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Physiology Cycle 1 - BLOOD

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Past exams & own question turned notes
Soheila Amri
Quiz by Soheila Amri, updated more than 1 year ago
Soheila Amri
Created by Soheila Amri about 3 years ago
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which of following statements properly describes beta-adrenergic (β-adrenergic) receptors?
Answer
  • β-adrenergic receptor is a ligand-gated channels.
  • Activity of some adrenergic receptors brings fEPSP to the postsynaptic membranes.
  • Beta-adrenergic receptors initiate transduction resulting with activation of adenylate cyclase.
  • Activation of beta-adrenergic receptors up-regulates synthesis of cAMP.

Question 2

Question
Which of following expressions about MHC class I complexes are true?
Answer
  • They are present in almost all cells, except for erythrocytes.
  • They are present only on antigen presenting cell.
  • Their role is to present proteins and activate helper T-lymphocytes
  • It plays role in defense against intracellular pathogens.

Question 3

Question
Put following cations of the extracellular fluid (ECF) in proper order. Begin from the most concentrated:
Answer
  • Sodium-calcium-potassium-magnesium
  • Magnesium-sodium - calcium
  • Potassium-sodium-calcium-magnesium
  • Sodium-potassium-calcium-magnesium

Question 4

Question
In Rhesus system of blood:
Answer
  • D antigen the oligosaccharide bound to the cellular membrane.
  • D antigen is the most immunogenic (the strongest) component of the system.
  • All antigens of the Rhesus system are proteins located only on membranes of erythrocytes.
  • Agglutinins are synthesized in RhD-negative individuals after exposure to RhD-postive blood.

Question 5

Question
Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are:
Answer
  • Rise of liberation of histamine from mast cel
  • Rise of gluconeogenesis.
  • Rise of plasma concentration free fatty acids.
  • Intensification of catecholamine-dependant bronchodilation.

Question 6

Question
Which of following statements concerning thromboxane A2 (TxA2) are true?
Answer
  • It activates fibrinolysis.
  • TxA2 activates platelets – it intensifies their degranulation (release of the content of granules).
  • It mediates vascular contraction.
  • It prevents aggregation of platelets.

Question 7

Question
Which of following statements properly describe characteristics of facilitated diffusion?
Answer
  • In facilitated diffusion, membrane carriers enable movement of molecules through the cellular membrane against concentration gradient.
  • Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water
  • Facilitated diffusion characterizes with finite rate of transfer of substance defined as maximum saturation.
  • Water molecules pass from the cell of the collecting duct to its lumen through the system of facilitated diffusion called AQP2

Question 8

Question
Which of following results of blood tests may suggest improperly low activity/ concentration of thrombin?
Answer
  • Prolonged time of the clotting time test.
  • Prolonged prothrombin time.
  • Prolonged time of bleeding time test.
  • Prolonged time of Rumpel-Leede test.

Question 9

Question
Which of following statement concerning active transport are true?
Answer
  • Na/K ATP-ase exchanges 2 sodium ions for 1 potassium ion. Each such exchange requires two ATP molecules.
  • Co-transportation of glucose and sodium ions requires previous action of Na/K ATP-ase. Such the mechanism is an example of secondary active transport.
  • Calcium ions are actively pumped into cellular cytosol by the calcium ATP-ase. This mechanism maintains higher concentration of calcium in cellular cytosol than in ECF.
  • Active transport mechanisms are able to move substances against concentration gradient.

Question 10

Question
Find right sentences concerning transportation of CO2 in blood:
Answer
  • 5-7 % of all the CO2 is transported physically dissolved in blood.
  • 50 % of CO2 is converted to bicarbonate. Process is catalyzed angiotensin converting enzyme.
  • All the bicarbonate produced in erythrocytes and exchanged for chloride. It’s called Hamburger’s phenomenon.
  • Part of CO2 is reversibly bound to hemoglobin, forming carboxyhemoglobin

Question 11

Question
Which of following sentences are true?
Answer
  • Immunoglobulins against antigen D of Rhesus system develop in childhood.
  • Immediately after birth, the quantity of agglutinins in the plasma of the newborn is almost zero.
  • Immunoglobulins against antigens ABO blood type system are produced by the fetus before their birth.
  • Agglutinins in ABO system are produced in effect of immunization against antigens A and B commonly present in environment.

