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MCQ EOS June 2018 Formative

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MCQ EOS June 2018 Formative DLEPP no information available
James Wilson
Quiz by James Wilson, updated more than 1 year ago
James Wilson
Created by James Wilson over 4 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Drug X is said to be more potent than drug Y. Therefore, drug X produces a:
Answer
  • quicker effect than drug Y
  • longer lasting effect than drug Y
  • greater maximum effect than drug Y
  • similar effect at a lower EC50 than drug Y
  • greater area under the curve effect than drug Y

Question 2

Question
A 38 year old mother presents to you at 11 weeks pregnant. Which of the following best fits the definition of a screening test for a Down syndrome fetus?
Answer
  • Amniocentesis
  • Nuchal translucency test
  • Second trimester foetal morphology ultrasound
  • Checking for a family history of Downs syndrome
  • A blood test for chromosome analysis of the mother

Question 3

Question
A good screening test needs to have high:
Answer
  • sensitivity
  • specificity
  • diagnostic accuracy
  • positive predictive value
  • negative predictive value

Question 4

Question
In conditions associated with aneuploidy, which of the following describes the genetic defect? It:
Answer
  • may only involve a single gene
  • is caused by over replication of DNA during meiosis I
  • results in a phenotype incompatible with survival beyond childhood
  • results when one copy of a chromosome fails to separate from another
  • is found only in genotypes of individuals with additional copies of chromosomes

Question 5

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 6

Question
Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
Answer
  • Mammography
  • An arthritis self-management Program
  • Immunisation for communicable disease
  • Foot care education for a diabetic patient
  • Community based smoking cessation programs

Question 7

Question
Which of the following is the reason individuals with AB-positive blood type are considered the universal recipients? It is because they:
Answer
  • are congenitally immunosuppressed
  • only make antibodies against type O antigens
  • have no antigens on the surface of their erythrocytes
  • have both A and B antigens on the surface of their erythrocytes
  • have unique antigens on the surface of their erythrocytes compared to individuals with other ABO blood types

Question 8

Question
One of the advantages of high risk population approaches to blood pressure control in comparison to population wide interventions is that high risk population approaches:
Answer
  • Don’t need to involve the medical system
  • Are not reliant on individual behaviour change
  • Have a greater benefit to risk ratio for each individual
  • Are not reliant on an arbitrary ‘cut off’ of blood pressure values
  • Tend to be more costly compared to population wide approaches

Question 9

Question
Hypertension is a risk factor for the following disease:
Answer
  • Spina bifida
  • Diverticulitis
  • Hyperlipidaemia
  • Colorectal cancer
  • Chronic kidney disease

Question 10

Question
Which of the following microbes is a common microbe in urinary tract infections?
Answer
  • Vibrio cholorae
  • Herpes simplex
  • Escherichia coli
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 11

Question
Which of the following microbes secretes a toxin, which stimulates the same intracellular transduction mechanism (second messenger) in its target cells as adrenaline does in its target cells via β-adrenergic receptors?
Answer
  • Vibrio cholorae
  • Herpes simplex
  • Escherichia coli
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 12

Question
Which of the following microbes reproduces by having its DNA replicated in infected cells?
Answer
  • Vibrio cholorae
  • Herpes simplex
  • Escherichia coli
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 13

Question
Which of the following microbes has resistance to antibiotics that is partly due to the presence of lipids anchored in its cell wall?
Answer
  • Vibrio cholorae
  • Herpes simplex
  • Escherichia coli
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 14

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 15

Question
Which of the following lifestyle change would MOST benefit a patient in terms of modifying hyperlipidaemia?
Answer
  • Restrict salt
  • Reduce stress
  • Increase monitoring of lipids
  • Decrease saturated fats in diet
  • Increase dietary sources of potassium

Question 16

Question
An antibiotic that has a narrow spectrum of activity indicates that the drug has which of the following properties?
Answer
  • low efficacy
  • low potency
  • a short half-life
  • a narrow margin of safety
  • a range of activity against a limited number of bacterial species

Question 17

Question
DHC not covered - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 18

Question
Which of the following is likely to produce the greatest increase in INTRACELLULAR fluid volume when administered to a subject whose water intake remains constant during the infusion?
Answer
  • renin
  • adrenaline
  • aldosterone
  • vasopressin (ADH)
  • hypertonic saline solution

Question 19

Question
DHC not covered yet - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 20

