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MCQ EOS 2016 Formative

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MCQ EOS 2016 Formative - File is named 2017 ISM Formative MCQ
James Wilson
Quiz by James Wilson, updated more than 1 year ago
James Wilson
Created by James Wilson over 4 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
In order for a child to have blood type AB:
Answer
  • both parents must be blood type O
  • both parents must be blood type AB
  • one parent can be type O, if the other is type AB
  • one parent must be blood type A and the other blood type B
  • one parent must be able to contribute an A-type and one parent a B-type allele

Question 2

Question
All of the following are thought to be risk factors for spina bifida, EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Valproic acid and carbamazepine
  • Pregestational maternal diabetes
  • Inadequate maternal intake of folic acid
  • High maternal alcohol intake in the first trimester
  • Past history of affected pregnancy with the same partner

Question 3

Question
Hypertension is a risk factor for the following disease:
Answer
  • Spina bifida
  • Diverticulitis
  • Hyperlipidaemia
  • Colorectal cancer
  • Chronic kidney disease

Question 4

Question
In conditions associated with aneuploidy, the genetic defect:
Answer
  • may only involve a single gene
  • is caused by over replication of DNA during meiosis I
  • results in a phenotype incompatible with survival beyond childhood
  • results when one copy of a chromosome fails to separate from another
  • is found only in genotypes of individuals with additional copies of chromosomes

Question 5

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 6

Question
Cost benefit analysis has been used in some countries as a justification for withholding health resources from those with permanent incapacity or terminal illness. This approach to resource allocation is claimed to promote the most benefit to most people. Which ethical theory BEST describes this justification in the allocation of public health resources.
Answer
  • Utilitarianism
  • Deontology
  • Virtue Ethics
  • Principlism
  • Phenomenology

Question 7

Question
In gametogenesis, crossing over of chromosomes occurs:
Answer
  • before germ cells divide in meiosis I
  • as the result of cell division in meiosis II
  • via a process that favours replication of dominant alleles
  • in order to reduce the number of chromosomes from 2n to n
  • in such a way that non-homologous rearrangements never happen

Question 8

Question
A good screening test needs to have high:
Answer
  • sensitivity
  • specificity
  • diagnostic accuracy
  • positive predictive value
  • negative predictive value

Question 9

Question
A 38 year old mother presents to you at 11 weeks pregnant. Which of the following best fits the definition of a screening test for a Down syndrome fetus?
Answer
  • Amniocentesis
  • Nuchal translucency test
  • Second trimester foetal morphology ultrasound
  • Checking for a family history of Downs syndrome
  • A blood test for chromosome analysis of the mother

Question 10

Question
Streptococcus pneumoniae can reasonably be characterised by:
Answer
  • staining gram positive
  • being identified with Ziehl Neelsen stain
  • typically being transmitted via modes that involve contact with or contamination by faeces
  • successful treatment with drugs that are preferentially activated by the microbe and, once activated, inhibit DNA polymerase in the microbe
  • being the most common microbe in urinary tract infections and generally treatable with trimethoprim or a quinolone, such as ciprofloxacin

Question 11

Question
Herpes simplex can reasonably be characterised by:
Answer
  • staining gram positive
  • being identified with Ziehl Neelsen stain
  • typically being transmitted via modes that involve contact with or contamination by faeces
  • successful treatment with drugs that are preferentially activated by the microbe and, once activated, inhibit DNA polymerase in the microbe
  • being the most common microbe in urinary tract infections and generally treatable with trimethoprim or a quinolone, such as ciprofloxacin

Question 12

Question
Both Escherichia coli and Vibrio cholera can reasonably be characterised by:
Answer
  • staining gram positive
  • being identified with Ziehl Neelsen stain
  • typically being transmitted via modes that involve contact with or contamination by faeces
  • successful treatment with drugs that are preferentially activated by the microbe and, once activated, inhibit DNA polymerase in the microbe
  • being the most common microbe in urinary tract infections and generally treatable with trimethoprim or a quinolone, such as ciprofloxacin