Question 12

Question
Which of following receptors are ionotropic receptor for cations?
Answer
  • IP3 receptor.
  • Ryanodine receptor.
  • Glycine receptors.
  • GABAA receptors.
  • Nicotinic receptors.

Question 13

Question
Which of following events don’t match the signal transduction of the G protein coupled receptor.
Answer
  • Autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues of β-subunit of the receptor. β-subunit phosphorylates other proteins.
  • Subunits of G protein interact with their appropriate enzymes, activating various second messenger pathways and other effector proteins.
  • Receptor interacts with G protein to promote a conformational change and the exchange of GDP for GTP.
  • Binding of the ligand to its native receptor, receptor activates.

Question 14

Question
Which of following statements properly describe agglutination:
Answer
  • Administration of aspirin slows the process of agglutination
  • Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon resulting from an interaction between the agglutinogen and agglutinin
  • Gamma globulins of IgM class easily agglutinate erythrocytes in room temperature.
  • Agglutination is slowed by albumin molecules

Question 15

Question
Actions of heparin are:
Answer
  • It inhibits activity of plasma coagulation factors I and IV.
  • It activates natural anticoagulant protein of plasma – antithrombin III.
  • It inhibits activity of activated Stuart factor and thrombin (factors X and II).
  • It intensifies adhesion and degranulation of platelets.
  • It intensifies proteolytic degradation of plasminogen.

Question 16

Question
Which of following statements properly concern eosinophils?
Answer
  • They migrate in large number into tissues infected by parasites where they release hydrolytic enzymes.
  • They release heparin, histamine as well as small quantities of bradykinin and serotonin.
  • They belong to the adaptive immune system. They are not able to phagocyte.
  • They aggregate in tissues where allergic reactions occur (peribronchial tissue in people with asthma).
  • They exhibit chemotaxis.

Question 17

Question
Hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left due to:
Answer
  • Decline of the concentration 2,3 BPG.
  • Rise of pCO¬2
  • Anemia.
  • High body temperature
  • Rise of pH.

Question 18

Question
Muraminidase:
Answer
  • It is a part of innate immune response.
  • It activates complement cascade.
  • It is an enzyme that performs bacterial lysis.
  • It is present in plasmocytes.

Question 19

Question
Oxytocin:
Answer
  • It produces contraction of cells of the deferent duct.
  • It up-regulates synthesis IP3 in smooth muscle cells of the uterus.
  • It is responsible for milk ejection due to contraction of myoepithelial cells.
  • It has galactopoetic activity – it stimulates production of milk

Question 20

Question
Which of following statements concerning coagulation are proper:
Answer
  • Thrombin dependant. factor are factors l, ll, X & Xll
  • Thrombin is a proteolytic enzyme catalyzing conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin.
  • Vitamin K is necessary in process of post-translatory modification of prothrombin in liver
  • Exposition of thrombin to fibrin degradation products accelerate coagulation.


Question 21

Question
Hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left due to:
Answer
  • Decline of the temperature.
  • Rise of 2,3 BPG.
  • Impulses from carotid bodies.
  • Rise of pH.
  • Hypercapnia (rise of pCO2).


Question 22

Question
Actions of heparin are:
Answer
  • It inhibits activity of plasma coagulation factors I and IV.
  • It activates natural anticoagulant protein of plasma antithrombin III.
  • It inhibits activity of activated Stuart factor and thrombin (factors X and II)
  • It intensifies adhesion and degranulation of platelets.

Question 23

Question
Find true statements concerning vasopressin:
Answer
  • It increase water reabsorption from the collecting duct via AQP2 up-regulated after hormone -binds to VP1 receptor.
  • In smooth musculature of vessels, it up-regulates synthesis of IP3 in smooth muscle cells, eliciting contraction.
  • Its plasma level rises in effect of decreasing osmotic pressure of blood and cerebrospinal fluid.
  • Decompression of baroreceptors of the carotid sinus and aortic arch increases liberation of that hormone.
  • Activates Thirst complex

Question 24

Question
Which of following statements properly describe characteristics of facilitated diffusion?
Answer
  • In facilitated diffusion, membrane carriers enable movement of molecules through the cellular membrane against concentration gradient.
  • Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water.
  • Water molecules pass from the cell of the collecting duct to its lumen through the system of facilitated diffusion called AQP2.
  • Facilitated diffusion characterizes with finite rate of transfer of substance defined as maximum saturation.

