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Clinical Pathology (201-300) MCQs- Year 4 PMU

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Clinical Pathology (101-200) MCQs- Year 4 PMU
Med Student
Quiz by Med Student , updated more than 1 year ago
Med Student
Created by Med Student almost 6 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
In chronic lympholeukemia in the liver can be seen
Answer
  • myeloblasts
  • mature lymphocytes and single lymphoblasts
  • focal leukemic infiltrates in the portal spaces
  • leukemic infiltrates in the sinusoids

Question 2

Question
Chronic myeloleukemia causes the following changes in liver
Answer
  • effaced lobular structure
  • hypertrophy and hyperplasia of hepatocytes
  • atrophy of hepatocytes
  • leukemic infiltrates in the sinusoids

Question 3

Question
In chronic myeloleukemia we observe the following
Answer
  • long remissions even without treatment
  • extreme hepato-splenomegaly
  • anemia, hemorrhages, infections
  • splenic infarctions

Question 4

Question
Which are the clinical phases of chronic myeloleukemia?
Answer
  • chronic stable phase
  • accelerated phase
  • blast crisis
  • none of the above

Question 5

Question
In Hodgkin lymphoma, mixed cellularity type
Answer
  • there can be seen numerous eosinophils
  • we can observe areas with necrosis
  • intact histological lymph node structure
  • giant bi-nucleated cells, called ‘mirror image"

Question 6

Question
Plasmocytoma has the following features:
Answer
  • Reed-Sternberg tumor cells
  • Jelly-like raspberry red osteolytic bone lesion
  • The tumor cells have a large vacuolar nucleus with prominent nucleolus
  • The tumor cells have a round eccentric nucleus with a pale halo around it

Question 7

Question
Which of the following are examples of pathological processes in the oral cavity that can have an effect of internal organs?
Answer
  • scarlet fever
  • peritonsilar abscess
  • epulis
  • oral squamous cell carcinoma

Question 8

Question
Which avitaminosis can be associated with changes in the oral cavity?
Answer
  • vit. B6
  • vit. B12
  • vit. D
  • none of the above

Question 9

Question
Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause the following changes in the oral cavity
Answer
  • Glossomegaly
  • Hunter’s tongue ( atrophic glossitis)
  • Geographic tongue
  • Fibrinous gingivitis

Question 10

Question
What type of examination you will suggest to your patient if you diagnose him/her with atrophic glossitis (Hunter’s tongue)?
Answer
  • colonoscopy
  • dermatoscopy
  • gastroscopy
  • hysteroscopy

Question 11

Question
If a patient with atrophic glossitis is examined with gastroscopy, what can be the findings in gastric mucosa?
Answer
  • Menetrier’s disease
  • Atrophic autoimmune gastritis
  • Acute fibrinous gastritsis
  • None of the above

Question 12

Question
The risk of which disease does atrophic autoimmune gastritis carry?
Answer
  • acute gastritis
  • atrophy of the colonic mucosa
  • rectal cancer
  • gastric cancer

Question 13

Question
What are the usual changes in leukoplakia?
Answer
  • the epithelium is hyperkeratotic
  • acanthosis in the epithelium
  • chronic inflammation
  • dysplasia in the epithelium can be observed

Question 14

Question
What can we observe in leukoplakia?
Answer
  • parakeratosis
  • dysplasia
  • carcinoma in situ
  • diabetes

Question 15

Question
Which of the following 15 true of pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland
Answer
  • it is a benign tumor
  • it contains hyperplastic fatty tissue
  • it is firm and lobulated
  • it is painful and inflamed

Question 16

Question
In chronic tonsillitis we can observe the following
Answer
  • purulent exudate
  • hypertrophic tonsillitis
  • atrophic tonsillitis
  • it is a predisposing factor for the formation of epulis

Question 17

Question
The typical histological picture of epulis includes
Answer
  • Langhans giant multinuclear cells
  • Fresh heamorrhages and hemosiderin
  • Osteoclast-type multinuclear giant cells
  • It is a true tumor