Question 13

Question
Mycobacterium tuberculosis can reasonably be characterised by:
Answer
  • staining gram positive
  • being identified with Ziehl Neelsen stain
  • typically being transmitted via modes that involve contact with or contamination by faeces
  • successful treatment with drugs that are preferentially activated by the microbe and, once activated, inhibit DNA polymerase in the microbe
  • being the most common microbe in urinary tract infections and generally treatable with trimethoprim or a quinolone, such as ciprofloxacin

Question 14

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 15

Question
The National Vision for primary health care has, as one of its MAIN priorities
Answer
  • Complex case management
  • Evidence based general practice
  • Improved access to hospital care
  • Increased focus on tertiary prevention
  • Reduced inequity in health outcomes for all

Question 16

Question
In the blastocyst, the:
Answer
  • trophoblast is destined to become the fetus
  • blastocoele is destined to become the fetus
  • trophoblast is destined to become the inner cell mass
  • trophoblast is destined to become the fetal portion of the placenta
  • blastocoele serves the functions of the digestive system, lungs, and kidneys for the fetus

Question 17

Question
You are considering working for the World Health Organisation in a socially and economically disadvantaged developing region where there is a tuberculosis epidemic. Your specific brief is to address the social determinants of health through tuberculosis control programs . Which of the following should you address as part of your brief?
Answer
  • Co-existing illnesses
  • Medication supplies
  • Crowded housing conditions
  • Evidence based medical care
  • Community health professional training

Question 18

Question
Drug X is said to be a competitive antagonist of neurotransmitter Y. This necessarily means that:
Answer
  • X decreases the affinity between Y and its receptors.
  • X decreases the rate of the biosynthesis or biotransformation of Y.
  • X and Y activate different intracellular (second messenger) signaling systems.
  • In the presence of X, the concentration of Y has to be higher than it does in the absence of X to achieve the same effect.
  • In the presence of X, the maximum effect achievable by Y is decreased, but the concentration required for half-maximal effect remains the same.

Question 19

Question
One of the advantages of high risk population approaches to blood pressure control in comparison to population wide interventions is that high risk population approaches:
Answer
  • Don’t need to involve the medical system
  • Are not reliant on individual behaviour change
  • Have a greater benefit to risk ratio for each individual
  • Are not reliant on an arbitrary ‘cut off’ of blood pressure values
  • Tend to be more costly compared to population wide approaches

Question 20

Question
Which of the following sets of blood gas data would be MOST LIKELY found in a patient whose lungs had fluid in them, compromising oxygen and carbon dioxide diffusion between the alveoli and the capillaries (relative to normal):
Answer
  • low CO2; high O2; low pH
  • high CO2; low O2; low pH
  • normal CO2; low O2; low pH
  • low CO2; low O2; normal pH
  • high CO2; normal O2; low pH

Question 21

Question
Which of the following lifestyle change would MOST benefit a patient in terms of modifying hyperlipidaemia?
Answer
  • Restrict salt
  • Reduce stress
  • Increase monitoring of lipids
  • Decrease saturated fats in diet
  • Increase dietary sources of potassium

Question 22

Question
The replication and persistence of Herpes simplex virus adhere to which of the following patterns?
Answer
  • The virus persists only in immunosuppressed individuals.
  • Infection usually involves sensory nerve ganglia throughout the whole body.
  • Reactivations cause progressive death of neurons, finally leading to muscle paralysis.
  • Replication occurs initially in the respiratory tract, with later dissemination to the eyes causing conjunctivitis.
  • Virus replication in the epidermis leads to cell damage and an inflammatory infiltrate, with the appearance of localized small vesicles.

Question 23

Question
Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
Answer
  • Mammography
  • An arthritis self-management Program
  • Immunisation for communicable disease
  • Foot care education for a diabetic patient
  • Community based smoking cessation programs

Question 24

Question
Of the following, the most common microbe in urinary tract infections, which is generally treatable with trimethoprim or a quinolone, such as ciprofloxacin is:
Answer
  • Vibrio cholorae
  • Herpes simplex
  • Escherichia coli
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 25

Question
Of the following, the microbe that secretes a toxin, which activates the same intracellular (second messenger) in its target cells as adrenaline does in its target cells via β-adrenergic stimulation is:
Answer
  • Vibrio cholorae
  • Herpes simplex
  • Escherichia coli
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 26

Question
Of the following, the microbe that reproduces by having its DNA replicated in infected cells is:
Answer
  • Vibrio cholorae
  • Herpes simplex
  • Escherichia coli
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 27