Question 25

Question
Lactoferrin:
Answer
  • It is a part of innate immune response.
  • It activates complement cascade.
  • It is an enzyme of saliva binding iron necessary for proliferation of microbs.
  • It is an enzyme of saliva reducing Fe2+ to Fe3+.


Question 26

Question
Which of following receptors are intracellular ionotropic receptor for cations?
Answer
  • IP3 receptor.
  • Nicotinic receptors.
  • Ryanodine receptor.
  • Glycine receptors.

Question 27

Question
Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are:
Answer
  • It up-regulates liberation of histamine from mast cells.
  • It intensifies gluconeogenesis in liver.
  • It down-regulates number of lymphocytes and eosinophils.
  • It intensifies catecholamine-dependent broncho-constriction.
  • It increases GFR.

  • Action of glucocorticoids (cortisol) are rise of plasma conc. of free fatty acids

Question 28

Question
Put following cations of the extracellular fluid (ECF) in proper order. Begin from the least concentrated:
Answer
  • Sodium-potassium-calcium- magnesium
  • Magnesium-calcium-potassium-sodium
  • Potassium-sodium-calcium- magnesium
  • Sodium- calcium - potassium - magnesium

Question 29

Question
Which of following sentences are true?
Answer
  • Ratio of agglutinins of ABO in plasma of blood rises throughout childhood.
  • Agglutinins in ABO system are produced in effect of immunization against antigens A and B, being simple and common antigens.

  • Immunoglobulins against antigens ABO blood type system are produced by the fetus before their birth.
  • Immunoglobulins against antigen D of Rhesus system develop in childhood.
  • Agglutinins are present in adult blood plasma

Question 30

Question
Which of following statements concern G-protein coupled receptors?
Answer
  • G-protein coupled receptors hydrolyses GTP, transferred from G-protein to the binding site of the receptor.
  • Muscarinic receptor is an example of G-protein coupled receptor.
  • All adrenergic receptors belong to family of G-protein coupled receptors.
  • G-protein coupled receptors are metabotropic, they initiate formation of second messengers: cAMP or IP3.


Question 31

Question
Which of following statements properly describe agglutination:
Answer
  • Administration of heparin slows the process of agglutination.
  • Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon, in vivo process continues, engaging mechanism of destruction of erythrocytes
  • Administration of isotonic solution of NaCl can facilitate IgG-dependent agglutination of erythrocytes
  • Gamma globulins of IgG class easily agglutinate erythrocytes in room temperature.


Question 32

Question
Which of following results of blood tests may suggest improperly low activity/ concentration of thrombin?
Answer
  • Prolonged time in the clotting time test.
  • Prolonged prothrombin time.
  • Prolonged time of bleeding time test.
  • Prolonged time of Rumpel-Leede test.
  • Prolongerd APTT

Question 33

Question
Which of following statements concerning thromboxane A2 (TxA2) are true?
Answer
  • It activates fibrinolysis.
  • TxA2 activates platelets & it intensifies their degranulation (release of the content of granules).
  • It prevents aggregation of platelets.
  • It mediates vascular contraction.

Question 34

Question
Which of following statement concerning active transport are true?
Answer
  • Na/K ATP-ase exchanges 2 sodium ions for 1 potassium ion. Each such exchange requires two ATP molecules.
  • Co-transportation of glucose and sodium ions requires previous action of Na/K ATP-ase. Such the mechanism is an example of secondary active transport.
  • Calcium ions are actively pumped into cellular cytosol by the calcium ATP-ase. This mechanism maintains higher concentration of calcium in cellular cytosol than in ECF.
  • Active transport mechanisms are able to move substances against concentration gradient.