Question 18

Question
Adamantinoma (amelloblastoma) is
Answer
  • a true tumor
  • an odontogenic tumor
  • when compressed the sound is described as flapping wings
  • when it is compressed the sound is described as eggshell cracking

Question 19

Question
Why is it necessary to comment on the presence or absence of H.pylori in gastric biopsies?
Answer
  • H. pylori is a risk factor for MALT lymphoma
  • H. pylori is a risk factor for duodenal cancer
  • H. pylori causes chronic gastritis
  • H. pylori is a severe fungal infection

Question 20

Question
Which of the following are possible complications of chronic gastric ulcer?
Answer
  • penetration into the diaphragm
  • perforation
  • pyloric stenosis
  • massive hemorrhage

Question 21

Question
Which special stain help us determine the presence of H. pylori in gastric biopsies?
Answer
  • Van Gieson
  • Giemsa
  • Congo Red
  • Immunohistochemistry

Question 22

Question
The following changes can be observed in acute duodenal ulcer
Answer
  • fibrinoid necrosis at the ulcer base
  • inflammatory infiltrate with lymphocytes and plasma cells
  • ulceration penetrating through muscularis mucosae, reaching muscularis propria
  • it often undergoes malignant transformation

Question 23

Question
What histological types of gastric cancer do you recognize?
Answer
  • adenocarcinoma
  • signet-ring cell carcinoma
  • squamous cell carcinoma
  • mucinous adenocarcinoma

Question 24

Question
In phlegmonous appendicitis we can observe the following
Answer
  • peri-appendicitis
  • lymphocytic infiltration in the mucosa
  • neutrophilic infiltration throughout the thickness of the wall of the appendix
  • constriction of the blood vessels of the serosa

Question 25

Question
Phlegmonous appendicitis is characterized by
Answer
  • purulent exudate in the lumen
  • hypoplasia of the lymph follicles
  • hyperplastic activated lymph follicles
  • hyperemic blood vessels of the serosa

Question 26

Question
Gangrenous appendicitis is characterized by
Answer
  • lymphocytic infiltration of the mucosa
  • thrombosis of blood vessels
  • necrosis of the wall of the appendix
  • severe inflammation through the wall of the appendix

Question 27

Question
What are the causes which may lead to micro-nodular liver cirrhosis?
Answer
  • acute viral hepatitis
  • chronic viral hepatitis
  • cardiogenic shock
  • chronic alcoholism

Question 28

Question
Which of the types of necrosis are found in chronic active hepatitis?
Answer
  • piece-meal necrosis
  • adjacent necrosis
  • bridging necrosis
  • caseous necrosis

Question 29

Question
Why the level of calcium in the blood has prognostic value in acute pancreatitis?
Answer
  • calcium is deposited in the bones
  • calcium levels in the blood lower with the progression of steato-necrosis
  • calcium reacts with fatty acids to form soaps
  • it has no prognostic value

Question 30

Question
Some of the gross features of acute pancreatitis are
Answer
  • enlarged liver
  • steatonecrosis of the fatty tissue around and inside the pancreas
  • hemorrhages in the tissues of the pancreas
  • fibrosis in the tissues of the pancreas

Question 31

Question
What histological changes can be observed in chronic hepatitis?
Answer
  • chronic cholecystitis
  • inflammatory infiltrates
  • massive necrosis of hepatocytes
  • fibrotic septa

Question 32

Question
Chronic cholecystitis is characterized by the following
Answer
  • often it is accompanied by cholelithiasis
  • it has no association with cholelithiasis
  • can cause adhesions
  • it is caused by viral infection

Question 33

Question
Which of the following can be complications caused by chronic cholecystitis?
Answer
  • peritonitis
  • obstruction of d. choledochus
  • cholestasis
  • pancreatitis