Question
Of the following, the microbe whose resistance to antibiotics is partly due to the presence of lipids anchored in its cell wall is:
Answer
  • Vibrio cholorae
  • Herpes simplex
  • Escherichia coli
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 28

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 29

Question
The MOST important reason for initiating quarantining activities is to:
Answer
  • ensure the patient is given specialised care, if needed
  • apply public health measures to prevent further spread
  • collect data for national communicable disease surveillance systems
  • gather detailed histories about the clinical signs and symptoms of rare communicable diseases
  • enable a safe and systematic collection of information about contacts and recent travel history

Question 30

Question
In an abscess, necrosis develops due to the effects of:
Answer
  • low pH
  • ischaemia
  • cytotoxic killer cells
  • lysosomal enzymes
  • increased intracellular sodium

Question 31

Question
Secondary hypertension in a patient with a tumour in her adrenal medulla MOST LIKELY involves:
Answer
  • expansion of the blood volume
  • stimulation of nicotinic receptors
  • stimulation of glucocorticoid receptors
  • stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors
  • stimulation of mineralocorticoid receptors

Question 32

Question
Sandra, 29, presents to you following a recent visit to Thailand. She is complaining of severe diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, nausea and bloating. She says that it commenced shortly after arriving home. When taking a travel history from Sandra, it is MOST important that you ask Sandra about:
Answer
  • Sudden weight loss
  • Usual sexual practices
  • Foods consumed whilst away
  • Alcohol intake whilst travelling
  • Medications taken during travels

Question 33

Question
Which of the following human diseases is covered by the Quarantine Act and are therefore subject to quarantine laws in Australia?
Answer
  • Smallpox
  • Diphtheria
  • Q fever disease
  • Listeria
  • Rotavirus

Question 34

Question
The results of a screening test for adolescent depression are compared to depression designated by the DSM 4 criteria (the ‘gold standard’ in this example). What proportion of people with depression does the screening test correctly identify?
Image:
2015+Exam+Ism+Q50 (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • 90/100
  • 90/360
  • 10/400
  • 390/660
  • 480/760

Question 35

Question
Which of the following diseases is vaccine preventable?
Answer
  • Whooping cough
  • Hepatitis C
  • HIV
  • Orolabial herpes
  • Glandular fever

Question 36

Question
According to the Frank-Starling law of the heart, the primary determinant of ventricular output is:
Answer
  • heart rate
  • arterial pressure
  • ventricular preload
  • coronary blood flow
  • AV node conduction

Question 37

Question
Australia has been at the forefront of a unique approach to drug policy and practice known as ‘harm minimisation’. Which of the following BEST describes the strategy of ‘harm minimisation’?
Answer
  • A strategy aimed to address the harmful effects of drugs on the individual
  • A national public health strategy that addressed the environmental sources of drug use
  • A strategy aimed at the reduction in harm from drugs, supply of drugs and demand for drugs
  • A strategy built on community development programs to prevent the uptake of harmful drug use
  • the drug and environmental factors.

Question 38

Question
Everything else being equal, the lowest respiration rate (breaths per minute) would MOST LIKELY be found in a patient who has:
Answer
  • angina and who is panicking
  • heroin overdose and about to get naloxone
  • pneumonia and about to get an intravenous antibiotic
  • iron-deficiency anaemia and about to get a blood transfusion
  • type 1 diabetes mellitus and about to get insulin for the first time in three days

Question 39

Question
Everything else being equal, the slowest heart rate (beats per minute) would MOST LIKELY be found in a patient who has:
Answer
  • been taking excessive glyceryl trinitrate for chest pain
  • iron-deficiency anaemia and about to get a blood transfusion
  • carbon monoxide poisoning and about to get 100% oxygen to inhale
  • extracellular fluid volume loss and who is about to get intravenous saline
  • been poisoned with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and is about to get atropine

Question 40

Question
Which of the following proteins is secreted by plasma cells?
Answer
  • IgD
  • IgE
  • CD4
  • CD8
  • erythropoietin

Question 41

Question
Which one of the following diseases currently contributes to the burden of illness in Australia, and is classified as a National Health Priority area?
Answer
  • Diabetes
  • Hyperlipidaemia
  • Childhood Influenza
  • Mild cognitive impairment
  • Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Question 42