Question 35

Question
Which of following statements properly describe metabotropic receptors (MR)?
Answer
  • GABAb receptor is an example of metabotropic receptor
  • Tyrosine kinase receptors are metabotropic receptor able to autophosphorylates after binding their ligands
  • Some adrenergic receptors are tyrosine kinase receptors
  • Muscarinic receptors are coupled to phospholipase C & adenylyl cyclase

Question 36

Question
Which of the following statements properly concern G proteins?
Answer
  • Binding of insulin to G protein of the insulin receptor initiates process of activation of adenylyl cyclase
  • Extracellular ligands bind to G-protein coupled receptors which in turn activate particular G protein
  • Inhibitory G protein (Gi protein) is coupled to carbonic anhydrase of some cells
  • The G-protein activates a cascade of signaling events that finally results in a change in cell function

Question 37

Question
Which of the following receptors are ionotropic?
Answer
  • Ryanodine receptor
  • Rhodopsin receptor
  • PTH receptor
  • Nicotine receptor
  • IP3 receptor

Question 38

Question
Which of the following statements properly describe hormones produced by anterior pituitary gland(APG)?
Answer
  • Dopamine decreases liberation of from APG in mechanism of negative feedback
  • Liberation of corticoliberin (CRH) from APG is stimulated by corticotropin (ACTH)
  • TSH is liberated from APG. TSH binds its metatropic receptor of the membrane of the thyroid cell
  • GnRH (gonadoliberin) from hypothalamus stimulates anterior pituitary cells to secrete FSH and LH
  • Prolactin is produced by supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus and liberated by the anterior pituitary

Question 39

Question
Actions of angiotensin II are:
Answer
  • it mediates vasoconstriction
  • It stimulates secretion of aldosterone from adrenal cortex
  • It decreases reabsorption of sodium ions in kidneys
  • It increases heart rate
  • It is a product of partial proteolysis of plasma protein angiotensinogen, process initiated by renin.

Question 40

Question
Oxytocin
Answer
  • It binds to the ligand-gated sodium channel of smooth muscle cells of the uterus
  • It is responsible for milk ejection due to contraction of myoepithelial cells
  • It has galactopoietic activity -it stimulates production of milk
  • It produses contraction of the cells in the deferent duct
  • It up-regulates synth of IP3 in SMC of the uterus
  • It produces contraction of the uterus

Question 41

Question
Phenomena causing increased liberation of renin are:
Answer
  • Reduced volume of ECF and hypoperfusion of the kidney
  • Increased arterial pressure
  • Decreased load of distal tubular fluid (NaCl) in area of the macula densa (of the distal tubule
  • Increased volume of ECF (hypervolemina)

Question 42

Question
Channels embedded in cellular membrane can be gated by:
Answer
  • Extracellular ligand such as glycine
  • Change of the electrical potential of the cellular membrane
  • Mechanical deformation of the cell (ex. Organ of corti)
  • Second messenger such as IP3

Question 43

Question
Which of following statements properly concern metabolism of calcium ion?
Answer
  • PTH increases conc. of Ca2+ in plasma blood.
  • PTH up-regulates mobilisation of Ca2+ ions from bones.
  • PTH increases activity of la-hydroxylase of 25OH D3 in kidneys
  • Thyroid hormones decrease plasma concentration of calcium

Question 44

Question
Which of following statements properly concern metabolism of calcium ion?
Answer
  • Growth hormone exerts hypercalcemic effect
  • PTH decreases activity of 1alpha-hydroxylase of vitamin 25-OHD3 in kidney
  • Calcitonin & glucocorticoids decrease plasma level of Ca2+
  • Tetany is a symptom of hypercalcemia

Question 45

Question
Tetany:
Answer
  • Is a symptom of neuromuscular hyperexcitability
  • Can be produced by respiratory alkalosis (by hyperventilation)
  • Is caused by Low phosphate levels
  • Tetany can be prod by low plasma levels of Mg2+

Question 46

Question
Which of following will NOT haemolyse erythrocytes?
Answer
  • 5% solution of glucose
  • 0.3 % NaCl
  • Distilled water
  • 0,6% saline​
  • Benzene, ether & other organic solvents hemolyse RBC’s
  • Temp. above 60C

Question 47

Question
Which of following will facilitate detachment of oxygen from oxyhemoglobin?
Answer
  • Rise of pH
  • Rise pO2 ​
  • Rise in body temp
  • Rise in pCO2