Question 34

Question
After consuming poisonous mushrooms, a patient shows signs of acute liver failure with progressive reduction of the size of the liver. What process has developed in the liver?
Answer
  • acute viral hepatitis
  • massive hepatic necrosis
  • hepatocellular carcinoma
  • none of the above

Question 35

Question
After consuming poisonous mushrooms, a patient shows signs of acute liver failure with progressive reduction of the size of the liver. Besides liver failure, what other complication can worsen the patient’s clinical condition?
Answer
  • left sided heart failure
  • right sided heart failure
  • pyelonephritis
  • acute renal failure

Question 36

Question
Which of the following can occur after a streptococcal tonsillitis?
Answer
  • post-infectious cholecystitis
  • post-infectious glomerulonephritis
  • minimal change disease of the kidneys
  • acute rheumatism

Question 37

Question
Which types of glomerulonephritis are clinically presented by nephritic syndrome
Answer
  • diffuse endocapillary glomerulonephritis
  • rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis
  • minimal change disease
  • membranous glomerulonephritis

Question 38

Question
Which types of glomerulonephritis are clinically presented by nephrotic syndrome
Answer
  • diffuse endocapillary glomerulonephritis
  • rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis
  • minimal change disease
  • membranous glomerulonephritis

Question 39

Question
What findings can be observed in glomerulonephritis?
Answer
  • Klebsiella
  • E.coli
  • Streptococcus
  • The urine is sterile

Question 40

Question
Which type of glomerulonephritis is ‘crescentic’?
Answer
  • minimal change disease
  • rapidly progressing glomerulonepbhritis
  • membranous glomerulonephritis
  • diffuse endocapillary glomerulonephritis

Question 41

Question
‘Big white kidney’ can be observed in the following cases
Answer
  • rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis
  • amyloidosis of the kidney
  • minimal change disease
  • nephrosclerosis glomerulonephritica

Question 42

Question
Which of the following histological changes are associated with tubal pregnancy?
Answer
  • chorionic villi and decidual changes of the endometrium
  • monstrous trophoblast, hydropic chorionic villi
  • hematoma in fallopian tube, chronic villi invading the muscle layer of the tube, decidual changes of the endometrium
  • cervical intraepithelial lesion, third grade

Question 43

Question
Which of the following histological changes are associated with mola hydatidosa?
Answer
  • chronic villi and decidual changes of the endometrium
  • monstrous trophoblast, hydropic chorionic villi without fetal blood capillaries
  • hematoma in the fallopian tube, chorionic villi invading the muscle layer of the tube, decidual changes of the endometrium
  • cervical intraepithelial lesion, third grade

Question 44

Question
Which of the following histological changes are associated with abortion (miscarriage)?
Answer
  • chronic villi and decidual changes of the endometrium
  • monstrous trophoblast, hydropic chorionic villi without fetal blood capillaries
  • hematoma in the fallopian tube, chorionic villi invading the muscle layer of the tube, decidual changes of the endometrium
  • cervical intraepithelial lesion, third grade

Question 45

Question
Specify the associated clinical symptoms in dysplasia and carcinoma in situ of the uterine cervix
Answer
  • no clinical symptoms
  • scarce contact bleeding
  • fever
  • enlarged inguinal lymph nodes

Question 46

Question
Why if curettage from a suspected pregnancy shows only decidual changes, the gynecologist should be notified immediately?
Answer
  • there is an increased risk for endometrial carcinoma
  • there is an increased risk of associated mola hydatidosa
  • there is an increased risk of associated intraepithelial lesion of the cervix
  • there is a high risk of associated tubal pregnancy

Question 47

Question
Mola hydatidosa has the following characteristics
Answer
  • grossly it resembles grape-like structures
  • chronic villi have fetal capillaries
  • chronic villi are with hydropic edema
  • chronic villi lack fetal blood vessels