Question
An example of tertiary prevention is:
Answer
  • Vector control
  • Tax on tobacco products
  • Fluoridation of drinking water
  • HEEADSSS assessment for adolescents
  • Cardiac rehabilitation post-myocardial infarction

Question 43

Question
Optimum time for sexual intercourse that will result in pregnancy MOST LIKELY corresponds to:
Answer
  • 2 days after peak estradiol concentrations during the menstrual cycle
  • 2 days after peak progesterone concentrations during the menstrual cycle
  • 2 days after the endometrium reaches its thinnest during the menstrual cycle
  • 2 days before peak luteinising hormone concentrations during the menstrual cycle
  • 2 days before peak follicle-stimulating hormone concentrations during the menstrual cycle

Question 44

Question
An example of primary prevention is:
Answer
  • Syphilis serology in pregnant women
  • Air quality guidelines and monitoring
  • Rehabilitation programme after stroke
  • The national breast screening programme
  • Benzanthine penicillin monthly following rheumatic fever

Question 45

Question
Which of the following processes is MOST LIKELY to predispose a patient with a history of acid reflux to the development of adenocarcinoma of the oesophagus?
Answer
  • atypia
  • apoptosis
  • neoplasia
  • metaplasia
  • hyperplasia

Question 46

Question
Marie, aged 30, attends your general practice with a cold, and you note that she smokes. She has never thought about quitting, and is keen to leave. You have just one minute to prompt discussion around smoking with a question. Which of the following questions is the most appropriate ‘brief intervention’?
Answer
  • Do you know much about e-cigarettes?
  • Has anyone in your family had lung cancer?
  • Would you prefer a patch or tablet to help you quit?
  • Have you considered switching to low tar cigarettes?
  • Can you see any benefits, if you were to quit smoking?

Question 47

Question
clinical reasoning Which of the following is the definition of a representative heuristic in diagnostic clinical pattern recognition?
Answer
  • the tendency to seek out data to confirm one’s original idea
  • the tendency to stay with an original diagnosis despite evidence to the contrary
  • the tendency to use mental matching to diagnose conditions with characteristic presentation
  • the tendency to be biased by previous diagnoses or factors that lead to framing in the wrong context
  • the tendency to narrow the choice of diagnostic possibilities too early in the diagnostic process

Question 48

Question
Which of the following organisms has been commonly linked to cruise ship outbreaks?
Answer
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • Norovirus
  • Human herpes virus 6
  • Bordetella pertussis
  • Streptococcus pyogenes

Question 49

Question
45% 0.04 The MOST LIKELY finding in a tissue at early stage granulation is:
Answer
  • scar tissue
  • collagen formation
  • proliferation of fibroblasts
  • recruitment of inflammatory cells
  • scattered formation of blood vessels

Question 50

Question
Questions 50 to 51 (2 questions) are based on the following clinical scenario: A pleasant 45 year-old woman presents to the clinic with shortness of breath, chest pain and a mild fever (38.2o C). She is diagnosed and treated as a case of upper respiratory tract infection. Two days later, she returns to the clinic, worried, with no improvement. She is again sent home, with a course of antibiotics. On the following day, she is admitted to hospital and dies of pulmonary embolism. The most significant contribution to this diagnostic error was LIKELY:
Answer
  • affect error
  • framing error
  • confirmation bias
  • anchoring heuristic
  • availability heuristic

Question 51

Question
Questions 50 to 51 (2 questions) are based on the following clinical scenario: A pleasant 45 year-old woman presents to the clinic with shortness of breath, chest pain and a mild fever (38.2o C). She is diagnosed and treated as a case of upper respiratory tract infection. Two days later, she returns to the clinic, worried, with no improvement. She is again sent home, with a course of antibiotics. On the following day, she is admitted to hospital and dies of pulmonary embolism. Clinical Reasoning If this case occurred during a winter influenza epidemic, the decision to consider pulmonary embolism would have been complicated by the addition of which of the following?
Answer
  • affect error
  • framing error
  • confirmation bias
  • anchoring heuristic
  • availability heuristic