Question 48

Question
What's true about EPO?
Answer
  • EPO is produced by interstitial cells in peritubular capillary bed of kidneys
  • Adenosine and androgens inhibit secretion of EPO
  • Hypoxia (low partial pressure of O2) in kidney is the main stimulus for EPO release
  • EPO increases the number of erythropoietin sensitive committed stem cells in the bone marrow that are converted by red blood cell precursors

Question 49

Question
EPO;
Answer
  • Is a cholesterol
  • Is a glycoprotein
  • Synthesised in the liver
  • Synthesised in the kidneys

Question 50

Question
Find right sentences concerning transportation of CO2 in blood:
Answer
  • 10% of CO2 is converted to bicarbonate. Conversion is spontaneous and performed in plasma of blood
  • 5-7% of all the CO2 is transported physically dissolved in blood
  • Part of CO2 is reversibly bound to hemoglobin, forming carbaminohemoglobin
  • carbaminohemoglobin is an example of reduced hemoglobin of red-brown colour
  • CO2 can be found as carbaminians & carbanomoHb in the blood
  • Most of CO2 is converted to HCO3- by carbonic anhydrase of RBC

Question 51

Question
Which of following statements properly concern eosinophils?
Answer
  • They migrate in large number into tissues infected by parasites where they release hydrolytic enzymes
  • They aggregate in tissues when allergic reactions occur, (peribronchial tissue in people with asthma)
  • They release heparin, histamine as well as small quantities of bradykinin and serotonin
  • They exhibit chemotaxis

Question 52

Question
Which of following statements properly concern agglutination?
Answer
  • Administration of heparin slows the process agglutination
  • Agglutination is in vitro phenomenon resulting from an interaction between the agglutinogen and agglutinin
  • Agglutination results from an interaction between the platelet’s GP IIb/IIIa and vascular collagen
  • Gamma globulins of IgM class are able to produce immediate agglutination in room temperature

Question 53

Question
What is correct about AB blood type?
Answer
  • Blood type AB individuals have enzyme transferase that catalyses placement of N-acetylgalactosamine onto H-Ag.
  • Blood type AB individuals have enzyme transferase that catalyses placement of D-galactose onto H-Ag.
  • AB is the most common blood type
  • Blood type AB individuals have enzyme transferase that catalyses placement of fucose forming H-Ag.
  • AB has no antigens

Question 54

Question
What is true about Agglutination?
Answer
  • Agglutination of Anti-D Antibody gives Rhesus -
  • Agglutination by anti-A Antibody, but not Anti-B Antibody gives the blood type A
  • No agglutination of Anti-D ab, gives Rhesus -
  • Agglutinins of A-B-O are produced in adulthood
  • All Ag of the rhesus system are proteins located on membranes of RBC’s.

Question 55

Question
What is true about blood type?
Answer
  • Agglutination of both Anti-B & Anti-A ab, give blood type AB
  • No Agglutination of either Anti-A or Anti-B Ab give blood type O
  • There are 4 blood types
  • Ag are proteins located only on membranes of RBC

Question 56

Question
Hemolysis;
Answer
  • 5% solution of glucose is isotonic will hemolyse RBC
  • IgG against D-Ag administered to RhD-neg mother after delivery of RhD-pos child, will not hemolyse maternal RBC’s
  • Hemolysis by hypotonic saline solutions start at 0,45%
  • Hypertonic solutions hemolyse RBC's

Question 57

Question
Turk's solution;
Answer
  • solution stains RBC
  • solution shrinks RBC
  • used in hemocytermeter dilutes blood
  • hemolyse RBC's
  • stains organelles of WBC

Question 58

Question
Hayem's solution;
Answer
  • solution stains RBC
  • solution shrinks RBC
  • solution dilute blood
  • stains organelles of WBC
  • Hemolyse RBC's

Question 59

Question
Complement;
Answer
  • Presenting on the water soluble antigen
  • Complement have chemotaxis of macrophages & neutrophils
  • Complements promotes agglutination of invading microbes
  • Complement have opsonising abilities
  • degranulation of the eosinophils and monocytes

Question 60

Question
What is correct about diffusion?
Answer
  • Particular membrane carrier is able to transfer one particular type of molecules soluble in water.
  • Facilitated diffusion characterises with infinite rate of transfer of substance defined as maximum saturation.
  • Simple diffusion - its rate is directly proportionate to the surface area & directly proportionate to the molecular size & thickness of the membrane
  • Secondary active transport uses potential energy in conc. gradient of some ions created by energy liberated from ATP, such as Na+
  • Simple diffusion depends on molecules ability to dissolve in lipids
  • Secondary active transport can transfer co-transported molecules even against conc. gradient.

