger than 60 years old with [blank_start]diabetes[blank_end] are a high risk indication for the [blank_start]Hepatitis B[blank_end] vaccine
Responda
  • Hepatitis B
  • diabetes

Questão 64

Questão
Patients who smoke cigarettes should receive what vaccine if they are older than 18 and younger than 65?
Responda
  • Influenza
  • Hepatitis B
  • Pneumovax (PPSV23)
  • Tdap

Questão 65

Questão
Which of the following should be given to an AIDs patient (CD4 less than 200)?
Responda
  • Shingles
  • Varicella
  • MMR
  • All of these
  • None of these

Questão 66

Questão
An aspleenic person should be given which of the following vaccines to protect against encapsulated organisms? (Select all that apply)
Responda
  • HiB
  • Pneumococcal
  • Meningococcal
  • Influenza
  • Varicella
  • MMR

Questão 67

Questão
Proper hydration and arm movement do what post-immunization?
Responda
  • Nothing
  • Reduce soreness
  • Provide synergistic effects for the vaccine
  • Prevent post-vaccine illness

Questão 68

Questão
What year was mercury removed from vaccines except multidose flu vials?
Responda
  • 1995
  • 2000
  • 2005
  • 2010

Questão 69

Questão
Acetaminophen and Ibuprofen have been shown to reduce what?
Responda
  • Inflammation after vaccination
  • Immune response after vaccination
  • Vaccine associated fever
  • All of these

Questão 70

Questão
Undervaccinated or unvaccincated people exposed to diseases in other countries are typically patient 0 during outbreaks.
Responda
  • True
  • False

Questão 71

Questão
What vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy
Responda
  • All vaccines
  • Live vaccines
  • Conjugate vaccines
  • Toxoid vaccines

Questão 72

Questão
What is the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices?
Responda
  • The group who approves vaccine schedules
  • A division of the CDC
  • A division of the FDA
  • A division of the Department of Health and Human Services

Questão 73

Questão
The first dose followed by a second dose in 1 to 2 months and a third dose in 6 months is the dosing schedule for what vaccine?
Responda
  • HPV
  • HiB
  • Influenza
  • Varicella

Questão 74

Questão
A patient should first be given [blank_start]PCV13[blank_end] followed by [blank_start]PPSV23[blank_end] [blank_start]one year[blank_end] later.
Responda
  • PCV13
  • PPSV23
  • Menactra
  • Influenza vaccine
  • PPSV23
  • PCV13
  • HiB
  • Yellow fever vaccine
  • six months
  • one year
  • two years
  • five years

Questão 75

Questão
Andrew Wakefield is the British physician who fabricated data in a publication that lead to the belief that vaccines cause autism. What was the name of the publication?
Responda
  • The Needle Stick
  • Autism Errupts
  • Autism Conspiracy
  • The Lancet

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