Question 52

Question
Which of the following drugs would you use to dissolve a thrombus blocking a patient’s left anterior descending coronary artery? One that:
Answer
  • activates vitamin K
  • activates fibrinogen
  • activates plasminogen
  • increases activity of antithrombin III
  • decreases international normalised ratio (INR)

Question 53

Question
Which of the following drugs could you use to keep the patient from developing thrombi after you successfully dissolved the thrombus in his coronary artery? One that:
Answer
  • activates vitamin K
  • activates fibrinogen
  • activates plasminogen
  • increases activity of antithrombin III
  • e) decreases international normalised ratio (INR)

Question 54

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 55

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 56

Question
In a normal, healthy subject, which of the following single actions is LIKELY to result in the biggest decrease in the volume of intracellular fluid?
Answer
  • intramuscular injection of insulin
  • loss of 300 ml isotonic stool as diarrhoea
  • production of 300 ml urine (600 mOsm/L)
  • oral ingestion of 300 ml sea water (3.5% NaCl)
  • intravenous infusion of 300 ml sterile isotonic (0.9%) saline

Question 57

Question
The normal physiological response to a perceived decrease in arterial pressure at the arterial baroreceptors includes DECREASED:
Answer
  • osmolarity of urine
  • vascular resistance
  • renal sodium reabsorption
  • hydrostatic pressure in capillaries
  • activity of the sympathetic nervous system

Question 58

Question
When an individual expands her extracellular fluid volume by increasing her intake of sodium, the homeostatic response mechanisms by which the excess sodium is excreted includes:
Answer
  • decreased afferent neuronal signaling from baroreceptors
  • decreased plasma osmolarity inhibiting secretion of ADH (vasopressin)
  • increased plasma sodium concentration stimulating secretion of aldosterone
  • increased extracellular fluid volume generating a physiological error signal that diminishes as sodium is excreted
  • increased intracellular sodium concentration leading to increased diffusion down a concentration gradient into tubule fluid in the kidney

Question 59

Question
The type of inflammation MOST LIKELY to occur in burns of the skin is:
Answer
  • serous
  • purulent
  • fibrinous
  • suppurate
  • granulomatous

Question 60

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 61

Question
Multiple small tumour deposits on the inferior surface of the liver in a patient with high-grade serous carcinoma of the ovary MOST LIKELY got there via:
Answer
  • direct spread
  • lymphatic spread
  • perineural invasion
  • transcoelomic spread
  • haematogenous spread

Question 62

Question
All germ cells and some cancer cells share which of the following characteristics?
Answer
  • constant replication
  • loss of DNA repair genes
  • active telomerase activity
  • suppressed apoptotic activity
  • haploid number of chromosomes

Question 63

Question
A systemic, sympathetic, ‘fight or flight’ response MOST LIKELY includes:
Answer
  • sweating, paling or flushing and stimulation of stomach activity
  • increased respiratory rate and constriction of blood vessels for skeletal muscles
  • increased plasma glucose and relaxation of smooth muscle in the urinary bladder
  • increased autonomic efferent activity in sacral nerves and increased cardiac contractility
  • increased adenylate cyclase activity in all adrenergic target cells and decreased plasma renin activity

Question 64

Question
Which of the following drugs is MOST LIKELY to result in increased postsynaptic activity at neuromuscular junctions?
Answer
  • verapamil, which blocks calcium channels
  • lignocaine, which blocks sodium channels
  • neostigmine, which is a competitive inhibitor of acetylcholine esterase
  • botox, which blocks fusion of exocytotic vesicles with plasma membranes
  • diazepam, which hyperpolarises neurons that have receptors for gamma-aminobutyric acid

Question 65

Question
The enzyme responsible for the formation of angiotensin I (Ang I) is:
Answer
  • renin
  • angiotensinase
  • angiotensinogen
  • angiotensin synthase
  • angiotensin-converting enzyme

Question 66

Question
Which of the following is a clinical feature of haemolytic anaemia?
Answer
  • normal levels of serum bilirubin
  • increased serum conjugated bilirubin
  • decreased serum conjugated bilirubin
  • increased serum unconjugated bilirubin
  • decreased serum unconjugated bilirubin

Question 67

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 68

Question
A feature that distinguishes screening tests from diagnostic tests is that screening tests are:
Answer
  • More affordable than diagnostic tests
  • Conducted on people who have symptoms
  • Likely to have a higher overall test accuracy
  • More likely to have a high false positive rate
  • More likely to have a high true negative rate