Question 61

Question
What is correct about blood?
Answer
  • Sphingosine 1-phosphate (SIP) derived from RBC membrane is a chemoattractant for HSC from bone marrow.
  • High % of RDW indicates anisocytosis of RBC
  • D-Ag is the most Ag (strongest) component of the Rh system
  • ESR decreases with conc of plasma globulins

Question 62

Question
Water;
Answer
  • ICF is 20% of TBW
  • TBW is 60% of body mass
  • ICF main cation is K+
  • ECF main cation is Mg2+

Question 63

Question
Functions of ionised Ca2+
Answer
  • maintenance of proper function of neurons & myocytes
  • maintenance of function of cell-memb. (Transport)
  • Increase blood volume
  • Factor 4 in blood coagulation

Question 64

Question
B-cells;
Answer
  • B-cells mediate humeral immunity
  • B-cells mediate cellular immunity
  • B-cells work in effect of antigenic stimulation, they form plasma cells which secrete immunoglobulins
  • B-cells have MHC-2 present on their membranes

Question 65

Question
IgG;
Answer
  • IgG is a memory immunoglobulin
  • IgG binds C1 complex of complement to Ag-IgG complex, initiating classical pathway
  • IgG has only 2 Ag-binding sites
  • IgG can be found in tears & saliva

Question 66

Question
Correct sequence of phagocytosis/inflammatory response; 1. Rolling 2. Chemotaxis 3. Diapedesis 4. Adhesion
Answer
  • 1, 3, 2, 4,
  • 2, 4, 3, 1
  • 1, 4, 3, 2
  • 3, 4, 2, 1

Question 67

Question
What is INCORRECT about blood
Answer
  • Part of CO2 is reversibly bound to Hb, forming carbamino-Hb
  • Ag’s are found in various tissues in addition to blood
  • Blood type A has a N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase catalysing its attachment to H-Ag
  • RBC have MHC-1

Question 68

Question
Identify right statements concerning the Bleeding time test
Answer
  • Its duration is inversely proportional to the number of platelets
  • it does not depend on concentration and activity of plasma factors of secondary hemostasis
  • it is prolonged in people treated with heparin
  • it tests processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation

Question 69

Question
Analyze ABO system of a couple: a woman (blood type A) has a father whose blood type is O, and is married to a man whose blood type is B (his mother type is A). What is their child probability of blood type A:
Answer
  • 75%
  • 0%
  • 50%
  • 25%

Question 70

Question
Which of the following statements properly concern muscarinic receptors?
Answer
  • All muscarinic receptors are serpentine G-coupled receptors.
  • Some of them are ligand-gated ionic channels.
  • Muscarinic receptors modify activity of adenylyl cyclase of phospholipase C.
  • Acetylcholine is an antagonist of all muscarinic receptors.

Question 71

Question
Find proper sequence of events in signal transduction of the G-Protein coupled receptor; 1. Binding of the ligand to its native receptor, receptor activates ​ 2. Receptor interacts with G-protein to promote a conformational change and the exchange of GDP to GTP ​ 3. Subunits of G-Protein interact with their appropriate enzymes, activating various second messenger pathways and other effector proteins. ​ 4. Autophosphorylation of tyrosine residues of beta-subunit of the receptor, beta-subunit 5. ) G-Protein dissociates from the receptor, Subunits of G protein dissociate​ ​
Answer
  • 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
  • 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
  • 1, 2, 5, 3, 4
  • 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