Question
A patient presents with a suspected viral infection in the pharynx. Identification of which of the following is the main aim of taking a throat swab?
Answer
  • virus by culturing it
  • virus from its genetic material
  • body cells that the virus has invaded
  • virus by the type of antibodies present
  • sensitivity of the virus to specific antimicrobials

Question 21

Question
DHC not covered yet - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 22

Question
Drug X is said to be a competitive antagonist of neurotransmitter Y. This necessarily means that:
Answer
  • X decreases the affinity between Y and its receptors.
  • X decreases the rate of the biosynthesis or biotransformation of Y.
  • X and Y activate different intracellular (second messenger) signaling systems.
  • In the presence of X, the concentration of Y has to be higher than it does in the absence of X to achieve the same effect.
  • In the presence of X, the maximum effect achievable by Y is decreased, but the concentration required for half-maximal effect remains the same.

Question 23

Question
DHC not covered yet - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 24

Question
Which of the following describes the mechanism of secondary hypertension in a patient with a unilateral renal artery stenosis?
Answer
  • stimulation of nicotinic receptors
  • stimulation of angiotensin receptors
  • expansion of the intracellular volume
  • stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors
  • stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors

Question 25

Question
Which of the following would be expected in a patient who has been administered an intramuscular injection of adrenaline?
Answer
  • acceleration of heart action and pupillary constriction
  • stimulation of upper intestinal action and pupillary constriction
  • sweating, paling or flushing and stimulation of stomach activity
  • increased respiratory rate and constriction of blood vessels for muscles
  • constriction of blood vessels in the skin and dilation of blood vessels in skeletal muscle

Question 26

Question
Which of the following describes the microscopic appearance of streptococcal bacteria?
Answer
  • single rods
  • chains of rods
  • clusters of rods d) chains of spheres
  • chains of spheres
  • clusters of spheres

Question 27

Question
A 50-year-old man has a previous history of tuberculosis and now has a firm lymph node in his neck. A fine needle aspiration of the lymph node is done. The presence of which of the following types of cell would suggest a diagnosis of tuberculosis?
Answer
  • eosinophils
  • epithelioid cells
  • lymphocytes
  • macrophages
  • neutrophils

Question 28

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 29

Question
Australia has been at the forefront of a unique approach to drug policy and practice known as ‘harm minimisation’. Which of the following BEST describes the strategy of ‘harm minimisation’?
Answer
  • A strategy aimed to address the harmful effects of drugs on the individual
  • A national public health strategy that addressed the environmental sources of drug use
  • A strategy aimed at the reduction in harm from drugs, supply of drugs and demand for drugs
  • A strategy built on community development programs to prevent the uptake of harmful drug use
  • A strategy that aims to address drug use, by conceptualising it as an interaction between the drug and environmental factors.

Question 30

Question
All germ cells and some cancer cells share which of the following characteristics?
Answer
  • active telomerase activity
  • constant replication
  • haploid number of chromosomes
  • loss of DNA repair genes
  • suppressed apoptotic activity

Question 31

Question
Everything else being equal, wWhich of the following individuals is MOST LIKELY to have a the LOWEST SODIUM [Na+] concentration, recorded in a sample of his/her blood?
Answer
  • A healthy individual who has been given the drug ouabain (inhibits Na+/K+ATPase)
  • an athlete who has just lost one litre of hypotonic (70 mmol/L) NaCl as sweat
  • a normally hydrated individual who has just received an infusion of one litre of isotonic (0.9%) saline in preparation for surgery
  • a patient with Conn’s syndrome (aldosterone-secreting tumour)
  • an ecstasy user with inappropriately elevated secretion of vasopressin (SIADH)

Question 32

Question
DHC not covered yet - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 33

Question
Hypertension is a risk factor for the following disease:
Answer
  • Stroke
  • Spina bifida
  • Diverticulitis
  • Hyperlipidamia
  • Colorectal cancer

Question 34

Question
For an adult with ‘pre-diabetes’, which of the following is most likely to delay or prevent the onset of type 2 diabetes?
Answer
  • Quitting smoking
  • Commencing insulin
  • Measuring blood sugar daily
  • Starting doing 15 minutes of exercise daily
  • Commencing a cholesterol-reducing medication

Question 35

Question
DHC not covered yet - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 36

Question
The goal of immunization (vaccination) is to induce:
Answer
  • autoimmunity
  • active immunity
  • innate immunity
  • passive immunity
  • cell-mediated immunity