Question 48

Question
Examples of ovarian cysts are
Answer
  • follicular cyst
  • cystadenoma papilliferum
  • mature teratoma (dermoid cyst)
  • colloid cyst

Question 49

Question
Which hormones play a role in breast diseases?
Answer
  • somatotropin
  • oxytocin
  • estrogen
  • progesterone

Question 50

Question
How does the breast cancer metastasize?
Answer
  • primarily via lymphogenic spread
  • distantly via hematogenous spread
  • fibro-epithelial spread
  • apocrine spread

Question 51

Question
Select the epithelial ovarian tumors
Answer
  • Granulosa cell tumor
  • Thecoma
  • Brenner’s tumor
  • Androblastoma

Question 52

Question
Which of the following are epithelial ovarian tumors?
Answer
  • Thecoma
  • Serous cystadenoma
  • Dysgerminoma
  • Brenner’s tumor

Question 53

Question
Which of the following are sex-cord stromal ovarian tumors?
Answer
  • granulosa cell tumor
  • thecoma
  • dysgerminoma
  • androblastoma

Question 54

Question
Which of the following ovarian tumors are benign?
Answer
  • papillary cystadenoma
  • papillary cystadenocarcinoma
  • dysgerminoma
  • thecoma

Question 55

Question
Which of the following ovarian tumors are malignant?
Answer
  • serous cystadenoma
  • endodermal yolk sac tumor
  • thecoma
  • mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

Question 56

Question
In fibro-cystic breast disease we find the following
Answer
  • solitary nodule
  • multiple nodules
  • cysts
  • papillary proliferaations

Question 57

Question
In fibroadenoma of the breast we find
Answer
  • multiple nodules
  • cysts
  • solitary nodule
  • proliferated mammary ducts and stroma

Question 58

Question
Benign prostate hyperplasia is seen most commonly in
Answer
  • median lobe
  • subcapsular prostate tissue
  • lateral lobes
  • periurethral prostate tissue

Question 59

Question
Prostate carcinoma is usually seen in
Answer
  • lateral lobes
  • posterior lobe
  • periurethral prostate tissue
  • subcapsular prostate tissue

Question 60

Question
Which two markers are valuable for the diagnosis of prostate carcinoma?
Answer
  • PSA
  • HER2
  • PAP
  • Estrogen receptors

Question 61

Question
What pathogenetic mechanism can be used for the therapy of prostate carcinoma?
Answer
  • hormonal therapy - anti-testosterone drugs
  • hormonal therapy - anti-progesterone drugs
  • treatment with monoclonal antibodies

Question 62

Question
Which of the following types of cancer metastasize to bone?
Answer
  • ovarian cancer
  • renal cancer
  • breast cancer
  • thyroid gland cancer

Question 63

Question
Bone metastases are observed in which
Answer
  • gastric cancer
  • ovarian cancer
  • prostate cancer
  • breast cancer

Question 64

Question
Which of the following statements are true for Grave’s disease
Answer
  • it is the most common cause for hypothyroidism
  • exophthalmos in some patients
  • pretibial myxedema
  • usually most patients are euthyroid

Question 65

Question
The following is true for Grave’s disease
Answer
  • it causes hyperthyroidism
  • autoantibodies against TSH-receptors
  • affects more men than women
  • thyroid stimulating IgG is the cause

Question 66

Question
Histologically in Grave’s disease we can find
Answer
  • nodular colloid goiter
  • signs of thyroid hyperfunction
  • small thyroid follicles with small amounts of diluted colloid
  • many resorbtive vacuoles in the thyroid follicles

Question 67

Question
In nodular toxic goiter we can observe the following
Answer
  • exophthalmos
  • there are found autoantibodies against TSH-receptors
  • pretibial myxedema
  • colloid nodular goiter

Question 68

Question
Which of the following are renal complications of diabetes?
Answer
  • arteriolo-hyalinosis of vas afferens and vas efferens
  • chronic pyelonephritis
  • diffuse and segmental glomerulosclerosis
  • diabetic retinopathy