Question 72

Question
Which of following statements properly concern gating of channels of a cellular membrane:
Answer
  • Glycine receptor is an example of chemically-gated channel for Cl- ion
  • Smooth muscle cells can contract being mechanically stretched. Mediated by stretch-gated channels.
  • Action potential of excitable cells is usually provoked by outflow of anions through ligand-gated channels
  • Action potential of excitable cells in usually evoked by entrance of cations through electrically gated channels. (Na+ & K+)

Question 73

Question
Which of the following statements concerning water are true:
Answer
  • Specific Heat of water is low. Because of this reason water is excellent heat conductor
  • Water is an excellent solvent because of its polar molecule
  • Water easily passes across cellular membrane via non-gated channels for cations
  • Adipose tissue is least hydrated tissue

Question 74

Question
Find right sentences concerning erythrocyte sedimentation rate;
Answer
  • it is a ratio of volume of all erythrocyte to volume of whole blood
  • It is proportionate to packed cell volume (PCV, Hematocrit)
  • Proportionate to plasma concentration of globulin
  • It should not exceed 15mm/h in healthy adults. Is higher in infectious diseases & cancers

Question 75

Question
IgM
Answer
  • It can easily produce agglutination of erythrocytes in room temperature
  • It can cross blood placenta barrier
  • Has 10 binding-sites
  • it’s a secretory immunoglobulin

Question 76

Question
Which of the following statements are true and concern cholinergic receptors:
Answer
  • All muscarinic receptors are g-protein coupled receptors​.
  • Some of them are ionotropic receptors of postsynaptic membrane of autonomic ganglia (+ CSN)
  • Activation of muscarinic receptors increases activity of adenylyl cyclase
  • Some of cholinergic receptors are tyrosine kinase
  • Only 2 types; N-cholinergic & Muscarinic

Question 77

Question
Which of the following receptors are metabotropic:
Answer
  • PTH receptor
  • IP3 receptor
  • IGF receptor​
  • Adrenergic receptor (Epinephrine)

Question 78

Question
Which of the following statements properly describes nicotinic receptor:
Answer
  • it is a ligand-gated sodium channel
  • Activity of this receptor brings IPSP to postsynaptic membrane of neuromuscular junction
  • channel for small cations and anions. blocked by nicotine
  • 2 molecules of a natural agonist are bound to alpha-subunits of receptor

Question 79

Question
Young adult non-obese female 50 kg was injected intravenously with 1200 mg inulin. Laboratory analysis revealed that plasma C of inulin is 120mg/L. Proper conclusion is:
Answer
  • Volume of plasma is improper and equals 10 liters, possible reason is overhydration or hypervolemia
  • Volume of plasma is proper and equals 3.2-3,5 liters. Water homeostasis is maintained
  • Volume of extracellular fluid is proper and equals 10 liters. Water homeostasis is maintained
  • Volume of extracellular is improper and equals 10 liters. The possible reason is dehydration

Question 80

Question
Identify right statement concerning ​erythrocytes​:
Answer
  • carboxyhemoglobin is a reduced form
  • Methb is an oxidised form
  • Blood carries 97% O2
  • Blood carries 97% CO2

Question 81

Question
What is correct concerning the ​intrinsic​ pathway:
Answer
  • depends on factor 11-12a, Kallikrein
  • depends on release of HMWK
  • depends on factor 3-12
  • depends on vascular wall
  • needs calcium ions

Question 82

Question
Growth factor is stimulated by;
Answer
  • hyperglycemia
  • hypoglycemia
  • stress and sleep (REM)
  • physical exercise

Question 83

Question
Identify statements characteristic for “0” typed individuals in ABO system:
Answer
  • They have gene/genes coding for the sequence amino acids of fucosyl-transferase
  • have no antigens on membranes of erythrocytes
  • Both anti-A and anti-B immunoglobulins are synthesized after exposition to those antigens
  • Both anti-A and anti-B hemagglutinins are present in their plasma since their birth

Question 84

Question
Haemolytic Newborn disease can cause:
Answer
  • Anemia
  • Hypobilirubinemia
  • death
  • edema

Question 85

Question
Which of following processes may ​facilitate agglutination.
Answer
  • Cooling (decreasing of temp) of in vitro preparation
  • Administration of Ig against human IgG (Coombs test)
  • Enzymatic modification of molecules of IgG immunoglobulins
  • Activation of complement system performed by complexes antigen immunoglobulins IgM/IgG