Question 37

Question
DHC not covered yet - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 38

Question
Which of the following patients is MOST LIKELY to have a low respiration rate (breaths per minute)? A patient with:
Answer
  • angina and who is panicking
  • a heroin overdose and about to get naloxone
  • pneumonia and about to get an intravenous antibiotic
  • iron-deficiency anaemia and about to get a blood transfusion
  • type 1 diabetes mellitus and about to get insulin for the first time in three days

Question 39

Question
The tendency to accept a diagnosis due to ease in recalling a past similar event or case rather than probability or statistical prevalence is:
Answer
  • affect heuristic
  • anchoring heuristic
  • availability heuristic
  • confirmation heuristic
  • satisficing heuristic

Question 40

Question
In the image above, which letter indicates the lamina?
Image:
2018+Exam+Ism+Q40 (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 41

Question
An example of primary prevention is:
Answer
  • Syphilis serology in pregnant women
  • Air quality guidelines and monitoring
  • Rehabilitation programme after stroke
  • The national breast screening programme
  • Benzanthine penicillin monthly following rheumatic fever

Question 42

Question
A feature that distinguishes screening tests from diagnostic tests is that screening tests are:
Answer
  • More affordable than diagnostic tests
  • Conducted on people who have symptoms
  • Likely to have a higher overall test accuracy
  • More likely to have a high false positive rate
  • More likely to have a high true negative rate

Question 43

Question
Optimum time for sexual intercourse that will result in pregnancy MOST LIKELY corresponds to which of the following?
Answer
  • 2 days after peak estradiol concentrations during the menstrual cycle
  • 2 days after peak progesterone concentrations during the menstrual cycle
  • 2 days after the endometrium reaches its thinnest during the menstrual cycle
  • 2 days before peak luteinising hormone concentrations during the menstrual cycle
  • 2 days before peak follicle-stimulating hormone concentrations during the menstrual cycle

Question 44

Question
The National Vision for primary health care has, as one of its MAIN priorities
Answer
  • Complex case management
  • Evidence based general practice
  • Improved access to hospital care
  • Increased focus on tertiary prevention
  • Reduced inequity in health outcomes for all

Question 45

Question
Which of the following inhibit(s) thrombosis?
Answer
  • α-2 macroglobulin
  • conversion of factor X to factor Xa
  • endothelial damage
  • fibrin
  • oral cyclooxygenase inhibitors

Question 46

Question
You are considering working for the World Health Organisation in a socially and economically disadvantaged developing region where there is a tuberculosis epidemic. Your specific brief is to address the social determinants of health through tuberculosis control programs . Which of the following should you address as part of your brief?
Answer
  • Co-existing illnesses
  • Medication supplies
  • Crowded housing conditions
  • Evidence based medical care
  • Community health professional training

Question 47

Question
Which of the following drugs is MOST LIKELY to result in decreased postsynaptic activity at neuromuscular junctions?
Answer
  • botox, which blocks fusion of exocytotic vesicles with plasma membranes
  • carbachol, which acts like acetylcholine and is resistant to choline esterases
  • cocaine, which blocks uptake of catecholamines by presynaptic neurons
  • diazepam, which hyperpolarises neurons that have receptors for gamma-aminobutyric acid
  • propranolol, which competes with noradrenaline for binding at beta receptors

Question 48

Question
An example of secondary prevention is:
Answer
  • Advice to youth to abstain from sexual relationships
  • Provision of condom vending machines in public spaces
  • Annual chlamydia testing of men who have sex with men
  • HPV immunisation of girls who are not yet sexually active
  • Education to change community norms and gender relations

Question 49

Question
Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY finding in a tissue at early stage granulation?
Answer
  • scar tissue
  • collagen formation
  • proliferation of fibroblasts
  • recruitment of inflammatory cells
  • scattered formation of blood vessels

Question 50

Question
A process of "mental matching" to diagnose conditions with characteristic presentations that may predispose to a lack of differential diagnosis is best described by the term:
Answer
  • affect
  • anchoring
  • availability
  • confirmation
  • representative

Question 51

Question
Which of the following tests is used to detect antibodies to viral infections?
Answer
  • enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
  • erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  • immunoprecipitation
  • plasmaphoresis
  • serum protein electrophoresis

Question 52

Question
Which of the following is a characteristic of a drug that would dissolve a thrombus in a patient’s coronary artery?
Answer
  • activates vitamin K
  • activates fibrinogen
  • activates plasminogen
  • increases activity of antithrombin III
  • decreases international normalised ratio (INR)