Question 69

Question
A 26 year old triathlete has been trying unsuccessfully to conceive and you suspect that she may have a relatively common problem among female athletes, which is the failure to ovulate. Which of the following findings would be MOST CONSISTENT with her having ovulated in the last three days?
Answer
  • her endometrium is thinner than it was seven days ago
  • her body temperature is lower than it was seven days ago
  • the concentration of progesterone in her plasma is lower than it was seven days ago
  • her cervical mucus is less abundant and thicker and stickier than it was seven days ago
  • the concentration of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) in her plasma is higher than it was seven days ago

Question 70

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 71

Question
Which of the following diseases is subject to quarantine under the Australian Notifiable Diseases Surveillance system?
Answer
  • Cholera
  • Hepatitis C
  • Legionnaires disease
  • Pneumococcal pneumonia
  • Glandular fever

Question 72

Question
A common feature between fasting/starvation and poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus is:
Answer
  • increased glycogen formation by the liver
  • the use of ketoacids as metabolic fuel for cells
  • decreased function of pancreatic α- (or A-) cells
  • an elevated concentration of glucose in the plasma
  • excess production of oxaloacetic acid in the Krebs (TCA) cycle

Question 73

Question
Alfred, aged 56, attends your general practice for an unrelated condition and you note his blood pressure is somewhat high, at 155/90. The most usual next step would be:
Answer
  • Recheck his BP preferably on a separate occasion
  • Commence an antihypertensive medication
  • Order an echocardiogram
  • Examine Alfred to rule out a stroke
  • Ensure Alfred rests more over the next few days until you can repeat his BP

Question 74

Question
The best place to assist with notifiable diseases is the nearest:
Answer
  • emergency department
  • police station
  • public health unit
  • hospital
  • laboratory

Question 75

Question
A woman and man present for pre-pregnancy advice. The family history includes Huntington’s disease, an autosomal dominant condition, on the man’s side. The man is heterozygous for the gene product huntingtin and the woman is unaffected. The probability of inheritance of Huntington’s disease is:
Answer
  • 0% in male and 0% in female children
  • 25% in male and 0% in female children
  • 25% in male and 25% in female children
  • 50% in male and 25% in female children
  • 50% in male and 50% in female children

Question 76

Question
Australia is a signatory to many of the international documents, such as the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) that enshrine a recognised right to health. Which one of the following responses accurately represents an action that can be taken against Australia should Australia be found to have breached the right to health:
Answer
  • Australia can be made to adopt a National Strategy to prevent any further breaches.
  • The Australian government can be forced to pay a fine.
  • Australia’s actions can be condemned by the United Nations.
  • Australia can be made to build more hospitals.
  • Nothing because Australia is part of the Commonwealth.

Question 77

Question
An unconscious patient with pinpoint pupils, slow breathing and a normal heart rate will MOST LIKELY benefit from treatment with:
Answer
  • insulin
  • atropine
  • naloxone
  • adrenaline
  • a blood transfusion

Question 78

Question
An unconscious patient with urticaria, swollen lips, very difficult breathing due to bronchoconstriction and a rapid heart rate will MOST LIKELY benefit from treatment with:
Answer
  • insulin
  • atropine
  • naloxone
  • adrenaline
  • a blood transfusion

Question 79

Question
A normal subject loses 1 litre of sweat containing 60 mOsm (milliosmoles) of NaCl. In terms of changes to extracellular fluid volume (ECF), intracellular fluid volume (ICF) and osmolarity:
Answer
  • only ICF will contract
  • only ECF will contract
  • plasma osmolarity will decrease
  • ECF and ICF will both contract, but ICF will contract more than ECF
  • ECF and ICF will both contract, but ECF will contract more than ICF

Question 80

Question
An untreated patient with which one of the following conditions is MOST LIKELY to present with (relative to a healthy individual) normal to high arterial partial pressure of oxygen, low arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide and increased arterial pH?
Answer
  • diabetic ketoacidosis
  • carbon monoxide poisoning
  • a patient in anaphylactic shock
  • severe iron-deficiency anaemia
  • a panic attack and who is hyperventilating
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