Question 86

Question
In healthy humans which of following morphological elements of peripheral blood have ​shortest​ life span
Answer
  • Macrophages
  • Thrombocytes (platelets)
  • Hematopoietic stem cells
  • Erythrocytes​

Question 87

Question
Which of following statement concerning erythrocytes are true:
Answer
  • MCV is an erythrocyte index expressing average volume of erythrocytes
  • RDW (RBC distribution width) is quantitative measure of MCV
  • Conc. of hemoglobin in blood of healthy adult women ranges 12-16 g/dL
  • Standard erythrocyte due to its size + shape is not able to pass via capillaries which diameter is lower than 10 micrometer

Question 88

Question
Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT):
Answer
  • Prolonged in case of low plasma concentration of fibrinogen (Factor 1
  • Depends on processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation
  • Depends on platelets count
  • Depends on state of vascular wall

Question 89

Question
Identify proper statement concerning plasma coagulation proteins dependent on vitamin K;
Answer
  • They can be activated by heparin. substrates for thrombin
  • Post-translatory modification of molecules of prothrombin factor 2 & 10 in liver, depends on Vit K
  • Factor 2, 7, 9, 10, Protein C & S are Vit. K dep.
  • Activity is inhibited by inhibitors of cyclooxygenase
  • They are proteolytic enzymes (serine-proteases)
  • Inhibited by coumarin-derivatives such as dikumarol + warfarin

Question 90

Question
Extrinsic pathway of coagulation:
Answer
  • begins with liberation of tissue thromboplastin (tissue factor (3))
  • begins with exposure of collagen
  • Requires calcium ions​ & ​PL
  • Requires factor 12 for full activation of hemostatic process

Question 91

Question
Ionotropic receptor producing IPSP:
Answer
  • muscarinic receptor
  • nicotinic receptor
  • glycine receptor
  • GABAa receptor

Question 92

Question
GABAa is:
Answer
  • Voltage gated Cl- channel
  • Ligand gated Cl- channel
  • Activation leads to IPSP
  • Activation leads to EPSP

Question 93

Question
Thrombin dependant (hydrolyzed by thrombin) coagulation factors are;
Answer
  • Factor 2
  • Factor 5, 8, 13
  • Fibrinogen (factor 1)
  • high molecular weight kininogen (HmWK) -

Question 94

Question
Identify right statements concerning Prothrombin time
Answer
  • is prolonged in treatment with antivitamin K (+ diseases of liver)
  • depends on processes of extrinsic pathway
  • depends on processes of intrinsic pathway of coagulation
  • depends on platelets count (number of platelets)

Question 95

Question
In neuromuscular junction you can find:
Answer
  • N-Cholinergic receptor
  • B-Adrenergic receptor
  • Acetylcholine receptor
  • Folds of cardiac membrane

Question 96

Question
Primary Hemostasis:
Answer
  • Depend on equilibrium between plasma coagulation proteins & blood vessel
  • Tested by clotting time and APTT
  • Tested by bleeding time
  • Prolonged in individuals treated with inhibitors of cyclooxygenases (aspirin)

Question 97

Question
So called contact factors of coagulation are:
Answer
  • Plasma coagulation factors II, VII, IX, X, C-protein, S protein
  • Pasma coagulation factors I, V, VIII, XIII
  • HMWK, prekallikrein
  • Plasma coagulation factors XI, XII

Question 98

Question
Primary hemostasis is composed of:
Answer
  • Activation of plasma coagulation factors X, II and I.
  • Contraction of the damaged vessel
  • Adhesion, activation, aggregation, granulation of platelets
  • Agglutination and coagulation of platelets

Question 99

Question
So called active immunity develops after:
Answer
  • After natural invasion of a pathogen and development of the response
  • Vaccination with separated antigens of microbes
  • Parenteral administration of ready-made immunoglobulins
  • Passage of maternal immunoglobulins via placenta, with milk or colostrum

Question 100

Question
Clotting time;
Answer
  • Prolonged in people treated with heparin
  • Tests Intrinsic pathway & common pathway
  • Depends on the vascular wall
  • Depends on nr. of platelets
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