Question 53

Question
Which of the following is a characteristic of a drug you might use to keep the patient from developing thrombi after you successfully dissolved the thrombus in his coronary artery?
Answer
  • activates vitamin K
  • activates fibrinogen
  • activates plasminogen
  • increases activity of antithrombin III
  • decreases international normalised ratio (INR)

Question 54

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 55

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 56

Question
A 50-year-old patient presents with haemorrhages and exudates (cotton wool spots) in the retinas of his eyes. He is also MOST LIKELY to:
Answer
  • be taking heroin
  • benefit from treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
  • have central cyanosis
  • require anticoagulant therapy
  • suffer from an allergic reaction

Question 57

Question
A 26-year-old triathlete has been trying unsuccessfully to conceive and you suspect that she may have a relatively common problem among female athletes, which is the failure to ovulate. You draw a single blood sample on the day that she comes for her initial consultation with you. Which of the following results is the MOST CONVINCING that she has indeed ovulated?
Answer
  • estradiol - high normal
  • progesterone - high normal
  • luteinising hormone (LH) - low normal
  • follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) - low normal
  • human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) – undetectable

Question 58

Question
Which of the following pairs of organ systems is ectodermally-derived?
Answer
  • muscular and skeletal systems
  • integumentary and nervous systems
  • integumentary and muscular systems
  • circulatory system and skeletal system
  • lining of the gut and the nervous system

Question 59

Question
A man with a previous history of tuberculosis and now has a firm lymph node in his neck. A fine needle aspiration of the lymph node is done. The presence of which of the following types of cell would suggest a diagnosis of tuberculosis?
Answer
  • lymphocytes
  • macrophages
  • neutrophils
  • epithelioid cells
  • eosinophils

Question 60

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 61

Question
In the blastocyst, the:
Answer
  • blastocoele serves the functions of the digestive system, lungs, and kidneys for the fetus
  • blastocoele is destined to become the fetus
  • trophoblast is destined to become the fetal portion of the placenta
  • trophoblast is destined to become the fetus
  • trophoblast is destined to become the inner cell mass

Question 62

Question
Which of the following is the enzyme responsible for the formation of angiotensin I (Ang I)?
Answer
  • renin
  • angiotensinase
  • angiotensinogen
  • angiotensin synthase
  • angiotensin-converting enzyme

Question 63

Question
Everything else being equal, Which of the following individuals is LIKELY to have a the HIGHEST POTASSIUM [K+] concentration, recorded in a sample of his/her blood?
Answer
  • a healthy individual who has been given the drug flucloxacillin
  • a patient with Conn’s syndrome (aldosterone secreting tumour)
  • a normally hydrated individual whose blood sample haemolysed (cells burst) on the way to the lab
  • a cancer patient who is nauseated by medication and has been unable to eat anything in three days
  • a patient with heart failure who is using frusemide, a drug that inhibits resorption of sodium, potassium and chloride in the loop of henle of the kidney

Question 64

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 65

Question
An example of tertiary prevention is:
Answer
  • Vector control
  • Tax on tobacco products
  • Fluoridation of drinking water
  • HEEADSSS assessment for adolescents
  • Cardiac rehabilitation post-myocardial infarction

Question 66

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 67

Question
Alfred, aged 56, attends your general practice for an unrelated condition and you note his blood pressure is somewhat high, at 155/90. The most usual next step would be:
Answer
  • Order an echocardiogram
  • Examine Alfred to rule out a stroke
  • Commence an antihypertensive medication
  • Recheck his BP preferably on a separate occasion
  • Ensure Alfred rests more over the next few days until you can repeat his BP

Question 68

Question
DHC not covered yet - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 69

Question
For which of the following sets of three (3) diseases is hypertension a risk factor?
Answer
  • Chronic kidney disease, Osteoarthritis, Diabetes
  • Coronary heart disease, Chronic kidney disease, Heart failure
  • Heart failure, Muscle dystrophy, Stroke
  • Peripheral vascular disease, Blindness, Osteoarthritis
  • Stroke, Cataract, Osteoporosis

Question 70

Question
You are writing an article on the social determination of health in your local community newspaper. Which of the following is NOT a social determinant of health?
Answer
  • median income
  • percentage of unemployment
  • ratio of private to public housing
  • number of breast cancer survivors
  • availability of public spaces suitable for exercise