Question 69

Question
In goiter we observe
Answer
  • cystically dilated thyroid follicles
  • histological accommodation of the epithelium lining the follicles
  • papillary folds of the epithelium of the follicles
  • diluted, scarce colloid

Question 70

Question
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is characterized by
Answer
  • the thyroid follicles are dilated, filled with large amounts of concentrated colloid
  • atypical looking cells called oncocytes
  • the thyroid follicles are replaced by lymph follicles
  • these lymphoid follicles have pale germinal centers

Question 71

Question
Pneumococcus usually causes infections of the CNS in
Answer
  • newboms
  • adults
  • teenagers
  • toddlers

Question 72

Question
Haemophylus influenze is the most common etiological agent for infections of the CNS in
Answer
  • newborns
  • adults
  • teenagers
  • toddlers

Question 73

Question
Escherichia coli is the most common etiological agent from infections of the CNS in
Answer
  • newborns
  • adults
  • teenagers
  • toddlers

Question 74

Question
Neisseria meningitidis is the most common etiological agent from infections of the CNS in
Answer
  • newborns
  • adults
  • teenagers
  • toddlers

Question 75

Question
Which of the following statements are true for tumors of the CNS?
Answer
  • metastatic tumors to the brain are more common than the primary
  • primary tumors of the CNS often metastasize outside the CNS
  • primary tumors of the CNS almost never metastasize outside the CNS
  • most important factor for the outcome is the tumor location

Question 76

Question
Which are the purposes of pathological autopsy?
Answer
  • to accuse the clinicians of medical malpractice
  • to establish the cause of death and the definitive diagnosis
  • to help and educate clinicians and to improve their work
  • to help the-relatives of the deceased to convict the doctors

Question 77

Question
Which are the conditions for an autopsy to be done?
Answer
  • death occurred in a hospital due to a disease
  • available medical history of the patient
  • presence of the treating doctor
  • all of the listed above

Question 78

Question
What are the characteristics of a frozen section?
Answer
  • urgent diagnosis given during an operation
  • the preparation of the tissue samples is done by a paraffin method
  • the preparation of the tissue samples is done on a freezing microtome
  • sometimes the diagnosis is not exactly clear because of the preparation method but information like “malignant tumor”, “benign tumor” or “inflammation” is given to the surgeons to know how to proceed with the operation

Question 79

Question
Which fixative is most commonly used?
Answer
  • Bouin solution
  • Absolute alcohol
  • Formalin 10%
  • Salts of heavy metals

Question 80

Question
What fixative should be used for a liver biopsy from a baby with a suspected inherited metabolic disease?
Answer
  • Formalin 10
  • 1,5-4% glutaraldehyde
  • Frozen section
  • Zenker’s fixative

Question 81

Question
What is the role of immunohistochemical stains?
Answer
  • to give urgent answers about the diagnosis or at least orientation about the pathological process during surgery
  • to determine the histogenesis of the tumor especially in highly undifferentiated malignant tumors
  • to determine the proliferative activity and the hormonal receptors of the tumor that is highly important for the treatment
  • to help determine the cause of death

Question 82

Question
Cytokeratin, S-100 protein, Vimentin, Desmin, CD-20 are examples of
Answer
  • special stains to prove different substances
  • immunohistochemical markers

Question 83

Question
In which cases a pathological autopsy is performed?
Answer
  • when there is suspicion for diagnostic or therapeutic malpractice
  • death of a person outside the hospital
  • when there is suspicion of violent death
  • death of a patient in the hospital and when the relatives don’t ask the principal to cancel the autopsy

Question 84

Question
Which of the followings is not a part of performing an autopsy
Answer
  • dissection of organ
  • opening the body
  • taking biopsy from organ change
  • extraction of abdominal and thoracic organs