Question 71

Question
A woman and man present for pre-pregnancy advice. The family history includes Huntington’s disease, an autosomal dominant condition, on the man’s side. The man is heterozygous for the gene product huntingtin and the woman is unaffected. Which of the following describes the probability of inheritance of Huntington’s disease?
Answer
  • 0% in male and 0% in female children
  • 25% in male and 0% in female children
  • 25% in male and 25% in female children
  • 50% in male and 25% in female children
  • 50% in male and 50% in female children

Question 72

Question
Which of the following statements about suicide in Australia is correct?
Answer
  • Around 55% of all suicides are male.
  • There are around 10,500 suicides per year.
  • Women have the highest age standardised suicide rate.
  • The highest age specific rate is for males aged 85 years and over.
  • Men are more likely than women to access services for mental health issues.

Question 73

Question
The incidence rate of lung cancer among smokers divided by the incidence rate of lung cancer among non-smokers in a population is called the _________:
Answer
  • relative risk
  • hazard ratio
  • distal population risk
  • population prevalence
  • population attributable risk

Question 74

Question
An unconscious patient with pinpoint pupils, slow breathing and a normal heart rate will MOST LIKELY benefit from treatment with a drug that blocks which of the following receptors?
Answer
  • alpha adrenergic
  • beta adrenergic
  • mu opioid
  • muscarinic
  • nicotinic

Question 75

Question
You read an article about the role of social and environmental factors on rates of tuberculosis in a refugee community. The authors report descriptive statistics of the association of family size according to age groups. ‘Age grouping’ is an example of a(n):
Answer
  • continuous variable
  • dependent variable
  • dichotomous variable
  • nominal variable
  • ordinal variable

Question 76

Question
A normal subject loses 1 litre of sweat containing 60 mOsm (milliosmoles) of NaCl. In terms of changes to extracellular fluid volume (ECF), intracellular fluid volume (ICF) and osmolarity, which of the following is correct?
Answer
  • only ICF will contract
  • only ECF will contract
  • plasma osmolarity will decrease
  • ECF and ICF will both contract, but ICF will contract more than ECF
  • ECF and ICF will both contract, but ECF will contract more than ICF

Question 77

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 78

Question
The results of a screening test for adolescent depression are compared to depression designated by the DSM 4 criteria (the ‘gold standard’ in this example). What proportion of people with depression does the screening test correctly identify?
Image:
2015+Exam+Ism+Q50 (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • 90/100
  • 90/360
  • 10/400
  • 390/660
  • 480/760

Question 79

Question
DHC - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 80

Question
DLEPP - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 81

Question
Which one of the following combinations are components of mechanisms that can act to DECREASE extracellular fluid volume?
Answer
  • increased capillary oncotic pressure and decreased lymphatic drainage
  • increased plasma potassium concentration and decreased arterial pressure
  • increased intestinal chloride excretion and decreased renal sodium reabsorption
  • increased aldosterone secretion and decreased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion
  • increased constriction of the afferent arteriole and decreased constriction of the efferent arteriole

Question 82

Question
DHC - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 83

Question
DHC - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 84

Question
DHC - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 85

Question
DHC - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 86

Question
A finding of decreased arterial partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):
Answer
  • impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
  • normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
  • normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Question 87

Question
A finding of facial pallor in a patient with a 10% decrease in cardiac output due to a problem within the heart MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):
Answer
  • impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
  • normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
  • normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Question 88

Question
A finding of increased renal sodium reabsorption in a patient who lost 1 litre of blood (20% of blood volume) MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):
Answer
  • impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
  • normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
  • normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Question 89

Question
A finding of increased blood flow in the fingers and lower arms of a patient playing the piano vigorously (Flight of the Bumblebee by Rimsky-Korsakov) MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):
Answer
  • impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
  • normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
  • normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Question 90

Question
A finding of constant heart rate in a patient rising out of bed after reclining supine for two days MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):
Answer
  • impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
  • normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
  • normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Question 91

Question
A finding of increased ventilation in a patient as s/he is doing a cardiac stress (exercise) test MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):
Answer
  • impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
  • normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
  • normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Question 92

Question
A finding of decreased water excretion rate in a patient who has not had anything to drink in 16 hours MOST LIKELY reflects a(n):
Answer
  • impaired/abnormal homeostatic feedback response
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by aortic/carotid baroreceptors
  • normal homeostatic response mediated by peripheral chemoreceptors
  • normal direct effect on effector cells of changes to plasma reaching those cells
  • normal homeostatic response NOT involving baroreceptors or chemoreceptors