Question 85

Question
Size, shape, elasticity, consistency, color and cut surface are characteristics of
Answer
  • microscopic examination of organs
  • gross examination of organs
  • ultramicroscopic examination of organs
  • none of the listed

Question 86

Question
Indicate correctly the name of the described test. The pericardial sac is cut in Y-like section and filled with water, after that, in the presence of a witness, the right ventricle is punctured with a knife
Answer
  • test for thromboembolism
  • test for pneumothorax
  • test for air and gas embolism
  • test for fat embolism

Question 87

Question
Indicate correctly the name of the described test. The pulmonary artery is cut at the place of truncus pulmonalis. Tweezers are inserted and the content of the artery is taken out for examinationion
Answer
  • test for pneumothorax
  • test for air and gas embolism
  • test for thromboembolism
  • test for fat embolism

Question 88

Question
Indicate correctly the name of the described test. A pocket between the skin and the ribs is formed and is filled with water. In the presence of a witness, the thorax is punctured with a thin knife in an intercostal space
Answer
  • test for air and gas embolism
  • test for fat embolism
  • test for thromboembolism
  • test for pneumothorax

Question 89

Question
Where is the main accumulation of glycogen in patients with diabetes?
Answer
  • in epithelial cells of convoluted tubules and Henle’s loop
  • in epithelial cells of gastrointestinal mucosa
  • in the nuclei and in the cytoplasm of the hepatocytes
  • endothelial cells of the vessels

Question 90

Question
The abnormal inclusions in the hepatocytes in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency are composed of
Answer
  • glycogen
  • lipids
  • bile
  • proteins

Question 91

Question
PAS reaction with PAS control is used to distinguish
Answer
  • Cholesterol from other lipids
  • Glycogen from mucus
  • DNA from RNA
  • Denaturated intracellular proteins from accumulated extracellular proteins

Question 92

Question
PAS-control is done using
Answer
  • sulfuric acid
  • hydrochloric acid
  • amylase
  • picric acid

Question 93

Question
What is the relation between fatty degeneration of the liver and diabetes?
Answer
  • there is no relation between them
  • patients with diabetes have increased intake of lipids to provide more energy
  • the fatty liver in diabetes is caused by increased lipolysis and increased delivery of fatty acids in the liver
  • the fatty liver leads to diabetes mellitus

Question 94

Question
What is android type of obesity?
Answer
  • also called “male”or “apple” type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist
  • also called “female” or “pear’’type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs
  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax
  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Question 95

Question
What is gynoid type of obesity?
Answer
  • also called “male”or “apple” type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist
  • also called “female”or “pear”type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs
  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax
  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Question 96

Question
What is upper type of obesity?
Answer
  • also called “male”or “apple” type, accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist
  • also called “female”or “pear”type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs
  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax
  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Question 97

Question
What is lower type of obesity?
Answer
  • also called “male” or “apple” type, it is the accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the shoulders, thorax and waist
  • also called “female”or “pear”’type - accumulation of lipids in the fatty cells around the hips, tights and legs
  • generalized obesity predominantly on the face, shoulders and thorax
  • generalized obesity predominantly in the tights, hips and legs

Question 98

Question
Which type of obesity has worse prognosis?
Answer
  • gynoid type
  • male type
  • the obesity doesn’t affect the patient’s health
  • all of the obesity types have the same prognosis

Question 99

Question
Haemolytic jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings:
Answer
  • increased indirect bilirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobilinogen in the urine
  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, both bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine
  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypoholic or acholic stool, increased bilirubin in the urine
  • none of the above

Question 100

Question
Mechanical jaundice is characterized by the following laboratory findings
Answer
  • increased indirect bilirubin in the serum, hypercholic stools and increased urobilinogen in the urine
  • both types of bilirubin are increased in the serum, normal colour of the stools, both bilirubin and urobilinogen are increased in the urine
  • increased direct bilirubin in the serum, hypocholic or acholic stools, increased bilirubin in the urine
  • none of the above
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