Question 93

Question
Bazza, Dazza, Gazza, Shazza and Wazza are all 35-year-old male patients at a local Emergency department. On the basis of history and physical examination: • one has been tentatively diagnosed with a respiratory infection for 48 hours, likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae; • one with Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) of several months duration; • one with an incompetent mitral valve that has not shut properly during systole for several months; • one with diabetic ketoacidosis; and • one with an overdose of heroin over the last hour. The results of their vital signs are summarized in the Table below: Which of the patients is MOST LIKELY to have elevated hydrostatic pressure in his pulmonary capillaries?
Image:
2015+Exam+Ism+Q50 (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • Bazza
  • Dazza
  • Gazza
  • Shazza
  • Wazza

Question 94

Question
Bazza, Dazza, Gazza, Shazza and Wazza are all 35-year-old male patients at a local Emergency department. On the basis of history and physical examination: • one has been tentatively diagnosed with a respiratory infection for 48 hours, likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae; • one with Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) of several months duration; • one with an incompetent mitral valve that has not shut properly during systole for several months; • one with diabetic ketoacidosis; and • one with an overdose of heroin over the last hour. The results of their vital signs are summarized in the Table below: Which of the following pairs of the patients are MOST LIKELY to have hypokalaemia?
Image:
2015+Exam+Ism+Q50 (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • Dazza and Shazza
  • Dazza and Wazza
  • Shazza and Wazza
  • Gazza and Dazza
  • Gazza and Shazza

Question 95

Question
Bazza, Dazza, Gazza, Shazza and Wazza are all 35-year-old male patients at a local Emergency department. On the basis of history and physical examination: • one has been tentatively diagnosed with a respiratory infection for 48 hours, likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae; • one with Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) of several months duration; • one with an incompetent mitral valve that has not shut properly during systole for several months; • one with diabetic ketoacidosis; and • one with an overdose of heroin over the last hour. The results of their vital signs are summarized in the Table below: Which of the patients is MOST LIKELY to have a decreased plasma renin activity?
Image:
2015+Exam+Ism+Q50 (binary/octet-stream)
Answer
  • Bazza
  • Dazza
  • Gazza
  • Shazza
  • Wazza

Question 96

Question
Bazza, Dazza, Gazza, Shazza and Wazza are all 35-year-old male patients at a local Emergency department. On the basis of history and physical examination: • one has been tentatively diagnosed with a respiratory infection for 48 hours, likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae; • one with Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) of several months duration; • one with an incompetent mitral valve that has not shut properly during systole for several months; • one with diabetic ketoacidosis; and • one with an overdose of heroin over the last hour. The results of their vital signs are summarized in the Table below: Which of the patients is MOST LIKELY to have the lowest arterial carbon dioxide pressure?
Answer
  • Bazza
  • Dazza
  • Gazza
  • Shazza
  • Wazza

Question 97

Question
Bazza, Dazza, Gazza, Shazza and Wazza are all 35-year-old male patients at a local Emergency department. On the basis of history and physical examination: • one has been tentatively diagnosed with a respiratory infection for 48 hours, likely to be Streptococcus pneumoniae; • one with Conn’s syndrome (hyperaldosteronism) of several months duration; • one with an incompetent mitral valve that has not shut properly during systole for several months; • one with diabetic ketoacidosis; and • one with an overdose of heroin over the last hour. The results of their vital signs are summarized in the Table below: Which patient’s X-ray is MOST LIKELY to show opacity in one lung?
Answer
  • Bazza
  • Dazza
  • Gazza
  • Shazza
  • Wazza

Question 98

Question
Note that the third question is of the type: all of the following…EXCEPT Bate Ho-Van, an 18-year old musician, is suffering from anxiety prior to his first public performance. At his local clinic, Bate complains of palpitations and sweating during his anxiety attacks and, on examination by his doctor, he is found to have tachycardia. After taking a medication prescribed by his doctor, he feels much better and goes on to perform splendidly on stage. The medication that Bate’s doctor would have prescribed for his anxiety would MOST LIKELY have been an antagonist of:
Answer
  • α1 adrenergic receptors
  • α2 adrenergic receptors
  • β1 adrenergic receptors
  • β2 adrenergic receptors
  • β3 adrenergic receptors

Question 99

Question
Note that the third question is of the type: all of the following…EXCEPT Bate Ho-Van, an 18-year old musician, is suffering from anxiety prior to his first public performance. At his local clinic, Bate complains of palpitations and sweating during his anxiety attacks and, on examination by his doctor, he is found to have tachycardia. After taking a medication prescribed by his doctor, he feels much better and goes on to perform splendidly on stage. Which of the following pairs correctly matches the autonomic nervous system involved and the neurotransmitter released by its postganglionic fibres to result in increased (generalised secretion type) sweating?
Answer
  • sympathetic nervous system --- acetylcholine
  • sympathetic nervous system --- noradrenaline
  • parasympathetic nervous system --- adrenaline
  • parasympathetic nervous system --- acetylcholine
  • parasympathetic nervous system --- noradrenaline

Question 100

Question
Note that the third question is of the type: all of the following…EXCEPT Bate Ho-Van, an 18-year old musician, is suffering from anxiety prior to his first public performance. At his local clinic, Bate complains of palpitations and sweating during his anxiety attacks and, on examination by his doctor, he is found to have tachycardia. After taking a medication prescribed by his doctor, he feels much better and goes on to perform splendidly on stage. In addition to tachycardia and sweating, all of the following physiological effects are LIKELY to occur in Bate during his anxiety attack EXCEPT:
Answer
  • dilation of pupils
  • increase in metabolic rate
  • increase in blood pressure
  • contraction of the urinary bladder
  • vasoconstriction of blood vessels to the skin

Question 101

Question
DHC not covered yet - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 102

Question
Exertional dyspnoea (shortness of breath on exertion) would be expected in all of the following patients EXCEPT which one of the following?
Answer
  • aortic stenosis (narrowing of the aortic valve or aorta itself)
  • bacterial pneumonia
  • iron-deficiency anaemia
  • hypertension 167/110 mmHg
  • a patent foramen ovale (left to right intracardiac shut)

Question 103

Question
DHC not covered yet - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 104

Question
DHC not covered yet - Choose A
Answer
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • E

Question 105

Question
All of the following is considered a management strategy for hypertension EXCEPT
Answer
  • Weight reduction
  • Reduced salt intake
  • Increased dietary fibre
  • Increased physical activity
  • Reduction in alcohol intake

Question 106

Question
All of the following factors contribute to the virulence of mycobacteria, EXCEPT:
Answer
  • inhibition of granuloma formation
  • inhibition of lysosome acidification
  • interference with antigen presentation
  • inhibition of lysosome-phagosome fusion
  • resistance to toxic compounds within macrophages

Question 107

Question
Which of the following chemical mediators is NOT released during tissue injury to stimulate nociceptors to produce pain?
Answer
  • histamine
  • bradykinin
  • endorphin
  • serotonin
  • adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Question 108

Question
All of the following are continuous variables EXCEPT:
Answer
  • age
  • height
  • blood group
  • temperature
  • survival time

Question 109

Question
All of the following statements regarding penicillin are correct, EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Penicillin acts by inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.
  • Penicillin hypersensitivity (allergy) can result in potentially fatal angioneurotic oedema.
  • Carbapenams (e.g. imipenem) may be used with caution in penicillin hypersensitivity.
  • Cephalosporins such as cefotaxime may be safely used in penicillin hypersensitivity.
  • Macrolides such as erythromycin may be safely used in penicillin hypersensitivity.

Question 110

Question
All of the following statements regarding the role of chemical mediators released by mast cells are correct, EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Histamine induces vasodilatation.
  • Cytokines initiate the adaptive immune response.
  • Chemotactic factors attract neutrophils and eosinophils to the site of inflammation.
  • Leukotrienes induce B-cell proliferation.
  • Prostaglandins induce pain.

Question 111

Question
All of the following are signs of poisoning with an organophosphate compound (long-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor), EXCEPT:
Answer
  • miosis (constricted pupils)
  • tachycardia
  • profuse sweating
  • excessive salivation
  • increased lacrimation (tearing)

Question 112

Question
All of the following statements regarding dysplasia are true, EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Mild to moderate dysplasia may be reversible.
  • Dysplasia is usually encountered in epithelia.
  • The proliferation of cells may breach the basement membrane in severe dysplasia.
  • Carcinoma-in-situ is a form of dysplasia.
  • Dysplasia may not necessarily progress to carcinoma.
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